Friday, November 4, 2011
UN ranked India at 134 out of 187 Countries in terms of Human Development Index
A UN study ranked India at 134 out of 187 countries in terms of Human Development Index. The study however observed that life expectancy at birth in India has increased by 10.1 per cent a year over the last two decades.
In the 2010 Human Development Report, prepared by UNDP, India had been ranked at 119 out of 169 countries. However, according to the new report for 2011, it is misleading to compare values and rankings with those of previously published reports as the underlying data and methods have changed, as well as the number of countries included in the Human Development Index.
India's Human Development Index (HDI)
The report highlighted India's Human Development Index (HDI) value for 2011 was 0.547 positioning the country in the medium human development category. Between 1980 and 2011, India's HDI value increased from 0.344 to 0.547, an increase of 59 per cent or an average annual increase of about 1.5 per cent.
The report pointed out that the India's HDI of 0.547 was below the average of 0.630 for countries in the medium human development group and below the average of 0.548 for countries in South Asia.
The report mentioned that mean year of schooling for the country increased by 3.9 years between 1980 and 2011 and expected years of schooling increased by 3.9 years.
Rural Development Minister Jairam Ramesh admitted that the biggest block in the human development indices for India is in the field of sanitation where 58 per cent of open defecation in the world takes place in India.
The UN report also mentioned that between 1980 and 2011, India's life expectancy at birth increased by 10.1 years.
Gender Inquality Index
In terms of gender inquality index, the report highlighted that in India, 10.7 per cent of Parliamentary seats are held by women and 26.6 per cent of adult women have reached a secondary or higher level of education compared to 50.4 per cent of their male counterparts.
For every 100000 live births, 230 women die from pregnancy-related causes and the adolescent fertility rate is 86.3 births per 1000 live births.
Female participation in the labour market is 32.8 per cent compared to 81.1 per men, the report says.
The gender inequality index reflects gender-based inequalities in three dimensions - reproductive health, empowerment and economic activity.
Human Development Index (HDI)
The HDI is a measure for assessing long-term progress in three basic dimensions of human development such as a long and healthy life, access to knowledge and a decent standard of living.
The five countries who topped the Human Development Index study are as follows (The countries'sequence follow their respective ranks): Norway, Australia, Netherlands, US, New Zealand
Neighbouring countries Pakistan was ranked at 145 (0.504) and Bangladesh at 146 (0.500) respectively in terms of HDI as per the UN study.
Wednesday, November 2, 2011
INDIAN POLITY MCQs
1. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable during the operation of emergency”
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act
Answer : A
2. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened”
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India
Answer : C
3. What are essential conditions for the protection of Fundamental Rights?
(a) Right to move the Supreme court
(b) Eternal Vigilance and Political Consciousness
(c) Both
(d) Neither
Answer : C
4. Which of the following provisions of the constitution did not come into force on November 26, 1949?
(A)Provisions relating to citizenship
(B)Provisions relating to elections
(C)Fundamental rights
Answer : C
5. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the Election—
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 22
Answer : C
6. What does the Citizenship Act of December 1955 confer?
(a) Citizenship by Birth
(b) Citizenship by Descent
(c) Citizenship by Registration
(d) All of the above
Answer : D
7. Who is a citizen of India?
(a) Those who are born in India
(b) Those who have a permanent home in India
(c) Those who have a migrated to India from Pakistan
(d) All of the above
Answer : D
8. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act
Answer : C
9. What kind of democracy is India?
(a) Basic Democracy
(b) Presidential Democracy
(c) Absolute Democracy
(d) Parliamentary Democracy
Answer : D
10. In how many parts, the Budget is presented in Lok Sabha
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer : B
11. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down by their country’s constitution
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College
Answer : D
12. What are the salient features of the Indian Constitution?
(a) The Constitution of Indian is a comprehensive document and perhaps the lengthiest in the world
(b) The Constitution of India was framed by a body which was highly representative in character
(c) Both
(d) Neither
Answer : C
13. Why the Indian Constitution has ‘Unitary Bias’?
(a) The Union list has 97 items while the States list has 66 items.
(b) Article 248 confers on the Union Parliament all the Residuary Powers.
(c) Article 253 empowers the Parliament to legislate for the whole of the country
(d) All of the above
Answer : D
14. The First constitutional amendment was carried out in which year ?
(A)1950
(B)1951
(C)1954
Answer : B
15. What does a Unitary State symbolize?
(a) A monarchical government
(b) Dictatorship
(c) The concentration of government authority
(d) Union of independent states
Answer : C
16. What is a Federation?
(a) A voluntary federation of autonomous states
(b) An autonomous federation of voluntary states
(c) Both
(d) Neither
Answer : A
17. What the Indian Federation has been called in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Union of States
(b) The Indian Union
(c) Union of India
(d) Indian Federal Union
Answer : A
18. Who was the Chairman of the States Reorganization Commission?
(a) Shri H.N. Kunzru
(b) Shri. K.M. Pannikar
(c) Syed Fazel Ali
(d) None of the above
Answer : C
19. When was the States Reorganization Commission constituted?
(a) December 29, 1953
(b) December 29, 1952
(c) December 29, 1951
(d) None of the above
Answer : A
20. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution of India?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Rajegopalachari
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer : A
21. Why was India partitioned in 1947?
(a) Because Muslim refugees came to India
(b) Because Muslim refugees went to Pakistan
(c) Because Muslims wanted a separate homeland
(d) Because Hindus wanted Hindi-Hindu-Hindustan
Answer : C
22. Who was the first President of India?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Rajagoplachari
(d) Sardar Patel
Answer : B
23.Which constitution has inspired the Indian Concepts of rule of law, parliamentary system, and law making procedure?
(A)US constitution
(B)British Constitution
(C)Canadian Constitution
Answer : B
24. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten
Answer : C
25. What is the period laid down by the Constitution before the proposal for removal of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha can be taken up by a resolution in the Lok Sabha
(A) 15 Days
(B) 18 Days
(C) 16 Days
(D) 14 Days
Answer : D
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act
Answer : A
2. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened”
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India
Answer : C
3. What are essential conditions for the protection of Fundamental Rights?
(a) Right to move the Supreme court
(b) Eternal Vigilance and Political Consciousness
(c) Both
(d) Neither
Answer : C
4. Which of the following provisions of the constitution did not come into force on November 26, 1949?
(A)Provisions relating to citizenship
(B)Provisions relating to elections
(C)Fundamental rights
Answer : C
5. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the Election—
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 22
Answer : C
6. What does the Citizenship Act of December 1955 confer?
(a) Citizenship by Birth
(b) Citizenship by Descent
(c) Citizenship by Registration
(d) All of the above
Answer : D
7. Who is a citizen of India?
(a) Those who are born in India
(b) Those who have a permanent home in India
(c) Those who have a migrated to India from Pakistan
(d) All of the above
Answer : D
8. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act
Answer : C
9. What kind of democracy is India?
(a) Basic Democracy
(b) Presidential Democracy
(c) Absolute Democracy
(d) Parliamentary Democracy
Answer : D
10. In how many parts, the Budget is presented in Lok Sabha
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer : B
11. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down by their country’s constitution
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College
Answer : D
12. What are the salient features of the Indian Constitution?
(a) The Constitution of Indian is a comprehensive document and perhaps the lengthiest in the world
(b) The Constitution of India was framed by a body which was highly representative in character
(c) Both
(d) Neither
Answer : C
13. Why the Indian Constitution has ‘Unitary Bias’?
(a) The Union list has 97 items while the States list has 66 items.
(b) Article 248 confers on the Union Parliament all the Residuary Powers.
(c) Article 253 empowers the Parliament to legislate for the whole of the country
(d) All of the above
Answer : D
14. The First constitutional amendment was carried out in which year ?
(A)1950
(B)1951
(C)1954
Answer : B
15. What does a Unitary State symbolize?
(a) A monarchical government
(b) Dictatorship
(c) The concentration of government authority
(d) Union of independent states
Answer : C
16. What is a Federation?
(a) A voluntary federation of autonomous states
(b) An autonomous federation of voluntary states
(c) Both
(d) Neither
Answer : A
17. What the Indian Federation has been called in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Union of States
(b) The Indian Union
(c) Union of India
(d) Indian Federal Union
Answer : A
18. Who was the Chairman of the States Reorganization Commission?
(a) Shri H.N. Kunzru
(b) Shri. K.M. Pannikar
(c) Syed Fazel Ali
(d) None of the above
Answer : C
19. When was the States Reorganization Commission constituted?
(a) December 29, 1953
(b) December 29, 1952
(c) December 29, 1951
(d) None of the above
Answer : A
20. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution of India?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Rajegopalachari
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer : A
21. Why was India partitioned in 1947?
(a) Because Muslim refugees came to India
(b) Because Muslim refugees went to Pakistan
(c) Because Muslims wanted a separate homeland
(d) Because Hindus wanted Hindi-Hindu-Hindustan
Answer : C
22. Who was the first President of India?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Rajagoplachari
(d) Sardar Patel
Answer : B
23.Which constitution has inspired the Indian Concepts of rule of law, parliamentary system, and law making procedure?
(A)US constitution
(B)British Constitution
(C)Canadian Constitution
Answer : B
24. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten
Answer : C
25. What is the period laid down by the Constitution before the proposal for removal of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha can be taken up by a resolution in the Lok Sabha
(A) 15 Days
(B) 18 Days
(C) 16 Days
(D) 14 Days
Answer : D
Wednesday, October 26, 2011
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION MCQs
1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as "the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends" ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)
2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)
3. 'Good Governance' and 'Participating Civil Society for Development' were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)
4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)
5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)
6. By whom was the 'Managerial Grid' developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)
7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)
8. The concept of the 'zone of indifference' is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)
9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of 'circular response' ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)
10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)
11. Who wrote the book 'Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective' ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)
12. Who rejected the principles of administration as 'myths' and 'proverbs' ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)
13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)
14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)
15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)
16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)
17. 'Job loading' means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
18. The theory of 'Prismatic Society' in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)
19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following is not included in 'hygiene' factors in the Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company's policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)
21. The 'Gang-Plank' refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)
22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)
23. Henry Fayol's General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)
24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)
26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
Ans : (C)
27. The principle of 'span of control' means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
Ans : (B)
28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
Ans : (D)
29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
Ans : (D)
30. In hierarchy, the term 'scalar' means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
Ans : (B)
31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
Ans : (D)
32. One who tells one's supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
Ans : (B)
34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)
36. The most effective means of citizen's control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)
37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
Ans : (D)
38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
Ans : (C)
39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
40. 'Habeas Corpus' literally means—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
41. The system of 'Rule of Law' was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (A)
42. Who says that "Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely" ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
Ans : (C)
43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
Ans : (B)
44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
Ans : (B)
45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)
46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
Ans : (C)
47. 'Grand Corps' in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans : (C)
48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Ans : (D)
49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)
50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
Ans : (A)
51. The term 'Performance Budget' was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)
52. During passing of budget in the Parliament 'Guilotine' is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)
53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)
55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)
56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)
57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)
58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)
59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)
60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)
61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)
62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)
63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)
64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)
65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)
66. 'Position classification' is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)
67. The civil service was defined as "professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled" by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)
68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)
69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)
70. The 'spoils system' in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)
71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)
72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)
73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)
74. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Ans : (C)
75. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Ans : (B)
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)
2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)
3. 'Good Governance' and 'Participating Civil Society for Development' were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)
4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)
5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)
6. By whom was the 'Managerial Grid' developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)
7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)
8. The concept of the 'zone of indifference' is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)
9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of 'circular response' ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)
10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)
11. Who wrote the book 'Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective' ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)
12. Who rejected the principles of administration as 'myths' and 'proverbs' ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)
13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)
14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)
15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)
16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)
17. 'Job loading' means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
18. The theory of 'Prismatic Society' in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)
19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following is not included in 'hygiene' factors in the Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company's policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)
21. The 'Gang-Plank' refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)
22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)
23. Henry Fayol's General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)
24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)
26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
Ans : (C)
27. The principle of 'span of control' means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
Ans : (B)
28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
Ans : (D)
29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
Ans : (D)
30. In hierarchy, the term 'scalar' means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
Ans : (B)
31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
Ans : (D)
32. One who tells one's supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
Ans : (B)
34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)
36. The most effective means of citizen's control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)
37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
Ans : (D)
38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
Ans : (C)
39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
40. 'Habeas Corpus' literally means—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
41. The system of 'Rule of Law' was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (A)
42. Who says that "Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely" ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
Ans : (C)
43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
Ans : (B)
44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
Ans : (B)
45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)
46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
Ans : (C)
47. 'Grand Corps' in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans : (C)
48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Ans : (D)
49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)
50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
Ans : (A)
51. The term 'Performance Budget' was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)
52. During passing of budget in the Parliament 'Guilotine' is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)
53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)
55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)
56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)
57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)
58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)
59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)
60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)
61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)
62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)
63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)
64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)
65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)
66. 'Position classification' is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)
67. The civil service was defined as "professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled" by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)
68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)
69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)
70. The 'spoils system' in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)
71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)
72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)
73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)
74. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Ans : (C)
75. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Ans : (B)
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION MCQs
1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as "the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends" ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)
2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)
3. 'Good Governance' and 'Participating Civil Society for Development' were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)
4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)
5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)
6. By whom was the 'Managerial Grid' developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)
7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)
8. The concept of the 'zone of indifference' is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)
9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of 'circular response' ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)
10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)
11. Who wrote the book 'Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective' ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)
12. Who rejected the principles of administration as 'myths' and 'proverbs' ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)
13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)
14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)
15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)
16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)
17. 'Job loading' means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
18. The theory of 'Prismatic Society' in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)
19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following is not included in 'hygiene' factors in the Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company's policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)
21. The 'Gang-Plank' refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)
22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)
23. Henry Fayol's General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)
24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)
26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
Ans : (C)
27. The principle of 'span of control' means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
Ans : (B)
28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
Ans : (D)
29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
Ans : (D)
30. In hierarchy, the term 'scalar' means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
Ans : (B)
31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
Ans : (D)
32. One who tells one's supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
Ans : (B)
34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)
36. The most effective means of citizen's control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)
37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
Ans : (D)
38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
Ans : (C)
39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
40. 'Habeas Corpus' literally means—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
41. The system of 'Rule of Law' was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (A)
42. Who says that "Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely" ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
Ans : (C)
43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
Ans : (B)
44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
Ans : (B)
45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)
46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
Ans : (C)
47. 'Grand Corps' in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans : (C)
48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Ans : (D)
49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)
50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
Ans : (A)
51. The term 'Performance Budget' was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)
52. During passing of budget in the Parliament 'Guilotine' is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)
53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)
55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)
56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)
57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)
58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)
59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)
60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)
61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)
62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)
63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)
64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)
65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)
66. 'Position classification' is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)
67. The civil service was defined as "professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled" by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)
68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)
69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)
70. The 'spoils system' in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)
71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)
72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)
73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)
74. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Ans : (C)
75. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Ans : (B)
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)
2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)
3. 'Good Governance' and 'Participating Civil Society for Development' were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)
4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)
5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)
6. By whom was the 'Managerial Grid' developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)
7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)
8. The concept of the 'zone of indifference' is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)
9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of 'circular response' ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)
10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)
11. Who wrote the book 'Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective' ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)
12. Who rejected the principles of administration as 'myths' and 'proverbs' ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)
13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)
14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)
15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)
16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)
17. 'Job loading' means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
18. The theory of 'Prismatic Society' in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)
19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following is not included in 'hygiene' factors in the Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company's policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)
21. The 'Gang-Plank' refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)
22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)
23. Henry Fayol's General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)
24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)
26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
Ans : (C)
27. The principle of 'span of control' means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
Ans : (B)
28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
Ans : (D)
29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
Ans : (D)
30. In hierarchy, the term 'scalar' means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
Ans : (B)
31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
Ans : (D)
32. One who tells one's supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
Ans : (B)
34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)
36. The most effective means of citizen's control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)
37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
Ans : (D)
38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
Ans : (C)
39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
40. 'Habeas Corpus' literally means—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
41. The system of 'Rule of Law' was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (A)
42. Who says that "Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely" ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
Ans : (C)
43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
Ans : (B)
44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
Ans : (B)
45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)
46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
Ans : (C)
47. 'Grand Corps' in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans : (C)
48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Ans : (D)
49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)
50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
Ans : (A)
51. The term 'Performance Budget' was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)
52. During passing of budget in the Parliament 'Guilotine' is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)
53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)
55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)
56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)
57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)
58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)
59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)
60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)
61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)
62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)
63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)
64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)
65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)
66. 'Position classification' is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)
67. The civil service was defined as "professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled" by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)
68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)
69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)
70. The 'spoils system' in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)
71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)
72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)
73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)
74. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Ans : (C)
75. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Ans : (B)
Lok Sabha General Elections
Monday, October 24, 2011
GEOGRAPHY MCQs
| 1. | Canary Islands belongs to (a) Norway (b) Spain (c) New Zealand (d) Portugal | Answer: (b) |
| 2. | For the first time in the country, the - Government, on December 9, 2009, released a Soil Nutrient Map for optimum land use in the State. (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) West Bengal (c) Orissa (d) Assam | Answer: (b) |
| 3. | In the structure of planet Earth, below the mantle, the core is mainly made up of which one of the following? (a) Aluminium (b) Chromium (c) Iron (d) Silicon | Answer: (c) |
| 4. | National Institute of Oceanography is located in : (a) Calcutta (b) Chennai (c) Mangalore (d) Panaji | Answer: (d) |
| 5. | The hottest place in the world is (a) Dallol, Ethiopia (b) Azizia, Libya (c) Jaisalmer, India (d) Teheran, Iran | Answer: (a) |
| 6. | The state with the lowest population in India is (a) Goa (b) Tripura (c) Mizoram (d) Sikkim | Answer: (d) |
| 7. | Where is the oldest oil refinery in India located? (a) Digboi (b) Cochin (c) Mathura (d) Guwahati | Answer: (a) |
| 8. | Which of the following countries is a land locked country in south America? (a) Ecuador (b) Peru (c) Uruguay (d) Bolivia | Answer: (d) |
| 9. | Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? City River (a) Berlin Rhine (b) London Thames (c) New York Hudson (d) Vienna Danube | Answer: (a) |
| 10. | Bandipur Sanctuary is located in the State of (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Karnataka (d) Madhya Pradesh | Answer: (c) |
| 11. | Epicenter of an earthquake is a point associated with the (a) place where earthquake is felt (b) place of origin of earthquake in the interior of earth (c) point on the earth's surface just above seismic focus (d) point over the earth's surface where first shock is felt | Answer: (c) |
| 12. | In the context of Indian wild life, the flying fox is a (a) Bat (b) Kite (c) Stork (d) Vulture | Answer: (a) |
| 13. | Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I (Persons in news) List II (Countries they belong to) A. Luisa Dias Diogo 1. Kenya B. Mwai Kibaki 2. Mozambique C. Rupiah Banda 3. Zambia 4. Zimbabwe Code : A B C (a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 1 3 (c) 2 1 4 (d) 1 2 4 | Answer: (b) |
| 14. | The hot deserts of the world are generally found near (a) the equator (b) the doldrums (c) the horse latitudes (d) the Tundras | Answer: (c) |
| 15. | The Siwaliks stretch between________ (a) Indus and Sutlaj (b) Potwar basin and Teesta (c) Sutlaj and Kali (d) Sutlaj and Kali | Answer: (b) |
| 16. | Where is the headquarters of Animal Welfare Board of India located? (a) Ahmedabad (b) Chennai (c) Hyderabad (d) Kolkata | Answer: (b) |
| 17. | Which is the oldest mountain range in India? (a) Aravali (b) Himalayas (c) Sahyadri (d) Vindhyas | Answer: (a) |
| 18. | Which one of the following is the farthest from the centre of the earth? (a) Equator (b) Tropic of Capricorn (c) Antarctic Circle (d) South Pole | Answer: (a) |
| 19. | At Which one of the following places , East-West Corridor Connecting Silchar and Porbandar and North -south Corridor Connecting Srinagar and Kanyakumari Intersect Each other? (a) Jhansi (b) Agra (c) Jabalpur (d) Nagpur | Answer: (d) |
| 20. | Consider the following statements : 1. There are no east flowing rivers in Kerala. 2. There are no west flowing rivers in Madhya Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | Answer: (b) |
| 21. | In India, which one of the following States has the largest inland saline wetland? (a) Gujarat (b) Haryana (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Rajasthan | Answer: (d) |
| 22. | Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I (Geographic feature) List II (Country) A. Great Victoria Desert 1. Australia B. Grand Canyon 2. Canada C. Lake Winnipeg 3. New Zealand D. Southern Alps 4. USA Code : A B C D (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 4 2 3 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 | Answer: (b) |
| 23. | The deepest location on the earth's surface on record is about 11.034 km beneath the sea level. It is located in ______ (a) Izu Ogasawara Trench, West Pacific Ocean (b) Yap trench, Pacific Ocean (c) Mid Oceanic Ridge, Atlantic Ocean (d) Marina Trench, west Pacific Ocean | Answer: (d) |
| 24. | The Radcliff Line demarcates the boundary between (a) India & China (b) India & Pakistan (c) Pakistan & Afganistan (d) India & Afganistan | Answer: (b) |
| 25. | Where is the famous Virupaksha temple located? (a) Bhadrachalam (b) Chidambaram (c) Hampi (d) Srikalahasti | Answer: (c) |
| 26. | Which from the following rivers does not originate in Indian territory? (a) Mahanadi (b) Brahmaputra (c) Ravi (d) Chenab | Answer: (b) |
| 27. | Which one of the following ecosystems covers the largest area of the earth’s surface? (a) Desert Ecosystem (b) Grassland Ecosystem (c) Mountain Ecosystem (d) Marine Ecosystem | Answer: (d) |
| 28. | An important river of the Indian desert is (a) Luni (b) Narmada (c) Krishna (d) Beas | Answer: (a) |
| 29. | Consider the following statements : 1. In the world, the tropical deserts occur along the western margins of continents within the trade wind belt. 2. In India, the East Himalayan region gets high rainfall from north-east winds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | Answer: (a) |
| 30. | In India, the ports are categorized as major and non-major ports. Which one of the following is a non-major port? (a) Kochi (Cochin) (b) Dahej (c) Paradip (d) New Mangalore | Answer: (b) |
| 31. | In which State is the Buddhist site Tabo Monastery located? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Sikkim (d) Uttarakhand | Answer: (b) |
| 32. | The coast that belongs to Kerala is known as (a) Konkan Coast (b) Malabar Coast (c) Coromandal coast (d) Canara Coast | Answer: (b) |
| 33. | The most important navigable river in Central Europe that provides a link between nine countries-Germany, Austria, Belgium, Czech Republic, Slovakia, Hungary, Romania, Ukraine and Yugoslavia is (a) Volga (b) Rhine (c) Dnieper (d) Danube | Answer: (d) |
| 34. | Wallace's line is a line (a) Drawn by Darwin (b) Across the mountains (c) Between two zoogeographical areas (d) Between different classes of animals | Answer: (c) |
| 35. | Which country, on December 1, 2009, pledged to voluntary reduce its carbon dioxide emissions per unit of GDP by 40-45 per cent of 2005 levels, by 2020? (a) India (b) Japan (c) USA (d) China | Answer: (d) |
| 36. | Which of the following occurs more frequently than the other three, in Indian Ocean? (a) Cyclones (b) Hurricanes (c) Tornadoes (d) Typhoons | Answer: (a) |
| 37. | Among the following cities, which one is the nearest to the Tropic of Cancer? (a) Delhi (b) Kolkata (c) Jodhpur (d) Nagpur | Answer: (b) |
| 38. | Consider the following regions : 1. Eastern Himalayas 2. Eastern Mediterranean region 3. North-western Australia Which of the above is/are Biodiversity Hotspot(s)? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 | Answer: (b) |
| 39. | In India which of the following are the southernmost hills? (a) Annamalai hills (b) Cardamom hills (c) Nilgiri hills (d) Javadi hills | Answer: (b) |
| 40. | In which one of the following States has India's largest private sector sea port been commissioned recently? (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu | Answer: (a) |
| 41. | The coast that belongs to Kerala is known as (a) Konkan Coast (b) Malabar Coast (c) Coromandal coast (d) Canara Coast | Answer: (b) |
| 42. | The length of day and night is equal throughout the year on the (a) Tropic of Capricon (b) Tropic of Cancer (c) Equator (d) North Pole | Answer: (c) |
| 43. | Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant obtains its iron ore from the mines of— (a) Bababudan (b) Bailadila (c) Dalli-Rajhra (d) Gurumahisani | Answer: (a) |
| 44. | Which countries are separated by Mac Mohan Line? (a) India and Pakistan (b) China and Tibet (c) India and China (d) India and Bangladesh | Answer: (c) |
| 45. | Which of the following is a Union Territory (a) Pondicherry (b) Mizoram (c) Tripura (d) Sikkim | Answer: (a) |
| 46. | Which type of rainfall leads to the formation of the windward and the leeward side? (a) Cyclonic (b) Convectional (c) Orographic (d) All of these | Answer: (c) |
| 47. | Among the following cities, which one is at the highest altitude above mean sea level? (a) Bangalore (b) Delhi (c) Jodhapur (d) Nagpur | Answer: (a) |
| 48. | Consider the following countries : 1. Australia 2. Namibia 3. Brazil 4. Chile Through which of the above does the Tropic of Capricorn pass? (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 | Answer: (d) |
| 49. | In which one of the following places is the Shompen tribe found? (a) Nilgiri Hills (b) Nicobar Islands (c) Spiti Valley (d) Lakshadweep Islands | Answer: (b) |
| 50. | New York is situated on the river (a) Hudson (b) Thames (c) Danube (d) Tigris |
Saturday, October 22, 2011
HUMAN DEVELOPMENT REPORT 2011
The Human Development Index (HDI) in the country rose by 21% says a report while cautioning that health, nutrition and sanitation remained key challenges for India. India Human Development Report, 2011, prepared by Institute of Applied Manpower Research, placed Kerala on top of the index for achieving highest literacy rate, quality health services and consumption expenditure of people. Delhi, Himachal Pradesh and Goa were placed at second, third and fourth position respectively.
The report was released on October 21 by Planning Commission Deputy Chairman Montek Singh Ahluwalia in the presence of Rural Development Minister Jairam Ramesh. It said, as on today, two-thirds of the households in the country reside in pucca (cemented) houses and three-fourth of families have access to electricity for domestic use. According to the report, India's HDI has registered an impressive gains in the last decade as the index increased by 21 per cent to 0.467 in 2007-08, from 0.387 in 1999-2000.
However, it noted that Chhattisgarh, Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Rajasthan and Assam are those states which continue to lag behind in HDI and remain below the national average of 0.467. At the same time, the quantum of improvement in HDI in some of the poor states was higher than the national average, the report said, citing the cases of Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa and Assam. The overall improvement in the index was largely attributed to the 28.5 per cent increase in education index across the country.
It ranges from 0.92 for Kerala to 0.41 in the case of Bihar. The improvement in the education index was the "greatest" in states like Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh to name a few, the report said. The analysis also indicates that improvement in the health index, as compared to education, has been lower. It ranges from 0.82 in Kerala to 0.41 in Assam. It observed that despite the Right to Education Act, school education faces challenges of quality and employability. The report also said that despite improvements, health, nutrition and sanitation challenges are most serious.
Stating that open defecation was posing a serious threat to health and nutritional status, the report said even though half of the population had access to sanitation in 2008-09, there was still wide inter-state variation. It said 75% households in Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Orissa and Uttarakhand do not have toilet facilities. The report revealed even in Nirmal Gram Puraskar winning villages, toilets are often being used for storing, bathing and washing purposes. On the issue of right to food and nutrition, the Human Index Report revealed that calorie consumption has been declining and the intake of calories by poor are way below the recommended norm.
The report said Gujarat fares the worst in terms of overall hunger and nutrition among the industrial high per capita income states. The report also noted that "India is the worst performer in terms of low birth weight, underweight and wasting among children in BRIC and SAARC countries”. Reacting to the findings, Ramesh said increased focus should be laid on health and nutrition during the 12th Plan period even as he lauded the growth in the education sector. "On nutrition, I am puzzled as to why high rate of malnutrition continue to persist even in pockets of high economic growth," he said referring to findings of Gujarat. The minister said total expenditure on sanitation has been only one-tenth of the resources allocated for the water sector.
Ramesh attributed the positive growth in education to Central "interventions" like Sarva Sikshya Abhiyan and RTE. The report said between 2002-03 and 2008-09, there has been an improvement in condition of people's housing with 66% population residing in pucca housing. In rural areas, share of household in pucca houses has increased from 36% to 55%. It said a greater proportion of Muslims than the SCs and STs live in pucca houses due to their urban concentration. The report revealed that three-fourths of all households had access to electricity, with 75% households having access to electricity for domestic use. Insofar as tele-density was concerned, the report said it increased at an "impressive pace" over time from 22% in 2008 to 66% till December 2010, largely led by growth in urban tele-density.
It said good governance and social mobilisation by state governments was reflected by the fact that SCs and OBCs in Delhi, Himachal Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Kerala were better off than even the upper castes in Bihar, Chhattisgarh and Uttar Pradesh in terms of various health outcome indicators. The report also highlighted the fact that 60% of the poor were concentrated in states like Bihar, Orissa, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. It said though incidence of poverty declined over the years across states, the above said states performed much worse than others in terms of poverty reduction. Further, asset ownership both in urban and rural areas continued to be highly unequal and concentrated among top five per cent of households.
Thursday, October 20, 2011
NOBEL PRIZES 2011
THE NOBEL PRIZE IN PHYSICS
Saul Perlmutter, Brian P. Schmidt and Adam G. Riess "for the discovery of the accelerating expansion of the Universe through observations of distant supernovae"
Saul Perlmutter, Brian P. Schmidt and Adam G. Riess "for the discovery of the accelerating expansion of the Universe through observations of distant supernovae"
THE NOBEL PRIZE IN CHEMISTRY
Dan Shechtman "for the discovery of quasicrystals"
Dan Shechtman "for the discovery of quasicrystals"
THE NOBEL PRIZE IN PHYSIOLOGY OR MEDICINE
Bruce A. Beutler and Jules A. Hoffmann "for their discoveries concerning the activation of innate immunity"
Bruce A. Beutler and Jules A. Hoffmann "for their discoveries concerning the activation of innate immunity"
THE NOBEL PRIZE IN PHYSIOLOGY OR MEDICINE
Ralph M. Steinman "for his discovery of the dendritic cell and its role in adaptive immunity"
Ralph M. Steinman "for his discovery of the dendritic cell and its role in adaptive immunity"
THE NOBEL PRIZE IN LITERATURE
Tomas Tranströmer "because, through his condensed, translucent images, he gives us fresh access to reality"
Tomas Tranströmer "because, through his condensed, translucent images, he gives us fresh access to reality"
THE NOBEL PEACE PRIZE
Ellen Johnson Sirleaf, Leymah Gbowee and Tawakkul Karman "for their non-violent struggle for the safety of women and for women’s rights to full participation in peace-building work"
Ellen Johnson Sirleaf, Leymah Gbowee and Tawakkul Karman "for their non-violent struggle for the safety of women and for women’s rights to full participation in peace-building work"
THE PRIZE IN ECONOMIC SCIENCES
Thomas J. Sargent and Christopher A. Sims "for their empirical research on cause and effect in the macroeconomy"
Thomas J. Sargent and Christopher A. Sims "for their empirical research on cause and effect in the macroeconomy"
INDIAN SATELLITES
Satellite | Launch Date | Launch Vehicle | Type of Satellite |
| Jugnu | 12.10.2011 | PSLV-C18 | Experimental / Small Satellite |
| SRMSat | 12.10.2011 | PSLV-C18 | Experimental / Small Satellite |
| Megha-Tropiques | 12.10.2011 | PSLV-C18 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| GSAT-12 | 15.07.2011 | PSLV-C17 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| GSAT-8 | 21.05.2011 | Ariane-5 VA-202 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| RESOURCESAT-2 | 20.04.2011 | PSLV-C16 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| YOUTHSAT | 20.04.2011 | PSLV-C16 | Experimental / Small Satellite |
| GSAT-5P | 25.12.2010 | GSLV-F06 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| STUDSAT | 12.07.2010 | PSLV-C15 | Experimental / Small Satellite |
| CARTOSAT-2B | 12.07.2010 | PSLV-C15 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| GSAT-4 | 15.04.2010 | GSLV-D3 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| Oceansat-2 | 23.09.2009 | PSLV-C14 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| ANUSAT | 20.04.2009 | PSLV-C12 | Experimental / Small Satellite |
| RISAT-2 | 20.04.2009 | PSLV-C12 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| Chandrayaan-1 | 22.10.2008 | PSLV-C11 | Space Mission |
| CARTOSAT - 2A | 28.04.2008 | PSLV-C9 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| IMS-1 | 28.04.2008 | PSLV-C9 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| INSAT-4B | 12.03.2007 | Ariane-5ECA | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| CARTOSAT - 2 | 10.01.2007 | PSLV-C7 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| SRE - 1 | 10.01.2007 | PSLV-C7 | Experimental / Small Satellite |
| INSAT-4CR | 02.09.2007 | GSLV-F04 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| INSAT-4C | 10.07.2006 | GSLV-F02 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| INSAT-4A | 22.12.2005 | Ariane-5GS | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| HAMSAT | 05.05.2005 | PSLV-C6 | Experimental / Small Satellite |
| CARTOSAT-1 | 05.05.2005 | PSLV-C6 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| EDUSAT (GSAT-3) | 20.09.2004 | GSLV-F01 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| Resourcesat-1(IRS-P6) | 17.10.2003 | PSLV-C5 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| INSAT-3A | 10.04.2003 | Ariane-5G | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| INSAT-3E | 28.09.2003 | Ariane-5G | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| GSAT-2 | 08.05.2003 | GSLV-D2 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| KALPANA-1(METSAT) | 12.09.2002 | PSLV-C4 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| INSAT-3C | 24.01.2002 | Ariane-42L H10-3 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| Technology Experiment Satellite (TES) | 22.10.2001 | PSLV-C3 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| GSAT-1 | 18.04.2001 | GSLV-D1 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| INSAT-3B | 22.03.2000 | Ariane-5G | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| Oceansat(IRS-P4) | 26.05.1999 | PSLV-C2 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| INSAT-2E | 03.04.1999 | Ariane-42P H10-3 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| INSAT-2DT | January 1998 | Ariane-44L H10 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| IRS-1D | 29.09.1997 | PSLV-C1 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| INSAT-2D | 04.06.1997 | Ariane-44L H10-3 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| IRS-P3 | 21.03.1996 | PSLV-D3 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| IRS-1C | 28.12.1995 | Molniya | Earth Observation Satellite |
| INSAT-2C | 07.12.1995 | Ariane-44L H10-3 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| IRS-P2 | 15.10.1994 | PSLV-D2 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| Stretched Rohini Satellite Series (SROSS-C2) | 04.05.1994 | ASLV | Space Mission |
| IRS-1E | 20.09.1993 | PSLV-D1 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| INSAT-2B | 23.07.1993 | Ariane-44L H10+ | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| INSAT-2A | 10.07.1992 | Ariane-44L H10 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| Stretched Rohini Satellite Series (SROSS-C) | 20.05.1992 | ASLV | Space Mission |
| IRS-1B | 29.08.1991 | Vostok | Earth Observation Satellite |
| INSAT-1D | 12.06.1990 | Delta 4925 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| INSAT-1C | 21.07.1988 | Ariane-3 | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| Stretched Rohini Satellite Series (SROSS-2) | 13.07.1988 | ASLV | Earth Observation Satellite |
| IRS-1A | 17.03.1988 | Vostok | Earth Observation Satellite |
| Stretched Rohini Satellite Series (SROSS-1) | 24.03.1987 | ASLV | Space Mission |
| INSAT-1B | 30.08.1983 | Shuttle [PAM-D] | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| Rohini (RS-D2) | 17.04.1983 | SLV-3 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| INSAT-1A | 10.04.1982 | Delta 3910 PAM-D | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| Bhaskara-II | 20.11.1981 | C-1 Intercosmos | Earth Observation Satellite |
| Ariane Passenger Payload Experiment (APPLE) | 19.06.1981 | Ariane-1(V-3) | Geo-Stationary Satellite |
| Rohini (RS-D1) | 31.05.1981 | SLV-3 | Earth Observation Satellite |
| Rohini (RS-1) | 18.07.1980 | SLV-3 | Experimental / Small Satellite |
| Rohini Technology Payload (RTP) | 10.08.1979 | SLV-3 | Experimental / Small Satellite |
| Bhaskara-I | 07.06.1979 | C-1 Intercosmos | Earth Observation Satellite |
| Aryabhata | 19.04.1975 | C-1 Intercosmos | Experimental / Small Satellite |
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