Showing posts with label PREVIOUS QUESTION PAPERS. Show all posts
Showing posts with label PREVIOUS QUESTION PAPERS. Show all posts
Sunday, August 5, 2012
Sunday, December 26, 2010
Sunday, December 5, 2010
UPSC CPF GENERAL ABILITY 2009 SOLVED PAPER
1. Which one of the following statements about Nandan Nilekani is not correct?
(1) He is the co-founder of Infosys Technologies Limited
(2) He wrote a book, titled “Imagining India” in which he passionately called for governmental and cultural reforms
(3) He is Member of the Planning Commission of India
(4) He is given the rank of Cabinet Minister in July, 2009
Ans. (3)
(1) He is the co-founder of Infosys Technologies Limited
(2) He wrote a book, titled “Imagining India” in which he passionately called for governmental and cultural reforms
(3) He is Member of the Planning Commission of India
(4) He is given the rank of Cabinet Minister in July, 2009
Ans. (3)
2. Consider the following statements about former Australian cricketer Steve Waugh:
(a) He is the author of the book “True Colours: My life”
(b) He is deeply influenced by the deeds of Mother Teresa.
(c) He is working for the cause of the children afflicted by leprosy in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) b and c only
(2) a only
(3) a and c only
(4) a, b and c
Ans. (1)
3. Which one of the following is not a World Heritage Site?
(1) Kaziranga National Park
(2) Sundarbans National Park
(3) Kangchendzonga National Park
(4) Keoladeo National Park
Ans. (3)
4. Which one of the following types of forests covers the largest area in India?
(1) Tropical dry deciduous
(2) Tropical moist deciduous
(3) Tropical evergreen
(4) Himalayan moist temperate
Ans. (1)
5. In May 2008, the Supreme Court of India laid down six parameters to make the police effective, accountable and insulated from political interference and set up a monitoring committee to ensure that states implement police reforms. Which one of the following is not a directive of the apex court in this regard?
(1) Setting up of a state security commission in every state to ensure that the state government did not exercise unwarranted influence or pressure on the state police
(2) Selection of state’s director general of police would be from amongst the three senior most officers
(3) Fixing a minimum tenure of five years for police officers on operational posts unless they face disciplinary proceedings or were convicted in a criminal offence
(4) Setting up a separate investigation police force to ensure that criminal cases are prosecuted effectively
Ans. (3)
6. Contamination of mustard oil has led to several outbreaks of Epidemic Dropsy in India. Which one of the following contaminant is responsible for it?
(1) Automobile oil
(2) Linseed oil
(3) Argemone oil
(4) Rapeseed oil
Ans. (3)
7. A farmer sows beans in his fields after harvesting a crop of wheat. Which one of the following agricultural practice is he following?
(1) Multiple cropping
(2) Crop rotation
(3) Fallow field
(4) Mixed cropping
Ans. (2)
8. Aquatic animals breathe much faster than terrestrial animals because of:
(1) low amount of dissolved oxygen in water
(2) low amount of hemoglobin in their blood
(3) high metabolic rate of aquatic animals
(4) large amount of dissolved nitrogen in water
Ans. (3)
9. Which of the following is not true about Giant Panda?
(1) It is a logo of WWF (World Wide Fund for Nature)
(2) Giant Pandas are naturally found in Tibet and Southwest China
(3) Giant Pandas are worst invasive species of the world
(4) Giant Pandas feed on Bamboos
Ans. (2)
10. Which one of the following statements is not correct about “Flavr Savr” tomatoes?
(1) It is genetically engineered
(2) Its ripening process is slow
(3) The fruit cannot be left on the plant for a long period
(4) They have increased yield and better flavour
Ans. (4)
11. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Biosphere Reserves?
(1) They are protected areas meant for conservation of Biodiversity
(2) Each Biosphere reserve has three zones
(3) There is a network of Biosphere, reserves world ever
(4) They were first started by IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature and
Natural Resources)
Ans. (4)
12. Which of thee following chemicals is an artificial sweetener prescribed to diabetic persons?
(1) Aspartame
(2) Glucose
(3) Sucrose
(4) Maltose
Ans. (1)
13. Villagers in some parts of India use the water extract of the ash obtained by burning banana plant as a substitute of soda. Which one of the following is the major active component in the extract?
(1) Sodium Carbonate
(2) Potassium Carbonate
(3) Calcium Oxide
(4) Magnesium Oxide
Ans. (1)
14. Match List-I with. List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I List-II
(Process) (Contaminant)
A. Aeration followed by filtration 1. Removal of colour
B. Reverse Osmosis 2. Removal of microorganism
C. Filtration through activated carbon 3. Removal of iron
D. Treatment with UV light 4. Removal of excess salts
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (3)
15. In some parts of India, consumption’ of underground water causes mottled teeth and bone damage. Which one of the following is responsible for this malady?
(1) Fluoride ion
(2) Chloride ion
(3) Oxide ion
(4) Carbonate ion
Ans. (1)
16. In Buddhist principle, the performance of Sila and the achievement of Samadhi and Prajna lead to Nirvana. What does this Sila stand for?
(1) Mental control
(2) Physical control
(3) Development of insight
(4) Strict penance
Ans. (1)
17. Agnimitra, the hero of Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitra belonged to:
(1) Sunga dynasty
(2) Kanva dynasty
(3) Satvahana dynasty
(4) Gupta dynasty
Ans. (1)
18. Ministry of Women and Child Development adopted the Mission statement of ‘Budgeting for Gender Equality’ in 2004-05. In this context which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?
(a) It calls for incorporating a gender perspective at all levels and stages of the budgetary process.
(b) It stands for providing safe shelter to displaced women.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (3)
19. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. In this context which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Hon’ble Chief Justice of Supreme Court is the Executive Chairman of the Authority
(2) It’s objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society, on the basis of equal opportunity
(3) it issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country
(4) To organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes
Ans. (1)
20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I List-II
(Commission) (Issue)
A. Dar Commission 1. Assassination of Indira Gandhi
B. Kalelkar Commission 2.Ragging in educational institutions
C. Thakkar Commission 3. Demand for Linguistic States
4. Backward Classes
Codes:
A B C
(1) 3 4 1
(2) 3 2 4
(3) 1 2 4
(4) 1 4 2
Ans. (1)
21. Which of the following provisions is/are not directly covered in the definition of Domestic violence under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
(1) Physical harm causing physical injury or pain to women
(2) Mental injury such as emotional abuse, insult, harassment, repeated threats, demand for dowry, sexual abuse etc.
(3) Non-sharing of house-hold work, non-caring attitude for children, unhealthy habits of living, late coming etc. (of the male partner)
(4) Deprivation of economic or financial resources
Ans. (3)
22. Which. of the following movement address both sociological and ecological issues?
(a) The Trade Union movements in postcolonial India
(b) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(c) Jai Prakash Narain’s movement for total revolution
(d) Chilka Bachao Andolan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) a and c only
(2) b and d only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) a, b, c and d
Ans. (2)
23. Which of the following is not a correct description of the ‘zero hour’?
(1) The time allotted after the Question Hour
(2) Question on issues of national importance or serious grievances of the people can be raised by members of either House
(3) Questions to he asked during zero hour are circulated one day in advance only
(4) The justification for its origin lies in allowing for democratic discussion beyond rules and procedures
Ans. (3)
24. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Rajaya Sabha can make recommendations on a money bill
(2) Rajya Sabha can amend a money bill
(3) Rajya Sabha can delay the passing of a money bill up to a maximum of 14 days
(4) Rajaya Sabha cannot reject a money bill
Ans. (2)
25. Which of the following statements are correct?
The attorney general of India
(a) must have the qualifications as that required by a judge of the supreme court
(b) enjoys the same privileges and immunities as the members of Parliament.
(c) has the right of audience in all courts of India.
(d) his salaries and expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b only
(3) c and d
(4) b and d
Ans. (1)
26. Who among the following Print Ministers of India never had to seek trust vote (vote of confidence) from the Lok Sabha?
(1) Indira Gandhi
(2) P. V. Narasimha Rao
(3) H. D. Devegowda
(4) Manmohan Singh
Ans. (1)
27. The Parliament is entitled to enact a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with:
(1) defense
(2) foreign affairs
(3) security of India
(4) All the above
Ans. (4)
28. Who among the following Prime Ministers of India has not presented the budget?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) Morarji Desai
(3) Indira Gandhi
(4) Rajeev Gandhi
Ans. (2)
29. Consider the following statements:
(a) When the inflation decreases, but still remains positive. it is deflation.
(b) Deflation reduces the real value of money over time.
(c) Historically not all episodes of deflation correspond with periods of poor economic
growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and c only
(3) c only
(4) b only
Ans. (3)
30. Which one of the following are advance grants made by the House of People in respect of the estimated expenditure for a part of the ensuing financial year, pending the regular passage of the budget?
(1) Supplementary grants
(2) Special grants
(3) Vote on credit
(4) Vote on account
Ans. (4)
31. Consider the following Statements with respect to Pulitzer Prizes:
(a) The Pulitzer Prize Gold Medal is awarded each year to the American newspaper that wins the Public Service category.
(b) The Pulitzer Prize Gold Medal is never awarded to an individual.
(c) Jhumpa Lahiri won the Pulitzer Prize in the year 2000 for her first book: a short
story collection called The Interpreter of Malacities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a, b and c
(2) a only
(3) b and c only
(4) a and c only
Ans. (1)
32. Which one of the following is correct with respect to Pawan Hans?
(1) It is a fighter aircraft operational with the Indian Air Force
(2) It is India’s one of the leading helicopter service provider
(3) It is a wind energy plant, located in Himachal Pradesh
(4) It is a mountain peak situated at the Kargil region
Ans. (2)
33. Consider the following statements about Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG):
(a) The NSG guidelines are implemented by each participating government in accordance with its national laws.
(b) The NSG guidelines facilitate the development of nuclear trade.
(c) South Africa is the only country from Africa in the NSG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b and c only
(3) a, b and c
(4) a and b only
Ans. (2)
34. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the historic Stilwell road’?
(a) It connects India and Myanmar through Arunachal Pradesh.,
(b) It was built by the Japanese during the World War II.
(c) The road lies in the lands of ‘three different countries China, Myanmar and India.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(1) a and b
(2) b only
(3) a and c
(4) b and c
Ans. (3)
35. Consider the following paragraph:
With origins shrouded in mystery, the dancers of this classical form of dance of India communicate inner emotions and themes through candences of body flexions, movements and kinetic suggestions. Three styles of this form of dance exist, originating from the three different regions of Seraikela (Jharkhand), Purulia (West Bengal), and Mayurbhanj (Orissa). Martial movements, strong rhythmic statements and dynamic use of space are characteristic of this dance form. The dance is an excellent culmination of enormous vitality and virility. As It is difficult to dance for long with a mask, the dance does not last more than 7-10 minutes.
The above paragraph may be attributed to which one of the following dance form?
(1) Jatra
(2) Chhau
(3) Garba
(4) Cheraw
Ans. (2)
36. Which one of the following is not a function of Reserve Bank of India?
(1) Banker to the government
(2) Keeping foreign exchange reserve
(3) Issuing of one rupee coin and note
(4) Regulating credit in the country
Ans. (3)
37. Consider the following paragraph about a famous autobiographical narrative:
It was first published in 19 when the author was, elected the first African-American President of the Harvard Law Review. The law jurna1. It tells the story of the life of the author up to his entry in the Harvard Law Review. The author’s parents separated when he was two years old. In that book he formed an image of his absent father from the stories told by his mother and her parents.
Who is the author of the memoir?
(1) Nelson Mandela
(2) Martin Luther King
(3) Benjamin Banneker
(4) Barak Hussain Obama
Ans. (4)
38. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of holding of the Grand Slam tennis tournaments every year?
(1) US Open—French Open— Australian Open—Wimbledon
(2) Australian Open—French Open—Wimbledon—US Open
(3) French Open—Australian Open—US Open—Wimbledon
(4) Wimbledon—French Open— US Open—Australian Open
Ans. (2)
39. Which one of the following statements about Dr. Manmohan Singh is not correct?’
(1) Dr. Manmohan Singh is the first Indian Prime Minister to return to power after
completing a full five-year term,
(2) He was the Union Minister of Finance during the tenure of then-Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao.
(3) He was the Governor of Reserve Bank of India and thereafter the Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission,
(4) From 1998 to 2004, he was the Leader of the Opposition in the Rajaya Sabha.
Ans. (1)
40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I List-II
(Chairperson) (Working Group on)
A. Prof. D. L. Seth 1. Empowerment of Scheduled Castes
B. Prof. S. K. Thorat 2. Empowerment of Minorities
C. Shri. S. Sankaran 3. Empowerment of the other backward classes
4. Empowerment of Scheduled Tribes
Codes:
A B C
(1) 4 3 2
(2) 1 4 3
(3) 3 1 4
(4) 3 2 4
Ans. (3)
41. Consider the following statements about Employees’ State Insurance (ESI) Act, 1948:
(a) The Act is applicable to non seasonal factories using power and employing 20 or more persons.
(b) The ESI Scheme has already been implemented in different areas in all the State/Union Territories of India.
(c) ESI Scheme being contributory in nature, all the employees in th factories or establishments to which the Act applies shall be insured.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(1) a and b only
(2) a and c only
(3) b and c only
(4) a, b and c
Ans. (3)
42. From the paragraph given below identify the temple referred to:
Situated on the serene surrounding on the bank of river Mahanadi, this temple is one of the wonders of the medieval period and draws at1ention of several devotees, tourists and researchers from all around the world. The temple does not stand upright and is tilted towards one side. Another attraction of the temple of Kudo fish for which special offerings are made.
(1) Muktesvara temple
(2) Huma temple
(3) Cuttack chandi temple
(4) Lingaraj temple
Ans. (2)
43. Consider the following statements with respect to recent developments in infrastructure sector in India:
(a) India Infrastructure Finance Company Limited was Set up as a banking company for providing long-term loans for financing infrastructure projects.
(b) 100 per cent Foreign Direct Investment under automatic route is permitted for all infrastructure projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (3)
44. Which of the following statements about ‘Ujjawala’, a comprehensive scheme for the prevention of trafficking, rescue, and rehabilitation of women and child victims is not correct?
(1) It consists of certain mechanisms for the reintegration nd repatriation of victims including cross border victims
(2) This scheme is being implemented by various non governmental organizations to provide direct aid and benefit to victims of trafficking
(3) The scheme has four components viz, Prevention, Rescue, Rehabilitation, and Repatriation
(4) The scheme is designed to liberate victims of commercial sexual exploitation
Ans. (3)
45. Consider the following paragraph On Indian painting:
Women are mainly engaged in the creation of these paintings. These painting’s do not depict mythological characters or images of deities, but depict social life. Images of human being’s and animals along with scenes from daily life are created in a loose rhythmic pattern. Painted white on mud walls, they are pretty close to prehistoric cave paintings in execution and usually depict scenes of human figures engaged in activities like hunting, dancing. sowing and harvesting, Stylistically, they can be recognized by the fact that they .are painted on an austere mud base using one color, white, with occasional dots In red and yellow. This colour is obtained from grounding rice into white powder. The paragraph given above characterizes which one of the following folk and art
form of India?
(1) Tanjore art
(2) Madhubani painting
(3) Warli folk painting
(4) Pattachitra painting
Ans. (2)
Directions: Each of the next five items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes: -
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
46. Assertion (A): Import of Chinese toys was banned by the Government of India.
Reason (R): The plastic material used to make the toys are not biodegradable.
Ans. (1)
47. Assertion (A): .A person suffering from myopia uses a concave lens.
Reason (R): A concave lens diverges a beam of light incident on it.
Ans. (1)
48. Assertion (A): The “Green Belt” represents a planning concept for controlling the physical expansion of large cities.
Reason(R): “Green Belt’ is an integral component of a city.
Ans. (1)
49. Assertion (A): In areas of intensive subsistence agriculture, animal husbandry plays an insignificant role.
Reason (R): Throughout the region, the farmers are handicapped in raising cattle due to lack of scientific methods of breeding.
Ans. (3)
50. Assertion (A): Nitrogen gas is used to provide inert atmosphere in chemical reaction. Reason (R): Nitrogen gas has a very little chemical reactivity at ordinary temperature.
Ans. (1)
UPSC CPF Reasoning and Quantitative aptitude Exam Paper
1. The number of times the hands of a watch are at right angle between 4 pm to 10 pm is:
(1) 6
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 11
Ans. (4)
2. If Saturday falls four days after today which is 6th January, on which day did the first of December of the previous year fall?
(1) Tuesday
(2) Friday
(3) Sunday
(4) Monday
Ans. (4)
3. ‘R’ walks 1 km. to east and then he turns to south and walks 5 km. Again he turns to east and walks 2 km. After this he turns to north and walks 9 km. How far is he from his starting point?
(1) 3 km.
(2) 4 km.
(3) 5 km.
(4) 7 km.
Ans. (3)
4. If WOMEN is coded as 12345 and SERVANT is coded as 6789450, then VOTERS will be coded as:
(1) 920786
(2) 902876
(3) 978206
(4) 972086
Ans. (1)
5. Which will be the next term in the following?
KPA, LQB, MRC, NSD……
(1) OET
(2) OTE
(3) TOE
(4) EOT
Ans. (2)
6. The missing number in the following table is:
| 1 | 7 | 9 |
| 2 | 14 | ? |
| 3 | 105 | 117 |
(1) 12
(2) 16
(3) 26
(4) 20
Ans. (4)
7. The following blocks are of the same material. Which is the heaviest one?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) All equal
Ans. (3)
8. From the following Venn diagram identify the number of persons who are either good speakers or post graduates or doctors.
GS – Good Speakers
P- Post Graduates
D- Doctors
(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 15
(4) 122
Ans. (1)
9. A person moves along a circular path by a distance equal to half the circumference in a given time. The ratio of his average speed to his average velocity is:
(1) 0.5
(2) 0.5?
(3) 0.75?
(4) 1.0
Ans. (2)
10.
A square is drawn inside the circle as shown in the figure above. If the area of the shaded portion to 32/7 units then the radius of the circle is:
(1) 2 units
(2) 2 units
(3) 3 units
(4) 4 units
Ans. (2)
11. The following figure shows the displacement time (x – t) graph of a body in motion. The ratio of the speed in first second and that in next two seconds is:
(1) 1:2
(2) 1:3
(3) 3:1
(4) 2:1
Ans. (4)
12. The below Venn diagram shows a city population which read three popular daily newspapers Hindustan Times (HT), The Times of India (TI) and Navbharat Times (NT):
If a person is randomly selected from the city population and it is found that he reads at least one of the three newspapers then the person belongs to which part of the. population?
(1) g
(2) a + b + c
(3) P-h
(4) P-g
Ans. (3)
13. Kamala got married 5 years ago.
Today her age is 1 1/4 times her age at the time of marriage. Her sons age is1/10 times her present age. What is her son’s age?
(1) 2 years
(2) 3 years
(3) 4 years
(4) 5 years
Ans. (2)
14. Consider the following:
1. Every square is a rectangle.
2. Every rectangle is a parallelogram.
3. Every parallelogram is not necessarily a square.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn on the basis of the above statements?
(1) All parallelograms are either squares or rectangles
(2) A non-parallelogram figures cannot be either a square or a rectangle
(3) All rectangles are either squares or parallelograms
(4) Squares and rectangles are the only parallelograms.
Ans. (2)
15. Distribution of work hours in a factory is shown in the below given table:
Number of Workers Number of hours worked
20 45-50
15 40-44
25 35-39
16 30-34
04 0-29
What is the percentage of workers worked for 40 or more hours?
(1) 40
(2) 25
(3) 33.33
(4) 43.75
Ans. (4)
16.
From the above graph, who out of the four persons A, B, C and D, saves the least percentage of his monthly income?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Ans. (3)
17.
In the above diagram square represents boys, circle represents the tall persons, triangle represents tennis players, and rectangle represents the swimmers. Which one of the following numbers .represents tall boys who are swimmers, but don’t play tennis?
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 5
Ans. (3)
18.
The carpet area of a room with dimensions shown in the above diagram is:
(1) 10 m2
(2) 12 m2
(3) 13 m2
(4) 14 m2
Ans. (3)
19.
In the figure given above BAC = 90°, EA =2 and AC =6. What is the value of BE?
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 10
Ans. (3)
20. 8 oranges cost as much as 5 apples, 5 apples as much as 3 mangoes, 4 mangoes as much as 8 pineapples. If 3 pineapples cost Rs. 36, then an orange’s cost is:
(1) Rs. 9
(2) Rs. 12
(3) Rs. 6
(4) Rs. 15
Ans. (1)
21. If a + b is defined as a b + b a, then consider:
I. 2 + x = 100
II. 4 + x = 45
III. 3 + x = 145
IV. 6 + x = 100
For which of the above is x smallest?
(1) 1
(2) Il
(3) 111
(4) IV
Ans. (4)
22. In a test a candidate attempted only 15 questions and secured full marks in all of them. If he obtained 60% marks in the test and all the questions in the test carried equal marks, the number of questions in the test is:
(1) 20
(2) 25
(3) 27
(4) 30
Ans. (2)
23. The grandfather’s age is 4 years more than nine times the age of the grandson. The father’s age of 40 years is 2 years less than six times the age of his son. The age of the grandfather is:
(1) 77 years
(2) 70 years
(3) 67 years
(4) 63 years
Ans. (3)
24. If 4 = 102m and 9 = 102n, then 0.15 equals to:
(1) 10 2m—2n
(2) 10 m + n -1
(3) 10 n-m + 1
(4) 10 n-m-1
Ans. (4)
25. Among the following four diagrams, which one illustrates the relationships among citizens, voters, and males?
(1)
(2)
(3)
Ans. (3)
26. The mean age of combined group of men and women is 25 years. If the mean age of group of men is 26 and that of group of women is 21, then percentage of men and women in the group respectively is :
(1) 60, 40
(2) 80, 20
(3) 30, 70
(4) 50, 50
Ans. (2)
27. Which two figures out of the following four have the same area (with same units)?
(1) l and 3
(2) l and 2
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 1 and 4
Ans. (4)
28. Three circles are concentric as in the diagram given below. If a fourth innermost circle is drawn, what will be the number to be inscribed there?
(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 3
(4) 1
Ans. (2)
29. The width of a rectangle is 4x which is only 25% of its length. What are the area and the perimeter of the rectangle respectively?
(1) 16 x2 sq unit and 16x unit
(2) 20 x2 sq unit and 40x unit
(3) 32 x2 sq unit and 64x unit
(4) 64 x2 sq unit and 40x unit
Ans. (4)
30. The following diagram shows a triangle with each of its sides produced both ways:
What is the sum of degree measures of the angles numbered?
(1) 720
(2) 540
(3) 1080
(4) 900
Ans. (1)
31. ‘A’ completes a work in 10 days, while ‘B’ and ‘C’ complete it in 12 and 15 days respectively. In how many days can A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ together complete the work?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
Ans. (2)
Sunday, October 31, 2010
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