APPSC MANAGER (ENGINEERING) IN HYDERABAD METROPOLITAN WATER SUPPLY AND SEWERAGE BOARDS EXAM GENERAL STUDIES KEY (EXAM HELD ON: 29-07-2012)

MPSC Sales Tax Inspector Preliminery Exam 2012 Solved Paper

BIHAR PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION MANAGEMENT EXAM SOLVED PAPER

1. The proper system for education is:

(a) The present examination-system

(b) The examination-system with books

(c) Semester system

(d) Objective question paper

Ans. (c)

2. Hypothesis can not be stated in:
(a) Null and question form terms
(b) Declarative terms
(c) General terms.
(d) Directional terms
Ans. (c)
3. Satellite communication works through:
(a) Radar
(b) Transponder
(c) Receptor
(d) Transmitter
Ans. (b)
4. Computer can:
(a) Process both quantitative and qualitative information
(b) Store huge information
(c) Process information and fast accurately
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
5. Informal communication network with in the organization is known as:
(a) Grape vine communication
(b) Interpersonal communication
(c) Mass communication
(d) Interpersonal communication
Ans. (a)
6. Linear programming models solve problems dealing with:
(a) Relatives and absolutes
(b) Routes and mixes
(c) Dispersions and similarities
(d) Rupees and percentages
Ans. (b)
7. Hierarchy has been described as the Scalar process by:
(a) L. D. White
(b) P. H. Appleby
(c) Mooney and Reilley
(d) Gullick and Urwick
Ans. (d)
8. Henry Fayol supports the:
(a) Humanistic approach
(b) Mechanistic approach
(c) Organic approach
(d) Scientific approach
Ans. (b)
9. The main focus of Human Relations theory is on:
(a) Formal organization
(b) Informal organization
(c) Individual
(d) Participatory decision making
Ans. (c)
10. Environment is synonymous with:
(a) Task
(b) Relations
(c) People
(d) Situational variables
Ans. (d)
11. An organization principle based upon divisions of Labour is called:
(a) Line organization
(b) Functional organization
(c) Informal organization
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
12. In the organization, authority flows in a vertical line:
(a) From the top downward
(b) From the bottom upward
(c) Both ways downward and upward
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
13. Match the following:
A. Advisory function 1. Staff executives
B. Manpower development 2. Directing
C. Guiding function 3. Line executives
D. Managerial authority 4. Staffing
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (b)
14. Dorwin Cartwright and Alvin Zander identified the following two variables:
(i) Employee-oriented
(ii) Production-oriented
(iii) Goal-oriented
(iv) Group -oriented
The correct code is:
(a) (i) and (U)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Ans. (c)
15. Quantitative techniques used to solve business problems are called:
(a) operations management
(b) operation science
(c) operation research
(d) management operation
Ans. (c)
16. Assertion (A): A tenet of scientific management is co-operation and harmony between workers and managers.
Reason (R): Taylor believed in participative management.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?
(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (c)
17. Assertion (A): According to Taylor, one of the best way of doing each task leads to increase in productivity in organization.
Reason (R): It was the management’s responsibility alone to find out this one of the best way.
Codes:
(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (b)
18. Which of the following creates time utility?
(a) Farmer
(b) Carpenter
(c) Trader
(d) Driver
Ans. (c)
19. Match the following:
A. Responsiveness of demand to change in price 1. Income elasticity of demand
B. Responsiveness of demand to change in tastes 2. Price elasticity of demand
C. Responsiveness of demand to change in income 3. Cross elasticity of demand
D. Responsiveness of demand to change in price 4. Taste elasticity of demand
of related goods.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (d)
20. Assertion (A): The theory and hypotheses of Argyris suggest no relationship between personal development of the individual and the organizational situation.
Reason (R): The principles and characteristics of a formal organization, in the opinion of Argyris, are incongruent to the needs of adult human beings.
Codes:
(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
21. Management by objectives is implemented in an organization by stages, one such stage action planning, includes:
I. Assigning responsibilities for achieving objectives
II. Choosing strategies appropriate to the objectives
III. Allocating resources for achieving objectives
IV. Scheduling specific activities to achieve maximum resource utilization
Identify from th following combinations the correct sequence in which the action planning stages are implemented
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, III, IV, I
(c) III, IV, I, II
(d) II, I, III, IV
Ans. (d)
22. What is BIS?
(a) Business Information System
(b) Business of Industrial Sale
(c) Bureau of Indian Standard
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
23. Match List-I (Activity) with List-Il (Associated organization) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Mutual fund 1. Stock exchange
B. Public issue of capital 2. Assets management company
C. Forward trading 3. Merchant banking
D. Option pricing 4. Forex market
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans. (d)
24. Which of the following are the methods of market new issues of securities?
I. Listing of securities
II. Jobbers and brokers
III. Private placement of securities
IV. Privileged subscriptions
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I, II, III, and IV
Ans. (c)
25. SEBI was established in:
(a) 1993
(b) 1992
(c) 1988
(d) 1990
Ans. (c)
26. Increase in net RBI credit for central government represents:
(a) Budgetary Deficit
(b) Revenue Deficit
(c) Fiscal Deficit
(d) Monetized Deficit
Ans. (d)
27. The famous book “The Philosophy of Management” was written by:
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Oliver Scheldon
(c) F. W. Taylor
(d) Urwick
Ans. (b)
28. Arrange the following ingredients of communication process in the proper order:
1. Message
2. Receiver
3. Encoder
4. Channel
5. Decoder
(a) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
(b) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
(c) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
(d) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
Ans. (c)
29. Marginal Revenue will be negative if the demand is:
(a) Relatively elastic
(b) Unitary elastic
(c) Relatively inelastic
(d) Perfectly elastic
Ans. (c)
30. Price control; is one of the monopoly regulations which is most advantageous for:
(a) The producer
(b) The consumer
(c) The government
(d) The seller
Ans. (b)
31. Which one of the following is considered as the first principle of organization?
(a) Delegation
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Unity of command
(d) Supervision
Ans. (b)
32. Find the odd one out:
(a) Human relations theory
(b) Informal functioning
(c) Humanistic theory
(d) Structural theory
Ans. (d)
33. The real aim of production is:
(a) To create material goods
(b) To eliminate poverty
(c) To satisfy people’s wants
(d) To provide basic necessities.
Ans. (c)
34. At the point of inflexion, the marginal utility is:
(a) Increasing
(c) Maximum
(b) Decreasing
(d) Negative
Ans. (c)
35. “Production” may be defined as an act of:
(a) Creating utility
(b) Earning profit
(c) Destroying utility
(d) Providing services
Ans. (a)
36. The Scientific Management stressed upon:
1. Rationality
2. Specialization
3. Technical Competence
4. Predictability
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
37. Arrange the Maslow’s Need Hierarchy in the descending order:
1. Social
2. Self-Actualization
3. Physiological
4. Ego
5. Security
(a) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
(b) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
(d) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
Ans. (d)
38. According to which theory, leadership is multi dimensional?
(a) Behavioural Theory
(b) Situational Theory
(c) Trait Theory
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
39. Which of the following according to Hertzberg are not the motivators?
1. Responsibility
2. Recognition
3. Interpersonal relations
4. Work itself
Ans. (c)
40. The practice of placing a candidate at the right job is:
(a) Selection
(b) Placement
(c) Interview
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
41. Selection process in any organization is usually proceeded by the preparation of:
(a) Human resources audit
(b) Operations audit
(c) Human resources inventory
(d) Human resources accounting
Ans. (c)
42. A written statement of the main duties and responsibilities which a particular job entails is called:
(a) Job analysis
(b) Job specification
(c) Job description
(d) Job evaluation
Ans. (c)
43. Partnership is a form of business organization in which business debts can be recovered from:
(a) The managing partners
(b) MI the managers and partners
(c) The firm and the managers
(d) The firm and all the partners
Ans. (d)
44. The main objective of Stock Exchange is to:
(a) Provide facilities for speculation
(b) Safeguard the interest of investors
(c) Help in the capital formation in the country
(d) Provide a ready market for securities
Ans. (b)
45. Contango charge is paid by a:
(a) Bull speculator to bear speculator
(b) Bear speculator to bull speculator
(c) Lame duck to bull speculator
(d) Bull to lane duck speculator
Ans. (a)
46. MRTP Act came into force in:
(a) 1969
(b) 1970
(c) 1971
(d) 1980
47. Dumping is an example of:
(a) Monopolistic practice in international trade
(b) Monopoly in international trade
(c) Oligopoly in international trade
(d) Perfect competition in international trade
Ans. (a)
48. A critical activity is defined as one whose:
(a) Total float is zero
(b) Free float is zero
(c) Duration is the longest
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
49.‘t’ Distribution was discovered by:
(a) Karl Pearson
(b) Fisher
(c) Laplace
(d) Gosset
Ans. (d)

50. Scheduled bank is that bank which is:
(a) Nationalized
(b) Not nationalized
(c) Bared at foreign country
(d) Include in the second schedule of RBI
Ans. (d)

Assam Public Service Commission’s Combined Competitive (Pre) Exam 2009

1. Habeas corpus writ is associated with
(A) anticipatory bail
(B) quashing the order of Un administrative authority
(C) an order of freedom of speech
(D) production of person before the court
Ans: (D)
2. Drip irrigation is mostly practised in India especially for
(A) tea and coffee
(B) rice
(C) wheat
(D) vegetables (Rabi crops)
Ans: (D)
3. Grey Revolution is associated with
(A) production of cement
(B) commercial production of eggs
(C) productions of sweets
(D) steel production
Ans: (A)
4. The mass of an iron piece when gets rusted
(A) may increase or decrease depending upon temperature
(B) decreases
(C) increases
(D) remain same
Ans: (B)
5. The purest form of gold is
(A) 18 carat
(B) 22 carat
(C) 24 carat
(D) 28 carat
Ans: (C)
6. The National Flood Control Programme (NFCP) for flood control in India was launched in the year
(A) 1951
(B) 1954
(C) 1947
(D) 1960
Ans: (B)
7. The Integrated Wasteland Development Programme (IWDP) is sponsored by
(A) NABARD
(B) Government of India
(C) Asian Development Bank
(D) UNO
Ans: (B)
8. In which Indian State is the hill station Kodaikanal situated?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Rajasthan
Ans: (C)
9. Which is the longest river in Asia?
(A) River Surama
(B) River Ob
(C) River Ganga
(D) River Brahmaputra
Ans: (B)
10. What is the percentage of oxygen in the earth's crust?
(A) 92
(B) 50
(C) 61
(D) 45
Ans: (D)
11. Name the country which is known as the 'Land of Morning Calm'.
(A) Japan
(B) Korea
(C) Indonesia
(D) Canada
Ans: (B)
12. What is the precise time taken by the earth for one rotation?
(A) 24 hr
(B) 24 hr 30 min
(C) 23 hr 56 min 4.09 sec
(D) 24 hr 5 min 5.02 sec
Ans: (C)
13. The total area of Assam is
(A) 80645 km2
(B) 78438 km2
(C) 79012 km2
(D) 77901 km2
Ans: (B)
14. The largest continent in the world is
(A) Europe
(B) North America
(C) Asia
(D) Africa
Ans: (C)
15. Assam State enjoys
(A) tropical climate
(B) hot climate
(C) warm climate
(D) cold climate
Ans: (A)
16. Terai zone is situated at Assam's
(A) North zone
(B) East zone
(C) South zone
(D) West zone
Ans: (B)
17. The National Park of Assam where the rare white-winged duck (Deohanh) is found is
(A) Nameri
(B) Dibru Saikhowa
(C) Manas
(D) Orang
Ans: (A)
18. What is the name of the new island emrging out of the Bay of Bengal?
(A) Sonali
(B) Dhan Khuli
(C) Purbasa
(D) Uttara
Ans: (C)
19. Which of the following is related to international trade?
(A) EXIM
(B) IIP
(C) FPO
(D) TQM
Ans: (A)
20. Of the total geographical area of Assam the total area under forest is
(A) 33 p.c
(B) 22 p.c
(C) 28 p.c
(D) 19 p.c
Ans: (B)
21. World's largest producer of gold is
(A) Saudi Arabia
(B) USA
(C) South Africa
(D) Canada
Ans:
22. When was Mizoram converted into a Union Territory?
(A) 1969
(B) 1972
(C) 1949
(D) 1951
Ans: (B)
23. Which is the world's longest railway line?
(A) Trans-Siberian line
(B) Texas Railway line
(C) Trans-Austin line
(D) Trans-American line
Ans: (A)
24. For a healthy adult Indian, the Body Mass Index (BMI) Should be in the range of
(A) 11.51 - 18
(B) 18.5 - 24.9
(C) 25-30
(D) None of the Above
Ans: (B)
25. Black hole is an object to be found
(A) at the bottom of oceans
(B) in the sky
(C) inside a current –carrying conductor
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
26. Minimum velocity required by a body to escape earth’s gravitation (escape velocity) is
(A) 9.5 km/s
(B) 11.2 km/s
(C) 13 km/s
(D) 24.25 km/s
Ans: (B)
27. Which one of the following is not an operating system of computers?
(A) Sun 05
(B) BSD
(C) GNEXT/Linux
(D) Windows NT
Ans: (A)
28. Which is the largest moon in the solar system?
(A) Ganymede
(B) Titan
(C) Lo
(D) Callisto
Ans: (A)
29. Pacemaker is implanted in heart when one of the following is defective
(A) SA node
(B) AV node
(C) Purkinje fibre
(D) Bundle of His
Ans: (A)
30. When a person is undergoing prolonged fasting, his/her urine will contain abnormal quantity of
(A) fat
(B) ketone
(C) amino acid
(D) glucose
Ans: (B)
31. Science of improving human race is
(A) eugenics
(B) epigenesis
(C) epistasis
(D) euthenics
Ans: (A)
32. A photon will have less energy, if its
(A) amplitude is higher
(B) frequency is higher
(C) wavelength is longer
(D) wavelength is shorter
Ans: (C)
33. Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) is mainly a mixture of
(A) propane and butane
(B) butane and isobutane
(C) propane and isobutane
(D) propane and tetralin
Ans: (A)
34. One of the elements of direct democracy is
(A) refrendum
(B) equality
(C) free and fair election
(D) universal adult franchise
Ans: (A)
35. 'Purna Swaraj' resolution of the Congress was adopted on
(A) 26th January, 1930
(B) 26th January, 1931
(C) 26th January, 1929
(D) 26th January, 1932
Ans: (A)
36. Article 80 of the Indian Constitution deals with the formation of the
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Legislative Council
(D) District Council
Ans: (A)
37. The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India on the basis of the recommendation of
(A) S.V. Singh Committee
(B) Swaran Singh Committee
(C) C. Hanumantha Rao Committee
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
38. In the formal sense, Panchayati Raj was established in Assam in the year
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans:
39. The Planning Commission in India was established by
(A) an act of the Parliament
(B) the Constitution of India
(C) resolution of the Central Government
(D) presidential order
Ans: (C)
40. Which of the following methods is not provided by the Citizenship Act, 1955 to acquire Indian citizenship?
(A) By birth
(B) By descent
(C) By registration
(D) By exercising right to vote
Ans: (D)
41. Which of the following types of budgeting is followed in India?
(A) Plural budgeting
(B) Cash budgeting
(C) performance budgeting
(D) Surplus budgeting
Ans: (C)
42. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is related to the independence of the Union Public Service Commission?
(A) Article 323
(B) Article 324
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 326
Ans: (A)
43. Which of the following Schedules to the Constitution of India relates to languages?
(A) 7th Schedule
(B) 8th Schedule
(C) 9th Schedule
(D) 10th Schedule
Ans: (B)
44. The French philosopher Rousseau belonged to the
(A) eighteenth century
(B) sixteenth century
(C) fifteenth century
(D) seventeenth century
Ans: (A)
45. Which of the following can initiate the process of impeachment of the President of India?
(A) Any House of the Parliament
(B) The Lok Sabha alone
(C) The Rajya Sabha alone
(D) The Supreme Court of India
Ans: (A)
46. Which of the following is not a part of the financial management?
(A) Preparation of the budget
(B) Approval of the budget by the Cabinet
(C) Execution and rendering of accounts
(D) Audit and accounts of public expenditure
Ans: (C)
47. Under the Assam Panchayat Act, 1994, the quorum for the meeting of the Gram panchayat is
(A) one-half of the total number of members
(B) one-half of the total number of members present
(C) one-third of the total number of members
(D) one-third of the total number of members present
Ans: (C)
48. Who initiated the Home Rule Movement in India?
(A) Chittaranjan Das
(B) Lajpat Rai
(C) Annie Besant
(D) Maulana Azad
Ans: (C)
49. The Indus Valley Cilvilization belongs to the
(A) Palaeolithic Age
(B) Mesolithic Age
(C) Neolithic Age
(D) Chalcolithic Age
Ans: (D)
50. Who among the following was the first to visit India?
(A) Huen Tsang
(B) I-Tsing
(C) Fa-Hien
(D) Megasthenes
Ans: (D)
51. Ahalya Bai was distinguished
(A) Maratha leader
(B) Rajput leader
(C) Sikh leader
(D) Mughal leader
Ans: (A)
52. During which period did the East India Company begin to build up its territorial power in India?
(A) Beginning of the 18th century
(B) Last quarter of the 17th century
(C) Middle of the 18th century
(D) First quarter of the 19th century
Ans: (C)
53. What is the date of the Third Battle of Panipat?
(A) AD 1551
(B) AD 1661
(C) AD 1761
(D) AD 1861
Ans: (C)
54. Which Act transferred power from the Company to the Crown in India?
(A) Act of 1861
(B) Act of 1892
(C) Act of 1858
(D) Act of 1853
Ans: (C)
55. The first railway line in India was laid in
(A) 1852
(B) 1853
(C) 1857
(D) 1885
Ans: (B)
56. The slogan 'Inquilab Zindabad' was given by
(A) Chandrashekhar Azad
(B) Muhammad Iqbal
(C) Bhagat Singh
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: (B)
57. Which of the following events can be ascribed to the year 1919?
(A) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(B) Partition of Bengal
(C) Permanent Settlement of Bengal
(D) Subsidiary Alliance
Ans: (A)
58. In 1826, the Treaty of Yandaboo was sigried by which the British practically occupied Assam from the Burmese, In which year was Burma annexed by the British?
(A) 1837
(B) 1826
(C) 1864
(D) 1891
Ans:
59. Who wrote 'Vande Matram'?
(A) Muhammad Iqbal
(B) Sarat Chandra Chatterjee
(C) Bankim Chandra Chaterjee
(D) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Ans: (C)
60. The earliest historical dynasty of Assam was that of the
(A) Palas
(B) Varmans
(C) Narakas
(D) Salastambhas
Ans: (B)
61. The first tea company established in Assam was
(A) Jorhat Tea Company
(B) Assam Company
(C) Assam-Bengal Tea Company
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
62. The Indian National Congress was founded during the viceroyalty of
(A) Lord Canning
(B) Lord Dufferin
(C) Lord Amherst
(D) Lord Curzon
Ans: (B)
63. 'Do or Die' was the slogan during
(A) the Swadeshi Movement
(B) the Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) the Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) the Quit India Movement
Ans: (D)
64. Which of the following Land Settlement Systems was followed in Assam?
(A) Ryotwari
(B) Zamindari
(C) Mahalwari
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
65. A. O. Hume was a
(A) scientist
(B) social worker
(C) civil servant
(D) military commander
Ans: (C)

66. The capital of British India was shifted to Delhi in the year
(A) 1908
(B) 1911
(C) 1937
(D) 1947
Ans: (B)
67. Indian National Army was headed by
(A) Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
(B) General Cariappa
(C) A. G. Khan
(D) M. N. Roy
Ans: (A)
68. The Swadeshi Movement started during
(A) Anti Bengal Partition Movement
(B) Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
69. If the deepest parts of the ocean are about 10 kilometers and the radius of the earth is about 6400 kilometers, then the depth of the ocean would represent what percentage of the earth's radius?
(A) Less than 1%
(B) About 5%
(C) About 10%
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
70. How are latitude and Iongitilde lines drawn on a globe of the earth?
(A) Latitude lines are parallel and longitude lines meet at the equator
(B) Longitude lines are parallel and latitude lines meet at the equator                   
(C) Latitude lines arc parallel and longitude linea meet at the poles
(D) longitude lines are parallel and latitude lines meet at the poles
Ans: (C)
71. Which radioactive isotope is most useful for nuclear power generation?
(A) Uranium-238
(B) Uranium-235                           
(C) Carbon-14
(D) Rubidium-87
Ans: (A)
72. The third most abundant gas in the atmosphere is
(A) argon
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) helium
(D) hydrogen
Ans: (A)
73. Where is the headquarters of WTO?
(A) New York
(B) Geneva
(C) Rome
(D) Paris
Ans: (B)
74. Who authored the book, India from Midnight to Millennium?
(A) Khushwant Singh
(B) Mira Nair
(C) Sashi Tharoor
(D) Arun Jaitley
Ans: (C)
75. The first regular census in India was carried out in the year
(A) 1861
(B) 1881
(C) 1901
(D) 1911
Ans: (B)
76. Who was the first Secretary-General of UNO?
(A) Dag Harnrnarakjcld
(B) U Thant
(C) Trygve Lie
(D) Javier Perez de Cuellar
Ans: (C)
77. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research is Located at
(A) Trombay
(B) Kalpakkam
(C) Tarapore
(D) Jaduguda
Ans: (B)
78. The Bhakra Dam is located in
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (A)
79. Which planet takes more time to complete one rotation on its axis than to complete one revolution around the sun?
(A) Mercury
(B) Venus
(C) Mars
(D) Jupiter
Ans:
80. Who chairs the Planning Commission in India?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Vice-President of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
81. Sanjukta Panigrahi was the popular exponent of which Indian clasaical dance form?
(A) Kathak
(B) Kathllkali
(C) Bharat Natyam
(D) Odissi
Ans: (D)
82. Swine flu is caused by
(A) bacteria
(B) virus
(C) protozoa
(D) fungi
Ans: (B)
83. How many members are there in the Rajya Sabha from Assam?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 6
Ans: (A)
84. The States which have common boundaries with Bangladesh are
(A) Bihar, West Bengal, Tripura, Assam
(B) Manipur, Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya, West Bengal
(C) West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mijoram
(D) Manlpur, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura
Ans: (C)
85. The average gradient of the Brahamaputra within Assam is
(A) 18 cm/km
(B) 20 cm/km
(C) 13 cm/km
(D) 10 cm/km

Ans:
86. Find the odd pair out,
(A) Dheer beel : Dhubri district
(B) Khamrenga beel : kamrup (M)
(C) Tamranga beel : Bongaigaon district
(D) Mer beel : Jorhat district

Ans:
87. Clouded leopard and capped langur are important animals of
(A) Manas National Park
(B) Nameri Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary
(D) Boronodi Wildlife Sanctuary

Ans:
88. The slogan of the Commonwealth Games-2010 held in New Delhi was
(A) Get out and play
(B) Come here and play
(C) Come out and play
(D) Jiyo Utho Badho
Ans: (C)
89. The per capita income of Assam been calculated to be as
(A) Rs. 14,500
(B) Rs. 11,600
(C) Rs. 10,200
(D) Rs. 8,300

Ans:
90. The National Highway 1 connects
(A) New Delhi and Mumbai
(B) Kolkata and Amritsar
(C) Jammu and New Delhi
(D) Srinagar and Thiruvananthapuram

Ans:
91. Which one of the following States is not touched by Tropic of Cancer?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Mizoram
(C) Bihar
(D) Chhattisgarh
Ans: (D)
92. The famous fort sonar killa is located at
(A) Jaipur
(B) Jaisalmer
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Bikaner
Ans: (B)
93. Which one of the following is not a tributary to the Indus?
(A) Beas
(B) Chambal
(C) Chenab
(D) Ravi
Ans: (B)
94. Sardar Sarobar Dam is constructed on river
(A) Sutlej
(B) Saraswati
(C) Narmada
(D) Godavari
Ans: (C)
95. Bermuda Triangle is located in
(A) Caribbean Sea
(B) Gulf of Mexico
(C) Gulf of Guinea
(D) Persian Gulf
Ans: (A)
96. Waterloo is located in
(A) Belgium
(B) France
(C) England
(D) Switzerland
Ans: (A)
97. The vast grassland of Australia is known as
(A) Prairie
(B) Steppe
(C) Veld
(D) Down
Ans: (D)
98. Which Strait divides Europe from Africa?
(A) Bosporus
(B) Bering
(C) Dover
(D) Gibraltar
Ans: (D)
99. Who Was awarded the Man of the Series in Cricket World Cup, 2011?
(A) M. S. Dhoni
(B) Tilakratne Dilshan
(C) Yuvraj Singh
(D) Kurnara Sangakara
Ans: (A)
100. First Indian to win the gold medal in men's singles tennis at the Asian Games was
(A) Leander Paes
(B) Rohan Bopanna
(C) Somdev Devvarman
(D) Mahesh Bhupathi
Ans: (C)

GENERAL STUDIES PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following states has launched the Indira Bal Swasthya Yojana (IBSY) to provide free treatment to all children?
a. Gujarat
b. Rajasthan
c. Haryana
d. Karnataka
2. The current headquarters of  The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) is located in which of the following cities?
a. Mumbai
b. Bengaluru
c. Dehradun
d. New Delhi

3. Nirbasan is a book written by which of the following writers?
a. Taslima Nasreen
b. Salman Rushdie
c. Begum Rokeya
d. Selina Hossain
4. Which of the following States will host an international children film festival in association with CFSI in April 2012?
a. Goa
b. Maharashtra
c. Odisha
d. New Delhi
5. Which of the following states has successfully used mobile phone technology to provide timely healthcare to pregnant women and infants?
a. Gujarat
b. Karnataka
c. Andhra Pradesh
d. Haryana
6. Vizhinjam International Seaport is located in which state?
a. Kerala
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Gujarat
7. The KK Birla Foundation has awarded the 21st Bihari Puraskar 2011 to Arjundeo Charan for his Rajasthani poetry collection:
a. Anta Ke Sanshaya
b. Ghar Tau Ek Nam Hai  Bhrosai Rau
c. Jagah Jaisi Jagah
d. Utsav Ka Nirmam Samai
8. An international Congress on ‘Modern Concepts in Canine Health and Diseases of Human Concern’ was held in which of the following districts of Rajasthan from 9 to 11 February 2012?
a. Bikaner
b. Jaipur
c. Jhalawar
d. Jodhpur
9. The Union Ministry of Health & Family has launched a music video, Life Se Panga Mat Le Yaar, sung by Shaan. Shaan has been appointed India's: 
a. Population control  ambassador
b. AIDS control ambassador
c. Cancer control  ambassador
d. Tobacco control  ambassador
10. Who is the coach of the Indian women's hockey team? 
a. Sandeep Somesh
b. Mir Ranjan Negi
c. CR Kumar
d. Khalid Modi
11. The National Anti Doping Appeal Panel (NADAP) is headed by: 
a. DM Dharmadhikari
b. PN Bhagwati
c. KT Thomas
d. CK Mahajan
12 Who among the following is the current chairman of Prime Minister's Scientific Advisory Council?
a. CNR Rao
b. Vikash Sinha
c. R Chidambaram
d. R Narasimha
13. Russia will hand over the refurbished aircraft carrier, Admiral Gorshkov, to India before the end of 2012. Which of the following shipyards had built Admiral Gorshkov?
a.  Sevmash Shipyard
b.  Hotchya Shipyard
c.  Samussky Ship Building
d.  Zvezda Shipyard
14. The Solicitor General for India is subordinate to the Attorney General of India. Who among the following is the current Solicitor-General?
a. Gopal Subramaniam
b. Rohinton Nariman
c. GE Vahanvati
d. Harish Salve
15. In which of the following states are houses - with all facilities, including toilets, drainage, and road connectivity - being provided to displaced families under the Asare scheme?
a.  Andhra Pradesh
b.  Karnataka
c.  Bihar
d.  Odisha
16. Who among the following is the current President of the ATP Players' Council?
a.  Rafael Nadal
b.  Roger Federer
c.  Brad Drewett
d.  Ivan Ljubicic
17. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA. has given its final approval to the London-based mining group Vedanta Resources Plc's acquisition of a majority stake in Cairn India Limited for $8.48 billion. Who is the head of the CCEA?
a. Manmohan Singh
b. Kapil Sibbal
c.  Pranab Mukherjee
d. Abhishek Manu Singhvi
18. Which of the following states has launched the Atal Bijli Bachat Yojna to reduce energy consumption and greenhouse gas emissions by distributing free four CFL bulbs to every household?
a.  Himachal Pradesh
b.  Madhya Pradesh
c.  Gujarat
d.  Karnataka
19. Which state has become the first to set up a special commando unit for protecting tigers from poachers and hunters?
a.  Karnataka
b.  Tamil Nadu
c.  Madhya Pradesh
d.  Chhattisgarh
20. The National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC) is India's largest iron ore producer and exporter. Who is the current Chairman-cumManaging Director of NMDC?
a.  Rana Som
b.  NK Nanda
c.  S Thiagarajan
d.  Subimal Bose
21. The India Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO) is the nodal agency of the Government of India for promoting external trade. Who among the following is the current C h a i r m a n - c u m - M a n a g i n g Director of ITPO?
a. Neeraj Kumar Gupta
b.  Rita Menon
c.   AK Khanna
d.  Sunil Kumar Sharma
22. The Kiran-Mk 2 is a/an:
a.  Indian Air Force (IAF)  aircraft
b.  Scheme for adolescent  girls launched by  Andhra Pradesh
c.  Scheme for pregnant  women launched by  West Bengal
d.  Satellite dedicated to  Kalpana Chawla - to  be launched by ISRO
23. Kobelco Cranes India Pvt Ltd (KCI), a part of Kobelco Cranes Company Limited (KCL) has commenced production at its hydraulic crane manufacturing plant in Andhra Pradesh. KCL originally belongs to which country?
a.  Japan
b.  Germany
c.  South Korea
d.  Sweden
24.  The GD Birla award is given each year to scientists who have contributed towards scientific research. Who among the following has won the GD Birla Award - 2011 for his contributions to the field of biochemistry?
a.  Santanu Bhattacharya
b.  Tapas Kumar Kundu
c.  Nilesh Kumar  
d.  Manindra Agrawal
25.  Who among the following authors has written the book Feeding the Forgotten Poor?
a. William D Dar
b. Jagdish Bhagwati
c. Kuldip Nayyar
d. Amartya Sen
26. Who among the following authors is the current President of Maldives?
a.  Mohammed Nasheed
b. Waheed Hassan
c.  Ahmed Shihan
d.  Abdullah Fairoosh
27. Which social activist refused to accept the Karnataka government's Basava Puruskar 2010 on grounds of “disagreement with certain state policies and inability of the government to deal with the mining scam and other scandals”?
a.  Medha Patkar
b.  Anna Hazare
c.  Kiran Bedi
d.  Aruna Roy
28. US President Barack Obama recently issued an executive order blocking the property of which of the following country's governments and its financial institutions in America?
a.  North Korea
b.  Iran
c.  Syria  
d.  Cuba
29. The Indian Council of Agriculture Research (ICAR) is an autonomous organisation under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education, Ministry of Agriculture and was established on 16 July 1929. Where are the ICAR’s headquarters located? 
a.  Pantnagar  
b.  Puducherry
c.  New Delhi
d.  Bhopal
30. Which New Delhi-based NGO has been awarded the “Best Institution for Child Development and Welfare” honour by the Union Minister of Women & Child Development, Krishna Tirath, recently?
a.  Ank  
b.  Uday
c.  Deepalaya
d.  Tamana
31. The 14th Youth National Volleyball Championships were held in which of the following cities, from 7 to 13 February 2012?
a.  Hyderabad
b.  New Delhi
c.  Kolkata
d.  Pune
32. The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) is responsible for proper planning and coordinated development of the technical education and management education system in India. Who is the Chairman of the AICTE?
a.  SS Mantha
b.  Ram Avtar Yadav
c.  Rabinder Randhawa
d.  H C Rai
33. Kaiga power plant is a nuclear power generating station situated at Kaiga near the river Kali. Which state is it located in? 
a.  Karnataka
b.  Tamil Nadu
c.  Maharashtra
d.  Gujarat
34.  Kalakkad - Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR) is located in which of the following states? 
a.  Kerala
b.  Andhra Pradesh
c.  Tamil Nadu
d.  Karnataka

ANSWERS

1. (a) Haryana
2. (d) New Delhi
3. (a) Taslima Nasreen
4. (c) Odisha
5. (b) Karnataka
6. (a) Kerala
7. (b) Ghar Tau Ek Nam Hai Bhrosai Rau
8. (a) Bikaner
9. (d) Tobacco control ambassador
10. (c) CR Kumar
11. (d) CK Mahajan
12. (a) CNR Rao
13. (a) Sevmash Shipyard
14. (b) Rohinton Nariman
15. (b) Karnataka
16. (b) Roger Federer
17. (a) Manmohan Singh
18. (a) Himachal Pradesh
19. (a) Karnataka
20. (b) NK Nanda
21. (b) Rita Menon
22. (a) IAF aircra
23. (a) Japan
24. (b) Tapas Kumar Kundu
25. (a) William D. Dar
26. (b) Waheed Hassan
27. (a) Medha Patkar
28. (b) Iran
29. (c) New Delhi
30. (d) Tamana
31. (c) Kolkata
32. (a) SS Mantha
33. (a) Karnataka
34. (c) Tamil Nadu

CENSUS 2011

The Indian Census is the most credible source of information on Demography (Population characteristics), Economic Activity, Literacy & Education, Housing & Household Amenities, Urbanization, Fertility and Mortality, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, Language, Religion, Migration, Disability and many other socio-cultural and demographic data since 1872.

Census 2011 is the 15th National Census of the country. This is the only source of primary data at village, town and ward level. It provides valuable information for planning and formulation of polices for Central & State Governments and is widely used by National & International agencies, scholars, business people, industrialists, and many more.

The delimitation/reservation of Constituencies - Parliamentary/Assembly/Panchayats and other Local Bodies is also done on the basis of the demographic data thrown up by the Census. Census is the basis for reviewing the country's progress in the past decade, monitoring the on-going schemes of the Government and most importantly, plan for the future. That is why the slogan of Census 2011 is "Our Census, Our Future".

The Census is a statutory exercise conducted under the provisions of the Census Act 1948 and Rules made thereunder.

Census Process:

The Census process involves visiting each and every household and gathering particulars by asking questions and filling up Census Forms. The information collected about individuals is kept absolutely confidential. In fact this information is not accessible even to Courts of law.

After the field work is over, the forms are transported to data processing centres located at 15 cities across the country. The data processing is done using sophisticated software called Intelligent Character Recognition Software (ICR). This technology was pioneered by India in Census 2001 and has become the benchmark for Censuses all around the globe. This involves the scanning of the Census Forms at high speed and extracting the data automatically using computer software. This revolutionary technology has enabled the processing of the voluminous data in a very short time and saving a huge amount of manual labour and cost.

The 15th Indian National census was conducted in two phases, house-listing and population enumeration. House-listing phase began on April 1, 2010 and involved collection of information about all buildings.

Information for National Population Register was also collected in the first phase which included data about the person that will be converted to digital form along with fingerprinting and photograph of the person, which will be used to issue a 12-digit unique identification number to all registered Indians by Unique Identification Authority of India.

Census Commissioner of India is C. Chandramouli.

Census report:

1. India's population has reached to 1.21 billion. Indians percentage in world population is 17.5.
2. The country’s population is almost equal to the combined population of the U.S., Indonesia, Brazil, Pakistan, Bangladesh and Japan.
3. UN estimated that world population grew at an annual rate of 1.23 per cent during 2000-2010 but India’s annual growth rate comes out to be 1.64 per cent much higher even that of China.
4. It is now estimated that by 2030 India will overtake China in terms of population and will become the most populous country on the earth with 17.9 per cent population of the world living in India.
5. 2001-2011 is the first decade (exception of 1911-1921) in which the net addition of population is less as compared to previous by 0.86 million.
6. Uttar Pradesh is the most populous State with 199 million people which is more than the population of Brazil, the fifth most populous country of the world.
7. Lakshadweep is the least populated at 64,429 persons.
8. Among UTs, Daman and Diu and Dadar and Nagar Haveli registered very high growth rate of 53 per cent points.
9. Nagaland is the only state that registered a small negative growth whereas Bihar registered the highest decadal growth rate of 25.07 per cent.
10. The population density of India grows to 382 persons per square kilometer from 325 persons per square kilometer in 2001.
11. Among states Bihar ranks first by having density of 1102 persons per square kilometer followed by West Bengal. Whereas Arunachal Pradesh ranks lowest by having density as 17 persons per square kilometer.
12. Among UTs NCT of Delhi ranks first with density of 11297 persons per square kilometer and Andaman and Nicobar ranks lowest with density of 46 persons per square kilometer.
13. Overall sex ratio at the national level has increased from 933 to 940.
14. Kerala with 1084 has the highest sex ratio and Daman and Diu has the lowest sex ratio of 618.
15. Child sex ratio has declined from 927 to 914.
16. Top three states recording highest value of child sex ratio are Mizoram (971), Meghalaya (970) and Chhattisgarh (964).
17. Among UTs Andaman and Nicobar islands ranks first with child sex ratio of 966 females per 1000 males.
18. Lowest child sex ratio among state is of Haryana (830) and among UTs is Delhi (866).
19. The literacy rate of India according to 2011 Census is 74.04 per cent with 82.14 per cent males and 65.46 per cent females.
20. Among states Kerala ranks first in literacy with 93.91 per cent literates and Bihar ranks lowest with 63.82 per cent literates.
21. Among UTs Lakshadweep ranks first with 92.28 per cent literates and Dadar and Nagar Haveli ranks lowest with 77.65 literates.

GENERAL STUDIES PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements: The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact
1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3
(d) 1 and 2
3. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court.
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature.
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person.
(d) None of the statements given above is correct.
4. The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Extent of executive power of State
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of India
5. In the context of governance, consider the following:
1. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows
2. Privatization of higher educational Institutions
3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy
4. Selling/offloading the shares of Public Sector Undertakings
Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
6. Who of the following shall cause every recommendationmade by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
7. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of UnionJBudget to the Parliament?
(a) Department of Revenue
(b) Department of Economic Affairs
(c) Department of Financial Services
(d) Department of Expenditure
8. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?
(a) District Planning Committees
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Finance Ministry of that State
(d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State
9. Which one of the following is not related to United Nations?
(a) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
(b) International Finance Corporation
(c) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
(d) Bank for International Settlements
10. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international treaty drawn at
(a) United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972
(b) UN Conference on Environment and Development, Rio de Janeiro, 1992
(c) World Summit on Sustainable Development, Johannesburg, 2002
(d) UN Climate Change Conference, Copenhagen 2009
11. With reference to the United Nations Convention on theRights of the Child, consider the following:
1. The Right to Development
2. The Right to Expression
3. The Right to Recreation
Which of the above is/are the Rights of the child?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
12. Consider the following statements: 1. The Commonwealth has no charter, treaty or constitution.
2. All the territories/countries once under the British empire (jurisdiction/rule/ mandate) automatically joined the Commonwealth as its members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
13. The International Development Association a lending agency, is administered by the
(a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(b) International Fund for Agricultural Development
(c) United Nations Development Programme
(d) United Nations Industrial Development Organization
14. Consider the following statements:
The Cripps Proposals include the provision for
1. Full independence for India.
2. Creation of Constitution-making body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. During the freedom struggle, Aruna Asaf Ali was amajorwoman organizer of underground activity in
(a) Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Quit India Movement
(d) Swadeshi Movement
16. Withwhose permission did the English set up their first factory in Surat?
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Aurangzeb
17. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
List-l (Famous List-II Temple) (State)
A. Vidyashankara 1. Andhra temple Pradesh
B. Rajarani temple 2 Karnataka
C. Kandariya 3. Madhya Pradesh Mahadeo temple
D. Bhimes vara 4. Orissa temple
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 4 3 4 1
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 1 3 4 2
18. Where is the famous Virupaksha temple located?
(a) Bhadrachalam
(b) Chidambaram
(c) Hampi
(d) Srikalahasti
19. Consider the following statements:
1. The discussions in the Third Round Table Conference eventually led to the passing of the Government of India Act of 1935.
2. The government of India Act of 1935 providedWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both land2
(d) Neither 1 nor2
20. In collaboration with David Hare and Alexander Duff, Who of the following establishedHindu College at Calcutta?
(a) Henry Louis Vivian Derozio
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(c) Keshab Chandra Sen
(d) Raja Rammohan Roy
21. Who of the following Prime Ministers sent Cripps Mission to India?
(a) James Ramsay MacDonald
(b) Stanley Baldwin
(c) Neville Chamberlain
(d) Winston Churchill
22. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did Rowlatt Act arouse popular indignation?
(a) It curtailed the freedom of religion
(b) It suppressed the Indian traditional education
(c) It authorized the government to imprison people without trial
(d) It curbed the trade union activities
23. Which one of the following beganwith the Dandi March?
(a) Home Rule Movement
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement
24. Anekantavada is a core theory and philosophy of which one of the following?
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Sikhism
(d) Vaishnavism
25. With which one of the following movements is the slogan “Do or die” associated?
(a) Swadeshi Movement
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement
26. Who of the following founded the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) N.M. Joshi
(d) J.B. Kripalani
27. In the context of the Indian freedom straggle, 16th October 1905 is well known for which one of the following reasons?
(a) The formal proclamation of Swadeshi Movement was made in Calcutta town hall
(b) Partition of Bengal took effect
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji declared that the goal of Indian National Congress was Swaraj
(d) Lokmanya Tilak started Swadeshi Movement in Poona
28. Which one of the following planets has largest number of natural satellites or moons?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Saturn
(d) Venus
29. Consider the following regions:
1. Eastern Himalayas
2. Eastern Mediterranean region
3. North-western Australia
Which of the above is/are Biodiversity Hotspot(s)?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
30. In India, which one of the following states has the largest inland saline wetland?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Haryana
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
31. In India, the ports are categorized as major and non-major, ports. Which one of the following is a non-major port?
(a) Kochi (Cochin)
(b) Dahej
(c) Paradip
(d) New Mangalore
32. Consider the following pairs: Famous place Country
1. Cannes : France
2. Davos : Denmark
3. Roland Garros : The Netherlands
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctlymatched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
33. The Dul Hasti Power Station is based on which one of the following rivers?
(a) Beas
(b) Chenab
(c) Ravi
(d) Sutlej
34. Which one of the following is the country’s administrative capital/new federal administrative centre of Malaysia?
(a) Kota Bharu
(b) Kuala Terengganu
(c) Putrajaya
(d) Taiping
35. Elephant pass, which is frequently in the news, is mentioned in the context of the affairs of which one of the following?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) India
(c) Nepal
(d) Sri Lanka
36. Consider the following countries:
1. Australia 2. Namibia
3. Brazil 4. Chile
Through which of the above does the Tropic of Capricorn pass?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
37. In the structure of planet Earth, below the mantle, the core is mainly made up of which one of the following?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Chromium
(c) Iron
(d) Silicon
38. Which one of the following pairs is not correctlymatched?
City  River
(a) Berlin : Rhine
(b) London : Thames
(c) New York : Hudson
(d) Vienna : Danube
39. Consider the following statements:
1. In the world, the tropical deserts occur along the westernmargins of continents within the trade wind belt.
2. In India, the East Himalayan region gets high rainfall from north-east winds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
List-I List-II
(Geographic feature) (Country)
A. Great Victoria 1. Australia Desert
B. Grand Canyon 2. Canada
C. Lake Winnipeg 3. New Zealand
D. Southern Alps 4. USA
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 4 2 1
41. Which one of the following rivers does not originate in India?
(a) Beas
(b) Chenab
(c) Ravi
(d) Sutlej
42. Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttles are launched is located on the coast of
(a) Florida
(b) Virginia
(c) North Carolina
(d) South Carolina
43. At which one of the following places do two important rivers of India originate; while one of them flows towards north and merges with another important rivers flowing towards Bay of Bengal, the other one flows towards Arabian Sea?
(a) Amarkantak
(b) Badrinath
(c) Mahabaleshwar
(d) Nasik
44. Which among the following has the world’s largest reserves of Uranium?
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Russian Federation
(d) USA
45. Consider the following statements:
1. India does not have any deposits of thorium.
2. Kerala’s monazite sands contain Uranium
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
46. Which one among the following South Asian countries has the highest population density?
(a) India
(b) Nepal
(c) Pakistan
(d) Sri Lanka
47. Consider the following statements:
1. There are no east flowing rivers in Kerala.
2. There are no west flowing rivers in Madhya Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
48. Consider the following statements:
1. Infant mortality rate takes into account the death of infants within amonth after birth.
2. Infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths in a particular year per 100 live births during that year.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
49. In which one of the following places is the Shompen tribe found?
(a) Nilgiri Hills
(b) Nicobar Islands
(c) Spiti Valley
(d) Lakshadweep Islands
50. Consider the following statements:
1. The first telegraph line in India was laid between Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) and Diamond Harbour
2. The first Export Processing Zone in India was set up in Kandla.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

51. What does Baudhayan theorem (Baudhayan Sulva Sutras) relate to?
(a) Lengths of sides of a right angled triangle
(b) Calculation of the value of pi
(c) Logarithmic calculations
(d) Normal distribution curve
52. Who among the following rejected the title of Knighthood and refused to accept a position in the Council of the Secretary of State for India?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) M G Ranade
(c) G K Gokhale
(d) B G Tilak
53. During the time of which Mughal Emperor did the English East India Company establish its first factory in India?
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Aurangzeb
54. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who of the following raised an army called ‘Free Indian Legion’?
(a) Lala Hardayal
(b) Rashbehari Bose
(c) Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) V D Savarkar
55. Which one of the following suggested the reconstitution of the Viceroy Executive Council inwhich all the portfolios including that of War Memberswere to be held by the Indian leaders?
(a) Simon Commission
(b) Simla Conference
(c) Cripps Proposal
(d) Cabinet Mission
56. Match List-1with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe Lists:
List-I (Author) List-II (Work)
A. Bankimchandra 1. Shatranj Ke Khilari
B. Dinabandhu Mitra 2. Debi Chaudhurani
C Premchand 3. Nil-Darpan
4. Chandrakanta
Codes:
A B C
(a) 2 4 1
(b) 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 3 1 4
57. Who among the following gave a systematic critique of the moderate politics of the Indian National Congress in a series of articles entitled New Lamps for Old?
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) R C Dutt
(c) Syed Ahmad Khan
(d) Viraraghavachari
68. Who among the following used the phrase ‘Un-British’ to criticize the English colonial control of India?
(a) Anandmohan Bose
(b) Badruddin Tyabji
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Pherozeshah Mehta
59. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Rowlatt Act was passed?
(a) Lord Irwin
(b) Lord Reading
(c) Lord Chelmsford
(d) Lord Wavell
60. Who among the following Gandhian followerswas a teacher by profession?
(a) A N Sinha
(b) Braj Kishore Prasad
(c) J B Kriplani
(d) Rajendra Prasad
61. Which one of the following was a journal brought out by Abul Kalam Azad?
(a) Al-Hilal
(b) Comrade
(c) The Indian Sociologist
(d) Zamindar
62. Where was the First Session of the Indian National Congress held in December 1885?
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Bombay
(c) Calcutta
(d) Delhi
63. Who among the following wrote the poem, Subh-e Azadi?
(a) Sahir Ludhiyanvi
(b) Faiz Ahmed Faiz
(c) Muhammad Iqbal
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
64. Which of the following pairs in respect of current power generation in India is/are correctlymatched?
(Rounded Figure)
1. Installed electricity : 100000 MW Generation capacity
2. Electricity generation : 660 billion kWh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
65. As per India’s National Population Policy, 2000, by which one of the following years is it our long-term objective to achieve population stabilization?
(a) 2025
(b) 2035
(c) 2045
(d) 2055
66. Which one of the following is not essentially a species of the Himalayan vegetation?
(a) Juniper
(b) Mahogany
(c) Silver fir
(d) Spruce
67. Which of the following hills are found where the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet?
(a) Anaimalai Hills
(b) Cardamom Hills
(c) Nilgiri Hills
(d) Shevoroy Hills
68. Consider the following pairs:
Tributary River Main River
1. Chambal : Narmada
2. Sone : Yamuna
3. Manas : Brahmaputra
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctlymatched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
69. Consider the following statements:
1. Salt-water crocodile is found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
2. Shrew and tapir are found in the Western Ghats of the Malabar region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
70. Which one amongst the following has the largest livestock population in the world?
(a) Brazil
(b) China
(c) India
(d) USA
71. Inwhich one of the following isMalta located?
(a) Baltic Sea
(b) Mediterranean Sea
(c) Black Sea
(d) North Sea
72. In which one of the following states are Namchik-Namphuk Coalfields located?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Manipur
(d) Mizoram
73. Consider the following statements:
1. The albedo of an object determines its visual brightness when viewed with reflected light.
2. The albedo of Mercury is much greater than me albedo of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
74. Which of the followingminerals found in a natural way in the State of Chhattisgarh?
1. Bauxite 2. Dolomite
3. Iron ore 4. Tin
Select the correct answer using code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
75. On which one of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located?
(a) Alaknanda
(b) Bhagirathi
(c) Dhauliganga
(d) Mandakini
76. Which of the following cities is nearest to the equator?
(a) Colombo
(b) Jakarta
(c) Manila
(d) Singapore
77. Which of the following pairs are correctlymatched?
Waterfalls River
1. Kapildhara Falls : Godavari
2. Jog Falls : Sharavati
3. Sivasamudram Falls : Cauvery
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
78. Which one of the following straits is nearest to the InternationalDate Line?
(a) Malacca Strait
(b) Bering Strait
(c) Strait of Florida
(d) Strait of Gibraltar
79. Which of the following pairs are correctlymatched?
Irrigation Project State
1. Damanganga : Gujarat
2. Gima : Maharashtra
3. Pamba : Kerala
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
80. Which of the following countries share borders withMoldova?
1. Ukraine 2. Romania
3. Belarus
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
81. Consider the following statements:
1. Ajman is one of the seven Emirates of the UAE
2. Ras al-Khaimah was the last Sheikhdom to join the UAE.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
82. For India, China, the UK and the USA, which one of the following is the correct sequence of themedian age of their populations?
(a) China< India < UK < USA
(b) India < China < USA < UK
(c) China < India < USA < UK
(d) India < China < UK < USA
83. Consider the following statements:
1. Chikmagalur is well-known for sugar production.
2. Mandya is well-known as a coffee producing region
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
84. Where are Tapovan and Vishnugarh Hydroelectric Project located?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Rajasthan
85. In order of their distances from the Sun,which of the following planets lie between Mars and Uranus?
(a) Earth and Jupiter
(b) Jupiter and Saturn
(c) Saturn and Earth
(d) Saturn and Neptune
86. What is the approximate percentage of persons above 65 years of age in India’s current population?
(a) 14–15%
(b) 11–12%
(c) 8–9%
(d) 5–6%
87. Out of all the Biosphere Reserves in India, four have been recognized on theWorld Network by UNESCO. Which one of the following is not one of them?
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) Sunderbans
88. Which two countries followChina and India in the descreasing order of their populations?
(a) Brazil and USA
(b) USA and Indonesia
(c) Canada and Malaysia
(d) Russia and Nigeria
89. Amongst the following States, which one has the highest percentage of rural population to its total population (on the basis of the Census, 2001)?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Orissa
(d) Uttar Pradesh
90. Which of the following are among the million-plus cities in India on the basis of data of the Census, 2001?
1. Ludhiana 2. Kochi
3. Surat 4. Nagpur
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and4
91. Among the following, which one has theminimumpopulation on the basis of data of Census of India, 2001?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Mizoram
(c) Puducherry
(d) Sikkim
92. With which one of the following rivers is the Omkareshwar Project associated?
(a) Chambal
(b) Narmada
(c) Tapi
(d) Bhima
93. In India, how many States share the coastline?
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
94. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe Lists:
List-I List-II
(Board) (Headquarters)
A. Coffee Board 1. Bengaluru
B. Rubber Board 2. Guntur
C Tea Board 3. Kottayam
D. Tobacco Board 4. Kolkata
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
95. Which one among the following has the maximum number of National Parks?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Meghalaya
96. Which of the following are public sector undertakings of the Government of India?
1. Balmer Lawrie and Company Ltd.
2. Dredging Corporation of India
3. Educational Consultants of India Ltd.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
97. Which of the following pairs about India’s economic indicator and agricultural production (all in rounded figures) are correctly matched?
1. GDP per capita (current prices): 37,000
2. Rice: 180 million tons
3. Wheat: 75 million tons
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
98. Consider the following statements with reference to Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS):
1. All persons of 60 years or above belonging to the households below poverty line in rural areas are eligible.
2. The Central Assistance under this Scheme is at the rate of ` 300 per month per beneficiary. Under the Scheme, States have been urged to give matching amounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
99. What is the name of the scheme which provides training and skills to women in traditional and nontraditional trades?
(a) Kishori Shakti Yojna
(b) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
(c) Swayamsiddha
(d) Swawlamban
100. What does S & P 500 relate to?
(a) Supercomputer
(b) A new technique in e-business
(c) A new technique in bridge building
(d) An index of stocks of large companies

101. Who among the following discovered heavy water?
(a) Heinrich Hertz
(b) H C Urey
(c) G Mendel
(d) Joseph Priestley
102. Which one of the following laser types is used in a laser printer?
(a) Dye laser
(b) Gas laser
(c) Semiconductor laser
(d) Excimer laser
103. Consider the following statements:
1. A widely used musical scale called diatonic scale has seven frequencies.
2 The frequency of the note Sa is 256 Hz and that of Nifty is 512 Hz
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 )
104. What is Bisphenol A (BPA)?
(a) A medical test for detecting cancer
(b) A test for testing the use of drugs to improve performance by athletes
(c) A chemical used for the development of food-packaging materials
(d) A special type of alloy steel
105. Consider the following:
1. Rice fields
2. Goal mining
3. Domestic Animals
4. Wetlands
Which of the above are sources of methane, amajor greenhouse gas?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
106. Forwhich one of the following kinds of organisms is the phenomenon found wherein the female kills the male after copulation?
(a) Dragonfly
(b) Honeybee
(c) Spider
(d) Pit viper
107. Forwhich one of the following snakes is the dietmainly composed of other snakes?
(a) Krait
(b) Russell’s viper
(c) Rattlesnake
(d) King cobra
108. Which one of the following is an insectivorous plant?
(a) Passion flower plant
(b) Pitcher plant
(c) Night queen
(d) Flame of the forest
109. What is the pH level of blood of a normal person?
(a) 4.5–4.6
(b) 6.45–655
(c) 7.35–7.45
(d) 8.25–8.35
110. Consider the following statements about probiotic food:
1. Probiotic food contains live bacteria
which are considered beneficial to humans.
2. Probiotic food helps in maintaining gut flora.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
111. Which of the following pairs is/are correctlymatched?
Theory/Law Associated Scientist
1. Continental Drift : Edwin Hubble
2. Expansion of Universe : Alfred Wegener
3. Photoelectric Effect : Albert Einstein
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Codes:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 only
112. What are Rubies and Sapphires chemically known as?
(a) Silicon dioxide
(b) Aluminium oxide
(c) Lead tetroxide
(d) Boron nitride
113. Which one of the following is also called Stranger Gas?
(a) Argon
(b) Neon
(c) Xenon
(d) Nitrous oxide
114. Mixture ofwhich one of the following pairs of gases is the cause of occurrence ofmost of the explosions inmines?
(a) Hydrogen and Oxygen
(b) Oxygen and acetylene
(c) Methane and air
(d) Carbon dioxide and methane
115. Which one of the following pairs ofmetals constitutes the lightestmetal and the heaviestmetal, respectively?
(a) Lithium and mercury
(b) Lithium and osmium
(c) Aluminium and osmium
(d) Aluminium and mercury
116. A person is sitting in a carwhich is at rest. The reaction from the road at each of the four wheels of the car is
R. When the car runs on a straight level road, how will the reaction at either of the front wheels vary?
(a) It will be greater than R
(b) It will be less than R
(c) It will be equal to R
(d) It shall depend on the material of the road
117. Among the following,which one lays eggs and does not produce young ones directly?
(a) Echidna
(b) Kangaroo
(c) Porcupine
(d) Whale
118. The release of which one of the following into ponds andwells helps in controlling themosquitoes?
(a) Crab
(b) Dog fish
(c) Gambusia fish
(d) Snail
119. Among the following, which one is not an ape?
(a) Gibbon
(b) Gorilla
(c) Langur
(d) Orangutan
120. The term “Prisoner’s Dilemma” is associated with which one of the following?
(a) A technique in glass manufacture
(b) A term used in shipping industry
(c) A situation under the Game Theory
(d) Name of a supercomputer
121. Consider the following statements:
1. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) in respect of carbon credits is one of the Kyoto Protocol Mechanisms.
2. Under the CDM, the projects handled pertain only to the Annex-I countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
122. Which one of the following Union Ministries is implementing the Biodiesel Mission (as Nodal Ministry)?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Science and Technology
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
123. Selene-1, the lunar orbiter mission belongs to which one of the Followings?
(a) China
(b) European Union
(c) Japan
(d) USA
124. From which one of the following did India buy the Barak anti-missile defence systems?
(a) Israel
(b) France
(c) Russia
(d) USA
125. ISROsuccessfully conducted a rocket test using cryogenic engines in the year 2007. Where is the test- stand used for the purpose, located?
(a) Balasore
(b) Thiruvananthapuram
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Karwar
126. Which one of the following is a spacecraft?
(a) Apophis
(b) Cassini
(c) Spitzer
(d) TechSar
127. In which one of the following locations is the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) project to be built?
(a) Northern Spain
(b) Southern France
(c) Eastern Germany
(d) Southern Italy
128. What is the purpose of the US Space Agency’s ThemisMission,which was recently in the news?
(a) To study the possibility of life on Mars
(b) To study the satellites of Saturn
(c) To study the colourful of display of high latitude skies
(d) To build a space laboratory to study the stellar explosions
129. Consider the following statements in respect of a jet engine and a rocket:
1. A jet engine uses the surrounding air for its oxygen supply and so is unsuitable for motion in space.
2. A rocket carries its own supply of oxygen in the gas form, and fuel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
130. How can the height of a person who is six feet tall be expressed (approximately) in nanometers?
(a) 183 × 106 nanometres
(b) 234 × 106 nanometres
(c) 183 × 107 nanometres
(d) 234 × 107 nanometres
131. The context of the Indian defence, what is ‘Dhruv’?
(a) Aircraft-carrying warship
(b) Missile-carrying submarine
(c) Advanced light helicopter
(d) Intercontinental ballistic missile
132. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
List-I List-II
(Person) (Known As)
A. Bhajan Sopori 1. Bharatnatyam dancer
B. Birju Maharaj 2. Exponent of Santoor
C. Priyadarsini 3. Mridangam maestro
D. T V Go Dalakrishnan 4. Kathak dancer
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
133. Who among the following is considered as the inventor of table WorldWideWeb (WWW}?
(a) Edward Kasrier
(b) Bill Gates
(c) Tim Berners-Lee
(d) Vinod Dham
134. Where are the headquarters of the’ Organization of the Islamic Conference (OIC) located?
(a) Dubai
(b) Jeddah
(c) Islamabad
(d) Ankara
135. Which one of the following is not a member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization?
(a) Russia
(b) Kazakhstan
(c) Ukraine
(d) Uzbekistan
136. Who among the following wrote the book - Ayodhya: 6 December 1992?
(a) Chandra Shekhar
(b) P V Narasimha Rao
(c) Jaswant Sttygh
(d) Arun Shourie
137. Wangari Maathai, the Nobel Prize winner from Kdnya is known for her Contribution to which one of the following?
(a) Journalism
(b) International economics
(c) Sustainable development
(d) Child development
138. How is Gabriel Garcia Marquez wellknown as?
(a) Known for research in agriculture
(b) A renowned football coach
(c) A great writer who won the Nobel Prize for literature
(d) Known for research in railway engineering
139. Wherewas the first conference of the Pugwash Conferences on Science and World Affairs held in the year 1957?
(a) Minnowbrook (USA)
(b) Rhode Island (USA)
(c) Nova Scotia (Canada)
(d) Nagasaki (Japan)
140. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following?
(a) Environmental protection
(b) Olympics Games
(c) Journalism
d) Civil Aviation
141. RaghuRai iswell-known forwhich one of the following areas?
(a) Research in Mathematics
(b) Photography
(c) Water harvesting
(d) Pollution control
142. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
List-I List-II
(Eminent Person) (Known As)
A. Bhanu Bharti 1. Music Composer
B. Mike Pandey 2. Poet and litterateur
C. Mohd Zahur 3. Theatre Khayyam director
D. Vinda Karandikar 4. Wildlife film maker
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
143. Whowrote the book—‘The Story of the Integration of the Indian States’?
(a) B N Rau
(b) C Rajagopalchari
(c) Krishna Menon
(d) V P Menon
144. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
List-I (Winter) List-II (Book)
A. V S Naipaul 1. The Siege of Krishnapur
B. Salman Rushdie 2. In a Free State
C. Paul Scott 3. Midnight’s Children
D. J G Farrell 4. Staying On
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
145. Consider the following statements:
1. The series of the International Paper Sizes is based on A0 size whose area is 0.5 m2 (approximately).
2. The area of A4 size paper is 1/8th of that of the A0 size paper.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
146. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) T S : Former Chief Krishnamurthy Election Commissioner of India
(b) K C Pant : Chairman, Tenth Finance Commission of India
(c) A M Khusro : Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
(d) R C Lahoti : Former Chief Justice of India
147. Consider the following statements:
1. The Judges (Inquiry) Bi ll 2006 contemplates to establish a Judicial Council which will receive complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justipe of India, High Court Chief Justices and Judges
2. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act’, 2005, a women can file a petition before a 1st Class Judicial Magistrate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
148. Consider the following statements:
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both, 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
149. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following as full States of the Indian Union?
(a) Sikkim—Arunachal Pradesh—Nagaland - Haryana
(b) Nagaland—Har yana—Sik kim— Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Sikk im—Haryana—Nagal and— Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Nagaland—Arunachal Pradesh—Sikkim
150. Who among the following have been the Union Finance Ministers of India?
1. V P Singh 2. Venkataraman
3. Y B Chavan 4. Pranab Mukherjee
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and4

Answers:

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c)24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (d) 31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a)40. (b) 41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (c) 51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (c) 61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (b) 76. (d) 77. (b) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (a) 81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (b) 86. (d) 87. (b) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (d) 91. (d) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (d) 97. (d) 98. (d) 99. (d) 100. (d) 101. (b) 102. (c) 103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (c) 107. (d) 108. (b) 109. (c) 110. (c) 111. (b) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (c) 20. (c) 121. (a) 122. (d) 123. (c) 124. (a) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (b) 128. (c) 129. (a) 130. (c) 131. (c) 132. (c) 133. (c) 134 (b) 135. (c) 136. (b) 137. (c) 138. (c) 139. (c) 140. (c) 141. (b) 142. (d) 143.(d) 144. (a) 145. (d) 146. (c) 147. (b) 148. (a) 149. (b) 150. (d)

Assam Public Service Commission’s Combined Competitive (Pre) Exam 2009

GENERAL STUDIES

 (EXAM HELD ON: 11.12.2011)

1. Habeas corpus writ is associated with
(A) anticipatory bail
(B) quashing the order of Un administrative authority
(C) an order of freedom of speech
(D) production of person before the court
Ans: (D)
2. Drip irrigation is mostly practised in India especially for
(A) tea and coffee
(B) rice
(C) wheat
(D) vegetables (Rabi crops)
Ans: (D)
3. Grey Revolution is associated with
(A) production of cement
(B) commercial production of eggs
(C) productions of sweets
(D) steel production
Ans: (A)
4. The mass of an iron piece when gets rusted
(A) may increase or decrease depending upon temperature
(B) decreases
(C) increases
(D) remain same
Ans: (B)
5. The purest form of gold is
(A) 18 carat
(B) 22 carat
(C) 24 carat
(D) 28 carat
Ans: (C)
6. The National Flood Control Programme (NFCP) for flood control in India was launched in the year
(A) 1951
(B) 1954
(C) 1947
(D) 1960
Ans: (B)
7. The Integrated Wasteland Development Programme (IWDP) is sponsored by
(A) NABARD
(B) Government of India
(C) Asian Development Bank
(D) UNO
Ans: (B)
8. In which Indian State is the hill station Kodaikanal situated?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Rajasthan
Ans: (C)
9. Which is the longest river in Asia?
(A) River Surama
(B) River Ob
(C) River Ganga
(D) River Brahmaputra
Ans: (B)
10. What is the percentage of oxygen in the earth's crust?
(A) 92
(B) 50
(C) 61
(D) 45
Ans: (D)
11. Name the country which is known as the 'Land of Morning Calm'.
(A) Japan
(B) Korea
(C) Indonesia
(D) Canada
Ans: (B)
12. What is the precise time taken by the earth for one rotation?
(A) 24 hr
(B) 24 hr 30 min
(C) 23 hr 56 min 4.09 sec
(D) 24 hr 5 min 5.02 sec
Ans: (C)
13. The total area of Assam is
(A) 80645 km2
(B) 78438 km2
(C) 79012 km2
(D) 77901 km2
Ans: (B)
14. The largest continent in the world is
(A) Europe
(B) North America
(C) Asia
(D) Africa
Ans: (C)
15. Assam State enjoys
(A) tropical climate
(B) hot climate
(C) warm climate
(D) cold climate
Ans: (A)
16. Terai zone is situated at Assam's
(A) North zone
(B) East zone
(C) South zone
(D) West zone
Ans: (B)
17. The National Park of Assam where the rare white-winged duck (Deohanh) is found is
(A) Nameri
(B) Dibru Saikhowa
(C) Manas
(D) Orang
Ans: (A)
18. What is the name of the new island emrging out of the Bay of Bengal?
(A) Sonali
(B) Dhan Khuli
(C) Purbasa
(D) Uttara
Ans: (C)
19. Which of the following is related to international trade?
(A) EXIM
(B) IIP
(C) FPO
(D) TQM
Ans: (A)
20. Of the total geographical area of Assam the total area under forest is
(A) 33 p.c
(B) 22 p.c
(C) 28 p.c
(D) 19 p.c
Ans: (B)
21. World's largest producer of gold is
(A) Saudi Arabia
(B) USA
(C) South Africa
(D) Canada
Ans:
22. When was Mizoram converted into a Union Territory?
(A) 1969
(B) 1972
(C) 1949
(D) 1951
Ans: (B)
23. Which is the world's longest railway line?
(A) Trans-Siberian line
(B) Texas Railway line
(C) Trans-Austin line
(D) Trans-American line
Ans: (A)
24. For a healthy adult Indian, the Body Mass Index (BMI) Should be in the range of
(A) 11.51 - 18
(B) 18.5 - 24.9
(C) 25-30
(D) None of the Above
Ans: (B)
25. Black hole is an object to be found
(A) at the bottom of oceans
(B) in the sky
(C) inside a current –carrying conductor
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
26. Minimum velocity required by a body to escape earth’s gravitation (escape velocity) is
(A) 9.5 km/s
(B) 11.2 km/s
(C) 13 km/s
(D) 24.25 km/s
Ans: (B)
27. Which one of the following is not an operating system of computers?
(A) Sun 05
(B) BSD
(C) GNEXT/Linux
(D) Windows NT
Ans: (A)
28. Which is the largest moon in the solar system?
(A) Ganymede
(B) Titan
(C) Lo
(D) Callisto
Ans: (A)
29. Pacemaker is implanted in heart when one of the following is defective
(A) SA node
(B) AV node
(C) Purkinje fibre
(D) Bundle of His
Ans: (A)
30. When a person is undergoing prolonged fasting, his/her urine will contain abnormal quantity of
(A) fat
(B) ketone
(C) amino acid
(D) glucose
Ans: (B)
31. Science of improving human race is
(A) eugenics
(B) epigenesis
(C) epistasis
(D) euthenics
Ans: (A)
32. A photon will have less energy, if its
(A) amplitude is higher
(B) frequency is higher
(C) wavelength is longer
(D) wavelength is shorter
Ans: (C)
33. Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) is mainly a mixture of
(A) propane and butane
(B) butane and isobutane
(C) propane and isobutane
(D) propane and tetralin
Ans: (A)
34. One of the elements of direct democracy is
(A) refrendum
(B) equality
(C) free and fair election
(D) universal adult franchise
Ans: (A)
35. 'Purna Swaraj' resolution of the Congress was adopted on
(A) 26th January, 1930
(B) 26th January, 1931
(C) 26th January, 1929
(D) 26th January, 1932
Ans: (A)
36. Article 80 of the Indian Constitution deals with the formation of the
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Legislative Council
(D) District Council
Ans: (A)
37. The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India on the basis of the recommendation of
(A) S.V. Singh Committee
(B) Swaran Singh Committee
(C) C. Hanumantha Rao Committee
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
38. In the formal sense, Panchayati Raj was established in Assam in the year
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans:
39. The Planning Commission in India was established by
(A) an act of the Parliament
(B) the Constitution of India
(C) resolution of the Central Government
(D) presidential order
Ans: (C)
40. Which of the following methods is not provided by the Citizenship Act, 1955 to acquire Indian citizenship?
(A) By birth
(B) By descent
(C) By registration
(D) By exercising right to vote
Ans: (D)
41. Which of the following types of budgeting is followed in India?
(A) Plural budgeting
(B) Cash budgeting
(C) performance budgeting
(D) Surplus budgeting
Ans: (C)
42. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is related to the independence of the Union Public Service Commission?
(A) Article 323
(B) Article 324
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 326
Ans: (A)
43. Which of the following Schedules to the Constitution of India relates to languages?
(A) 7th Schedule
(B) 8th Schedule
(C) 9th Schedule
(D) 10th Schedule
Ans: (B)
44. The French philosopher Rousseau belonged to the
(A) eighteenth century
(B) sixteenth century
(C) fifteenth century
(D) seventeenth century
Ans: (A)
45. Which of the following can initiate the process of impeachment of the President of India?
(A) Any House of the Parliament
(B) The Lok Sabha alone
(C) The Rajya Sabha alone
(D) The Supreme Court of India
Ans: (A)
46. Which of the following is not a part of the financial management?
(A) Preparation of the budget
(B) Approval of the budget by the Cabinet
(C) Execution and rendering of accounts
(D) Audit and accounts of public expenditure
Ans: (C)
47. Under the Assam Panchayat Act, 1994, the quorum for the meeting of the Gram panchayat is
(A) one-half of the total number of members
(B) one-half of the total number of members present
(C) one-third of the total number of members
(D) one-third of the total number of members present
Ans: (C)
48. Who initiated the Home Rule Movement in India?
(A) Chittaranjan Das
(B) Lajpat Rai
(C) Annie Besant
(D) Maulana Azad
Ans: (C)
49. The Indus Valley Cilvilization belongs to the
(A) Palaeolithic Age
(B) Mesolithic Age
(C) Neolithic Age
(D) Chalcolithic Age
Ans: (D)
50. Who among the following was the first to visit India?
(A) Huen Tsang
(B) I-Tsing
(C) Fa-Hien
(D) Megasthenes
Ans: (D)
51. Ahalya Bai was distinguished
(A) Maratha leader
(B) Rajput leader
(C) Sikh leader
(D) Mughal leader
Ans: (A)
52. During which period did the East India Company begin to build up its territorial power in India?
(A) Beginning of the 18th century
(B) Last quarter of the 17th century
(C) Middle of the 18th century
(D) First quarter of the 19th century
Ans: (C)
53. What is the date of the Third Battle of Panipat?
(A) AD 1551
(B) AD 1661
(C) AD 1761
(D) AD 1861
Ans: (C)
54. Which Act transferred power from the Company to the Crown in India?
(A) Act of 1861
(B) Act of 1892
(C) Act of 1858
(D) Act of 1853
Ans: (C)
55. The first railway line in India was laid in
(A) 1852
(B) 1853
(C) 1857
(D) 1885
Ans: (B)
56. The slogan 'Inquilab Zindabad' was given by
(A) Chandrashekhar Azad
(B) Muhammad Iqbal
(C) Bhagat Singh
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: (B)
57. Which of the following events can be ascribed to the year 1919?
(A) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(B) Partition of Bengal
(C) Permanent Settlement of Bengal
(D) Subsidiary Alliance
Ans: (A)
58. In 1826, the Treaty of Yandaboo was sigried by which the British practically occupied Assam from the Burmese, In which year was Burma annexed by the British?
(A) 1837
(B) 1826
(C) 1864
(D) 1891
Ans:
59. Who wrote 'Vande Matram'?
(A) Muhammad Iqbal
(B) Sarat Chandra Chatterjee
(C) Bankim Chandra Chaterjee
(D) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Ans: (C)
60. The earliest historical dynasty of Assam was that of the
(A) Palas
(B) Varmans
(C) Narakas
(D) Salastambhas
Ans: (B)
61. The first tea company established in Assam was
(A) Jorhat Tea Company
(B) Assam Company
(C) Assam-Bengal Tea Company
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
62. The Indian National Congress was founded during the viceroyalty of
(A) Lord Canning
(B) Lord Dufferin
(C) Lord Amherst
(D) Lord Curzon
Ans: (B)
63. 'Do or Die' was the slogan during
(A) the Swadeshi Movement
(B) the Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) the Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) the Quit India Movement
Ans: (D)
64. Which of the following Land Settlement Systems was followed in Assam?
(A) Ryotwari
(B) Zamindari
(C) Mahalwari
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
65. A. O. Hume was a
(A) scientist
(B) social worker
(C) civil servant
(D) military commander
Ans: (C)

66. The capital of British India was shifted to Delhi in the year
(A) 1908
(B) 1911
(C) 1937
(D) 1947
Ans: (B)
67. Indian National Army was headed by
(A) Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
(B) General Cariappa
(C) A. G. Khan
(D) M. N. Roy
Ans: (A)
68. The Swadeshi Movement started during
(A) Anti Bengal Partition Movement
(B) Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
69. If the deepest parts of the ocean are about 10 kilometers and the radius of the earth is about 6400 kilometers, then the depth of the ocean would represent what percentage of the earth's radius?
(A) Less than 1%
(B) About 5%
(C) About 10%
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
70. How are latitude and Iongitilde lines drawn on a globe of the earth?
(A) Latitude lines are parallel and longitude lines meet at the equator
(B) Longitude lines are parallel and latitude lines meet at the equator                   
(C) Latitude lines arc parallel and longitude linea meet at the poles
(D) longitude lines are parallel and latitude lines meet at the poles
Ans: (C)
71. Which radioactive isotope is most useful for nuclear power generation?
(A) Uranium-238
(B) Uranium-235                           
(C) Carbon-14
(D) Rubidium-87
Ans: (A)
72. The third most abundant gas in the atmosphere is
(A) argon
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) helium
(D) hydrogen
Ans: (A)
73. Where is the headquarters of WTO?
(A) New York
(B) Geneva
(C) Rome
(D) Paris
Ans: (B)
74. Who authored the book, India from Midnight to Millennium?
(A) Khushwant Singh
(B) Mira Nair
(C) Sashi Tharoor
(D) Arun Jaitley
Ans: (C)
75. The first regular census in India was carried out in the year
(A) 1861
(B) 1881
(C) 1901
(D) 1911
Ans: (B)
76. Who was the first Secretary-General of UNO?
(A) Dag Harnrnarakjcld
(B) U Thant
(C) Trygve Lie
(D) Javier Perez de Cuellar
Ans: (C)
77. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research is Located at
(A) Trombay
(B) Kalpakkam
(C) Tarapore
(D) Jaduguda
Ans: (B)
78. The Bhakra Dam is located in
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (A)
79. Which planet takes more time to complete one rotation on its axis than to complete one revolution around the sun?
(A) Mercury
(B) Venus
(C) Mars
(D) Jupiter
Ans:
80. Who chairs the Planning Commission in India?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Vice-President of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
81. Sanjukta Panigrahi was the popular exponent of which Indian clasaical dance form?
(A) Kathak
(B) Kathllkali
(C) Bharat Natyam
(D) Odissi
Ans: (D)
82. Swine flu is caused by
(A) bacteria
(B) virus
(C) protozoa
(D) fungi
Ans: (B)
83. How many members are there in the Rajya Sabha from Assam?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 6
Ans: (A)
84. The States which have common boundaries with Bangladesh are
(A) Bihar, West Bengal, Tripura, Assam
(B) Manipur, Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya, West Bengal
(C) West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mijoram
(D) Manlpur, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura
Ans: (C)
85. The average gradient of the Brahamaputra within Assam is
(A) 18 cm/km
(B) 20 cm/km
(C) 13 cm/km
(D) 10 cm/km

Ans:
86. Find the odd pair out,
(A) Dheer beel : Dhubri district
(B) Khamrenga beel : kamrup (M)
(C) Tamranga beel : Bongaigaon district
(D) Mer beel : Jorhat district

Ans:
87. Clouded leopard and capped langur are important animals of
(A) Manas National Park
(B) Nameri Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary
(D) Boronodi Wildlife Sanctuary

Ans:
88. The slogan of the Commonwealth Games-2010 held in New Delhi was
(A) Get out and play
(B) Come here and play
(C) Come out and play
(D) Jiyo Utho Badho
Ans: (C)
89. The per capita income of Assam been calculated to be as
(A) Rs. 14,500
(B) Rs. 11,600
(C) Rs. 10,200
(D) Rs. 8,300

Ans:
90. The National Highway 1 connects
(A) New Delhi and Mumbai
(B) Kolkata and Amritsar
(C) Jammu and New Delhi
(D) Srinagar and Thiruvananthapuram

Ans:
91. Which one of the following States is not touched by Tropic of Cancer?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Mizoram
(C) Bihar
(D) Chhattisgarh
Ans: (D)
92. The famous fort sonar killa is located at
(A) Jaipur
(B) Jaisalmer
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Bikaner
Ans: (B)
93. Which one of the following is not a tributary to the Indus?
(A) Beas
(B) Chambal
(C) Chenab
(D) Ravi
Ans: (B)
94. Sardar Sarobar Dam is constructed on river
(A) Sutlej
(B) Saraswati
(C) Narmada
(D) Godavari
Ans: (C)
95. Bermuda Triangle is located in
(A) Caribbean Sea
(B) Gulf of Mexico
(C) Gulf of Guinea
(D) Persian Gulf
Ans: (A)
96. Waterloo is located in
(A) Belgium
(B) France
(C) England
(D) Switzerland
Ans: (A)
97. The vast grassland of Australia is known as
(A) Prairie
(B) Steppe
(C) Veld
(D) Down
Ans: (D)
98. Which Strait divides Europe from Africa?
(A) Bosporus
(B) Bering
(C) Dover
(D) Gibraltar
Ans: (D)
99. Who Was awarded the Man of the Series in Cricket World Cup, 2011?
(A) M. S. Dhoni
(B) Tilakratne Dilshan
(C) Yuvraj Singh
(D) Kurnara Sangakara
Ans: (C)
100. First Indian to win the gold medal in men's singles tennis at the Asian Games was
(A) Leander Paes
(B) Rohan Bopanna
(C) Somdev Dev varman
(D) Mahesh Bhupathi
Ans: (C)