POLITICAL SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. All persons are equal before _____
a. Police
b. Minister
c. Law
d. Court
Ans : (a)
2. To enforce the rule we have :-
a. Courts
b. Judiciary
c. Minister
d. Police
Ans : (b)
3. ‘Right to health’ is included in :-
a. Act 21
b. Act 42
c. Act 356
d. Act 29
Ans : (a)
4. 26 January was a day to establish :-
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. panchayti raj
d. Lower courts
Ans : (b)
5. Supreme court is located in :-
a. Chandigarh
b. Punjab
c. Haryana
d. New Delhi
Ans : (d)
6. To protect people from exploitation – government make certain _________
a. laws
b. police
c. Courts
d. Ministers
Ans : (a)
7. It is ______ to deny workers their wages
a. Legal
b. justice
c. Illegal
d. All of above
Ans : (c)
8. Market has basically ________ parties.
a. Three
b. One
c. Two
d. Four
Ans : (a)
9. Do you think the wages given to workers is _________.
a. Adequate
b. Low
c. High
d. None of these
Ans : (b)
10. power looms are :-
a. Small units with 4 – 6 looms
b. Workers of textile mile
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
Ans : (c)
11. Many workers are denied fair wages by their employers because :-
a. They badly need work
b. Workers has no bargaining power
c. paid low wages.
d. All of these
Ans : (d)
12. Enforcement of law become important :-
a. When law seeks to protect the rich persons
b. When law seeks to protect the ministers
c. When law seeks to protect the weak from strong
d. All of these
Ans : (c)
13. Fundamental law was guaranteed by :-
a. Minister
b. Government
c. President
d. Indian constitution
Ans : (d)
14. ‘Right against exploitation’says that :-
a. Every person is free to chose any religion
b. No one can interrupt constitution
c. No one can forced to work for low wages
d. All of these
Ans : (c)
15. No child below the age of ______ shall be employed to work in any factory.
a. Fourteen
b. Twenty
c. Ten
d. Three
Ans : (a)
16. Children labour prevention act was amended by the government in :-
a. September 2007
b. October2006
c. January 2002
d. October 2005
Ans : (b)
17. Child Labour prevention means :-
a. Child under 14 of age banned for working in dhabas
b. Child under 14 of age banned for working in Restaurants
c. Child under 14 of age banned for working in tea shops
d. All of these
Ans : (d)
18. Violating child labour prevention act must be :-
a. Penalized with the punishment of 3 months.
b. Fine of rupee 10,000 to 20,000
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
Ans : (c)
19. Only three states published the plan of child labour prevention act these are :-
a. Maharastra, Karnataka & Tamil Naidu
b. Punjab, Haryana & Maharastra
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
Ans : (a)
20. The world’s most industrial tragedy took place in :-
a. Punjab
b. Haryana
c. Karnataka
d. Bhopal
Ans : (d)
21. Bhopal gas tragedy was took place :-
a. 24 years ago
b. 22 years ago
c. 20 years ago
d. 10 years ago
Ans : (a)
22. UC means :-
a. Unit calorie
b. Union commission
c. Union Carbide
d. None of these
Ans : (c)
23. UC is a _________ company.
a. African
b. American
c. Arabian
d. None of these
Ans : (b)
24. Bhopal gas tragedy occurs at :-
a. 12 December 1984
b. 17 December 1984
c. 14 December 1984
d. 2 December 1984
Ans : (d)
25. Name the poisonous gas released from the industry at Bhopal.
a. Methyl – isocyanide
b. Methyl – Alcohol
c. Methyl – chloride
d. Methanol
Ans : (a)
26. With in three days, about how many people were dead.
a. About 8,000
b. Below 8,000
c. More than 8,000
d. None of these
Ans : (c)
27. Give only one reason why foreigners come India?
a. Cheap labour
b. Hard working labour
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
Ans : (c)
28. Lower working conditions include :-
a. Cheap labour
b. Hard working labour
c. low wages labour
d. All of these
Ans : (d)
29. One worker can easily replace another because of :-
a. Too much unemployment
b. Work in unsafe condition
c. Low wages
d. All of these
Ans : (a)
30. In India incident occurs rapidly because of :-
a. Safety laws are less in India
b. Safety laws are not enforcement
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
Ans : (c)
31. New law on environment are introduced due to :-
a. Bhopal gas tragedy
b. UC factory tragedy
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
Ans : (a)
32. The environment is treated as ‘free’entity because :-
a. Any industry can pollute air
b. Any industry can pollute water without restrictions
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
Ans : (c)
33. ‘Right to life’ is a fundamental right under :-
a. Act 42
b. Act 76
c. Act 1
d. Act 21
Ans : (d)
34. In 1998 onwards, Supreme court had ordered all the public transport vehicles using diesel were switch to :-
a. CNG
b. LPG
c. Petroleum
d. Coal
Ans : (a)
35. CNG means :-
a. Common Nation gas
b. Compressed Natural gas
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
Ans : (b)
36. Which countries hosts for industries producing pesticides, Zinc or Lead.
a. China, Pakistan & Cochin
b. Nepal, Burma & China
c. Cochin, Shimla & Burma
d. India, Pakistan & Bangladesh
Ans : (d)
37. Another hazardous industry that is growing rapidly in South Asia is :-
a. Ship shaping
b. Ship shaping
c. Ship breaking
d. All of these
Ans : (c)
38. Laws are necessary :-
a. To make people happy
b. To make people enjoy
c. To protect people from unfair means
d. All of these
Ans : (c)
39. A major role of government is :-
a. Is to control the activities of private companies
b. Enforcing law
c. Ensure social justice
d. All of these
Ans : (d)
40. Social law means :-
a. There is special provision for rich persons
b. there is special job facilities for ladies
c. All the people are equal before law
d. All of these
Ans : (c)
41. Workers right means :-
a. Right to work
b. Right to fair wages
c. Right to decant conditions
d. All of these
Ans : (d)
42. Do you think that the workers of Bhopal gas tragedy got justice :-
a. Yes
b. No
c. May be
d. Can’t say
Ans : (b)
43. What are the main sources of environmental pollution?
a. Air
b. Water
c. Soil
d. All of these
Ans : (c)
44. Consumer means :-
a. An individual who buys goods for personal use.
b. An individual who sells goods for personal use.
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
Ans : (a)
45. Producer means :-
a. An individual who buys goods for personal use.
b. An individual who sells goods for personal use.
c. An individual that produces goods
d. None of these
Ans : (c)
46. What do you mean by the term ‘Investment’?
a. Money spent to purchase new machinery
b. Money spent to purchase new building
c. Money spent to increase production in future.
d. All of these
Ans : (d)
47. Workers are :-
a. An association of child
b. An association of people working for wages
c. An association of leaders
d. None of these
Ans : (c)
48. Act of breaking law means :-
a. Violation
b. Infringement of fundamental rights
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
Ans : (b)
49. Making law is not enough government has to ensure that these laws are :-
a. Implemented
b. Enforced
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
Ans : (c)
50. Safety measures at work place means :-
a. Alarm system
b. Emergency exits
c. Properly functioning machinery
d. All of these
Ans : (d)

POLITICAL SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. British come to India as :-
a. Social reformer
b. Inventor
c. As a ruler
d. As a traders
Ans : (d)
2. How many languages are accepted in Indian constitution?
a. 22
b. 28
c. 15
d. 20
Ans : (a)
3. Bi-Hinduism started in the year
a. 1870
b. 1878
c. 1865
d. 1861
Ans : (b)
4. Which one of the following is a fundamental right?
a. Right to freedom of religion
b. Right to property
c. Right to work
d. All of these
Ans : (a)
5. The right provided by constitution are called
a. Governmental Right
b. Optional Right
c. Economic Right
d. Fundamental Right
Ans : (d)
6. In which year Bengal was divided into two parts?
a. 1905
b. 1910
c. 1915
d. 1920
Ans : (a)
7. Bengal was divided as a result of:-
a. Do or die
b. Divide & rule
c. Both (1) & (2)
d. None of these
Ans : (b)

8. Who was the first governor general of independent India?
a. Dr. Rajender Parsad
b. Dr. S. Radhskishna
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. Mount Batan
Ans : (d)
9. Who was nominated as a permanent member of constitutional assembly?
a. Dr. Rajender Parsad
b. Dr. S. Radhskishna
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. Dr. B.R. Amedkar
Ans : (d)
10. Muslim league demand for ________ constitutional assembly
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Ans : (b)
11. Constitution was made in
a. 2 years 11 months 18 days
b. 1 years 11 months 18 days
c. 3 years 11 months 18 days
d. None of these
Ans : (c)
12. Secularism is added in constitution by the amendment of :-
a. 42th
b. 62th
c. 47th
d. 73th
Ans : (a)
13. After 42th amendment the first line of Indian preamble is ”we people of India _______
a. Sovereign
b. Secularism
c. Democratic
d. All of these
Ans : (d)
14. Secularism means-
a. State is against to all religious
b. State accept only one religion
c. State will not give any special concern with any religion
d. None of these
Ans : (c)
15. Right to freedom of religion is written in
a. Act 25 – 29
b. Act 14 – 18
c. Act 56
d. Act 51 1
Ans : (a)
6. According to act 28, which type of education is resisted in educational institution?
a. Education of specific religion
b. Navy Education
c. Moral Education
d. Sex Education
Ans : (a)
17. On the basis of _________ right to freedom of religion can be resisted?
a. Public arrangement
b. Morality
c. Health
d. All of these
Ans : (d)
18. In which country Non-Muslim are not allowed?
a. USA
b. Saudi Arabia
c. India
d. None of these
Ans : (b)
19. The most important aspect of secularism is its ________ of religion from state
a. Include
b. Separation
c. Both (1) & (2)
d. None of these
Ans : (b)
20. Who supports Untouchability?
a. Hindu
b. Muslim
c. Christian
d. All of these
Ans : (a)
21. How many language are mentioned in the 8th schedule
a. 14
b. 15
c. 13
d. 22
Ans : (d)
22. Which of the following are included in right to freedom of religion?
a. Right to freedom of conscience
b. Freedom against forced religious instructions
c. Practice & propagation of religion
d. All of these
Ans : (d)
23. Non-interference means:-
a. Respect the sentiments of all religion
b. Respect only one religion
c. Both (1) & (2)
d. None of these
Ans : (a)
24. History provides many examples of discrimination, exclusion and persecution on the ground of
a. Exclusion
b. Religion
c. Law
d. Caste
Ans : (b)
25. Can there be different views with in the same religion?
a. yes
b. No
c. Can’t say
d. may be
Ans : (a)
26. Is India a secularism country?
a. yes
b. No
c. Can’t say
d. may be
Ans : (a)
27. Separation of same religion from the state in democratic societies is because of-
a. To interrupt religious teaching
b. To protect the freedom of individual exit from their religion
c. Both (1) & (2)
d. None of these
Ans : (b)
28. India constitution mandates that Indian state is
a. Socialist
b. Secular
c. Tyranny
d. None of these
Ans : (c)
29. The Indian state is
a. Ruled by the religious group
b. Supports one religion
c. Both (1) & (2)
d. None of these
Ans : (a)
30. Indian constitution grants the right to freedom of religious communities to set up their own school & colleges
a. Yes
b. no
c. Can’t Say
d. None of these
Ans : (b)
31. Most children in govt. schools have to begin their school day reciting the ‘pledge of allegiance”. The children are of:-
a. USA
b. Brazil
c. New Zealand
d. None of these
Ans : (a)
32. In USA, separation between state & religion means
a. Prohibition free exercise of religion
b. Respect an religion
c. Neither the state nor the religion can interfere in affair of one another
d. None of these
Ans : (c)
33. France passed a law banning students from wearing any conspicuous religious signs or symbols in year
a. Feb 2004
b. Jan 2007
c. Dec 2006
d. Dec 2007
Ans : (a)
34. France had faced a shortage of workers in year:-
a. 1972
b. 1960
c. 1970
d. 1947
Ans : (b)
35. ‘Id’ is a festival of
a. Muslim
b. Hindu
c. Sikh
d. None of these
Ans : (a)
36. Coercion means:-
a. Freedom of speech
b. Freedom of religion
c. Force someone to do something
d. All of these
Ans : (c)
37. There are maximum number of
a. Hindu
b. Muslim
c. Both (1) & (2)
d. None of these
Ans : (b)
38. Democracy means:-
a. Rule of people
b. Rule of minister
c. Rule of speaker
d. All of these
Ans : (a)
39. Who is the present prime minister of India?
a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Indra Gandhi
c. Manmohan Singh
d. Sonia Gandhi
Ans : (c)
40. Is castism should be there?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Can’t say
d. may be
Ans : (b)
41. Christian belongs to which religion
a. Hindu
b. Muslim
c. Sikh
d. Christian
Ans : (d)
42. Scared book of Muslim is:-
a. Ved
b. Kuran
c. Namaj
d. All of these
Ans : (b)
43. Where the Hindu worship their God?
a. Temple
b. Masjid
c. Both (1) & (2)
d. None of these
Ans : (a)
44. India is a :-
a. Religion based country
b. Religion free country
c. Both (1) & (2)
d. None of these
Ans : (b)

45. Our unity lines in our
a. Diversity
b. Castism
c. Religious
d. None of these
Ans : (a)
46. Is there provision of Indian secularism in constitution
a. No
b. Yes
c. Can’t say
d. May be
Ans : (b)
47. Wearing a _______ is central to a Sikh’s religious practice
a. Pugri
b. suit
c. Having Bike
d. All of these
Ans : (a)
48. India constitution guarantees ______to
a. Fundamental duty
b. Fundamental right
c. Both (1) & (2)
d. None of these
Ans : (b)
49. Separation of religion from the state means
a. Socialism
b. Democracy
c. Secularism
d. All of these
Ans : (c)
50. There are mainly four religion practiced in India, they are
a. Arabic
b. Christian
c. Jainism
d. Buddhism
Ans : (b)

INDIAN POLITY MCQs

1. If it is desirable to establish a Presidential form of government in India, the foremost and immediate amendment has to be made affecting the—

(A) System of Judiciary
(B) Composition of the Parliament
(C) Powers of the Executive
(D) Provisions of the Fundamental Rights

2. Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be presented—

(A) In any court of the country
(B) In the Supreme Court only
(C) In the High Court only
(D) In either Supreme Court of High Court

3. Who amongst the following can be removed without Parliament's resolution?

(A) Governor of a state
(B) Any judge of the Supreme Court
(C) Any judge of a High Court
(D) Chief Election Commissioner

4. If a question asked by a Member of Parliament is a starred one, he will get—

(A) A written answer
(B) An oral answer
(C) Answer in the Zero hour
(D) No answer

5. According to the provisions of the Constitution, which one of the following can be abolished?

(A) Legislative Assembly
(B) Legislative Council
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha

6. Whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, will be decided by the—

(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Prime Minister

7. After the general elections a new Lok Sabha is constituted. In its first session, the Speaker is elected. Who presides over this first session?

(A) Ex-Speaker
(B) Ex-Prime Minister
(C) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(D) Oldest member of the House

8. The 'Indian Parliament' comprise of the—

(A) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the President
(C) Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the Council of Ministers
(D) Lok Sabha and the Council of Ministers

9. In the event of the breakdown of the constitutional machinery of any state, under which one of the following Articles can President's Rule be imposed?

(A) 352
(B) 256
(C) 360
(D) 370

10. Which one of the following has got most effective provisions towards the establishment of socio-economic justice in India?

(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principles of the State Policy
(D) Preamble of the Constitution

11. Which one of the following is a national political party?

(A) All India Anna D. M. K.
(B) National Conference
(C) Communist Party of India
(D) All India Forward Block

12. Which of the following is a member of the SAARC ?

(A) Bhutan
(B) Tibet
(C) Myanmar
(D) Malaysia

13. Human Rights Day is observed all over the world every year on—

(A) 24 October
(B) 7 November
(C) 10 December
(D) 25 December

14. Individual liberty is best reflected in a—

(A) Socialist State
(B) Communist State
(C) Welfare State
(D) Fascist State

15. Universal Adult Franchise makes a government—

(A) More responsive
(B) More efficient
(C) More popular amongst the minorities
(D) More stable

16. In Dictorship Executive is responsible to—

(A) An advisory council
(B) The people's representatives
(C) The high administrative officers
(D) No one

17. While casting her vote in any election, a woman exercises her—

(A) Civics right
(B) Social right
(C) Natural right
(D) Political right

18. In India, the states derive their power from the—

(A) People
(B) Constitution
(C) State Assembly
(D) Parliament

19. How many representatives for Vidhan Parishad of U.P. are elected from the teacher's constituency?

(A) 18
(B) 12
(C) 9
(D) 6

20. For removing the Vice President of Indian from his office a resolution is initiated in—

(A) The joint sitting of both the House
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) The Lok Sabha
(D) Any of the two Houses

21. Which of the following has got a Lt. Governor?

(A) Delhi
(B) Goa
(C) Karnataka
(D) Manipur

22. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights has been ensured to the citizens of India?

(A) To get education
(B) To get employment
(C) To buy and sale property
(D) To form associations or unions

23. By Parliament we mean—

(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President

24. Who appoints the ad-hoc Chief Justice of a High Court?

(A) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) The President of India
(C) The Governor of the State concerned
(D) The Cabinet at the Centre

25. In the Panchayati Raj system, the 'Panchayat Samiti' is constituted at the—

(A) Village level
(B) Block level
(C) City level
(D) District level

Answers : 

 1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B)
6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (A)
16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (B)

Comparative Government and Politics,Constitutional Development,Indian Constitution Questions for various exams

1. Which one of the following statements about the speaker of the Lok Sabha is not correct?

(a) He has the power to adjourn the House sine die

(b) He has the power to summon the House even after prorogation

(c) He continues to be in office even after the dissolution of the House and un immediately before the first meeting of the House

(d) He must vacate the office if he cease to be a member of the Lok Sabha

Ans. (b)

2. How much is the quorum of a House of Parliament in India?

(a) One-half of the total membership of the House

(b) One-third of the total membership of the House

(c) Two-third of the total membership of the House

(d) One-tenth of the total membership of the House

Ans. (d)

3. Consider the following statements:

1. Quo Warranto is a very powerful instrument for safeguarding against the usurpation of public offices.

2. A High Court can issue a mandamus to compel a court or judicial tribunal to exercise its jurisdiction when it has refused to exercise it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Axis. (c)

4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Parliamentary Device) (Substance)

A. Cut Motion 1. To draw attention of the ministers on the matters of

urgent public importance

B. Call Attention Motion 2. To draw attention of the speaker towards incorrect or

incomplete answer by ministers

C. Privilege Motion 3. To move a proposal to reduce expenditure on the budget

proposals

D. Adjournment Motion 4. To adjourn the House before the expiry of time

5. Concludes discussion on demand for grants

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 2 4 5 1

(c) 3 4 2 1

(d) 2 1 5 4

Ans. (a)

5. What does the ‘Rule of lapse’ mean?

(a) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation

(b) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year

(c) The demand for grants of a ministry lapses with criticism of its policy by the opposition

(d) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days

Ans. (b)

6. Which one of the following categories of disputes is excluded from the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

(a) Between the Government of India and one or more states

(b) Between two or more states inter se

(c) Between residents of two or more states

(d) Between the Government of India and one or more states on one side and one or more states on the other

Ans. (c)

7. Consider the following statements on judicial activism in India:

1. It occurs mainly where the legislature and executive wings of government fail to discharge their duties under the Constitution.

2. Justice A. H. Ahmadi had initiated judicial activism by converting letter written to him by an aggrieved citizen into public interest litigation.

3. Most of the cases of judicial activism have occurred through appeals against lower court judgments.

4. In judicial activism, the court monitors the development of a case during the trial period and gives necessary directions to investigating agencies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Ans. (d)

8. Which one of the following scholars described the party system prevailing in India in the early years of independence as one party dominant system?

(a) Bhikhu Parikh

(b) Myron Weiner

(c) Granville Austin

(d) Rajni Kothari.

Ans. (d)

9. Consider the following statements related to secularism in India:

1. It entails strict separation of religion from politics.

2. It refrains parties with religious affiliations from contesting elections.

3. It grants religious liberty to all communities.

4. It accepts community personal laws.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (c)

10. Consider the following statements:

1. The Committee on Public Accounts examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India before it is presented before each House of Parliament.

2. The President of India causes the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India to be laid before each House of Parliament.

3. After the Annual Financial Statement is presented before the Lok Sabha, the Committee on Public Accounts examines the estimates

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) l and 3

(c) 1 only

(d) 2 only

Ans. (d)

11. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Gujarat Riot (1969) — Reddy Commission

(b) Bhiwandi Riot (1970). — D. P. Madan Commission

(c) Jamshedpur Riot (1979) — Jitendra Narayan Commission

(d) Bombay Riot (1993) — Shashikant Verma Commission

Ans. (d)

12. Which one of the following statements is correct for the First Report of the Ethics Committee of the Parliament?

(a) Matters like criminalization of politics, political parties and electoral reforms, Code of Conduct were dealt with

(b) Procedural aspects of enforcing the Code of Conduct were dealt with

(c) Such matters as, disorderly proceedings in legislatures, co-operation with presiding officer in the legislature and enforcing discipline were dealt with

(d) Matters like behaviour of political parties and good governance were dealt with

Ans. (b)

13. In the context of the Indian political system, what did the term “Young Turks” refer to?

(a) A group of students who emerged out of Navnirman movement of Jaya Prakash Narayan

(b) A faction of Naxalite movement who claimed to be puritans

(c) An ideological group with socialist leanings within the Congress Party

(d) A radical group within the Communist Party who claim to be Marxist-Leninist

Ans. (d)

14. Growth of regional political parties in India in recent years is attributed to which of the following?

1. Frequent elections

2. Inability to accommodate demands of various sections of society

3. Advent of multinational companies

4. Emergence of new states

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) l and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) l and 4

Ans. (a)

15. Which of the following electoral reforms is not implemented yet?

(a) Bye-election to be held within 6 months from the occurrence of vacancy

(b) Registration of political parties with the Election Commission

(c) Debar Income Tax defaulters from contesting elections

(d) Increase in security deposit and number of proposers

Ans. (c)

16. Consider the following countries:

1. France

2. England

3. Switzerland

4. Germany

By the end of 19th century, in which of the above countries, all adult women were franchised?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 only

(d) None of these

Ans. (d)

17. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The party system and the elections in India are based on single member constituencies, first-past-the post system of plurality voting and a bicameral legislature.

(b) British party system is the product of the great economic and social changes that rocked the society and the state in the nineteenth century Europe.

(c) The electoral system is at the heart of the credibility (legitimacy) of modern democracies.

(d) The first general elections (Parliamentary Elections) were held in India in the year 1950 after following the ratification of the Constitution.

Ans. (d)

18. Which one of the following is the main principle on which the Parliamentary system operates?

(a) Supremacy of Parliament

(b) Responsibility of Executive to Legislature

(c) Supremacy of Judiciary

(d) Theory of Separation of Power

Ans. (b)

19. Which one of the following is known as the Marshal Plan?

(a) US post-war economic assistance to Europe

(b) US military intervention in Vietnam

(c) Marshal Tito’s advocacy for Non-alignment

(d) US assistance to post colonial regimes in sub-Saharan Africa

Ans. (a)

20. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Mikhail Gorbachev : Glasnost

2. Samuel Huntington : Clash of Civilization

3. Henry Kissinger : Detente

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

21. Which one of the following countries has not signed the agreement on SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement (SAPTA)?

(a) Myanmar

(b) Bhutan

(c) Nepal

(d) Maldives

Ans. (a)

22. In the wave, of democratization of 1980s and 1990s, in which of the following countries has state socialism not been replaced by a multi-party system?

(a) Hungary

(b) Poland

(c) Bulgaria

(d) North Korea

Ans. (d)

23. Who among the following, mooted the idea that India was a ‘soft state’ and ill-equipped to carry out its promises?

(a) Samir Amin

(b) Gunnar Myrdal

(c) Andre Gundar Frank

(d) Edward Said

Ans. (b)

24. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The House of Lords is primarily a hereditary chamber

(b) Aliens can also become members of the House of Lords

(c) There are some peers from Ireland also

(d) Spiritual Peers also occupy a significant number

Ans. (c)

25. The regional legislatures of Scotland and Wales are elected by which method?

(a) Plurality of votes

(b) Absolute majority of votes

(c) Proportional representation by single transferable votes

(d) A mixture of single-member districts and proportional representation by party lists

Ans. (a)

26. In which of the following federations does the second chamber have equal representation from the states?

1. India

2. USA

3. Canada

4. Australia

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

27. Which one of the following statements about the French Judicial System is not correct?

(a) The French judiciary has got the power of judicial review

(b) The method of appointment of judges differs from that of Britain and U SA

(c) There are two types of courts – ordinary courts and administrative courts

(d) There are courts of appeal also under the Vth Republic of France

Ans. (a)

28. Which one of the following statements with respect to the features of the French Constitution is not correct?

(a) The Constitution of the Fifth Republic was framed by General de Gaulle

(b) The Constitution of the Fifth Republic contains a mixture of unitary and federal government

(c) The tenure of the President is five years

(d) The Constitution of the Fifth Republic was enacted to ensure stability

Ans. (b)

29. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) British Parliament is sovereign

(b) The monarchy is rooted in Britain

(c) Separation of powers is the essential principle of the British system of government

(d) The Cabinet is the most powerful body in Britain

Ans. (c)

30. Which one of the following statements is not correct in case of U S A?

(a) Bill of Rights is enumerated in the U S Constitution

(b) The Constitution is the supreme law of the land

(c) There is a provision of single citizenship in U S A

(d) The members of the House of Representatives are elected for a period of two years

Ans. (c)

31. In which country, a political party must obtain a minimum of 5% of the national votes or win at least three directly elected seats to be allowed proportional representation in the Legislature?

(a) France

(b) Germany

(c) South Africa

(d) China

Ans. (b)

32. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

Under the basic law of the Federal Republic of Germany, the right to asylum is restricted to persons suffering from

(a) economic hardship

(b) ethnic prejudice

(c) social discrimination

(d) political persecution

Ans. (d)

33. Which one of the following statements is not correct about South Africa?

(a) The Constitution of the Union of South Africa possesses no federal features

(b) The Constitution is a mixture of federal and unitary type of government

(c) The provinces get equal representation in the Senate

(d) The Union Cabinet represents as far as possible, different provincial interests

Ans. (a)

34. How is the Federal Constitutional Court in Germany constituted?

(a) By appointments by the Federal President

(b) By appointments by the Federal Chancellor

(c) By election of half number of judges by the Bundestag and half by the Bundesrat

(d) By election by the Joint Committee of Parliament

Ans. (c)

35. Consider the following events:

1. Lucknow Pact

2. Promulgation of Vernacular Press Act

3. Establishment of Arya Samaj

4. Partition of Bengal

Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the events given above?

(a) 3-4-2-1

(b) 1-2-4-3

(c) 3-2 -4-1

(d) 1-4-2-3

Ans. (c)

36. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

The All India Muslim Personal Law Board

(a) enjoys a constitutional status and its head is appointed by the President of India

(b) is a voluntary organization which brings together all the sects and schools of Muslims in India.

(c) is an official body created by following the Shah Bano controversy.

(d) is a body of Ulema belonging to the Deoband School which advises the government on Muslim Personal Law.

Ans. (c)

37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

A. Home Rule Movement 1. Lord Cornwallis

B. Vernacular Press Act 2. M.G. Ranade

C. Policy of Subsidiary Alliance 3. B. G. Tilak

D. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha 4. Lord Wellesley

5. Lord Lytton

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3

(b) 3 5 4 2

(c) 2 5 4 3

(d) 3 4 1 2

Ans. (b)

38. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Indian Councils Act, 1892 - Principle of Election

(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909 - Responsible Government

(c) Government of India Act; l919 – Provincial Autonomy

(d) Government of India Act, 1935 – Diarchy in States

Ans. (a)

39. The Autonomous District Council under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution is not operative in which one of the following states of North-East India?

(a) Assam

(b) Tripura

(c) Nagaland

(d) Meghalaya

Ans. (c)

40. The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 made it obligatory for the President of India to act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India was amended by the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976?

(a) Article 73

(b) Article 74(1)

(c) Article 75(1)

(d) Article 77(1)

Ans. (b)

41. 86th Constitutional Amendment deals with which of the following?

(a) Allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created states

(b) Reservation of 30% posts for women in Panchayat Raj Institutions

(c) Insertion of Article 21A related with free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years

(d) Continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment

Ans.(c)

42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Schedule of Constitution (Contents)

of India)

A. Ninth Schedule 1. Provisions regarding Panchayat Raj Institutions

B. Tenth Schedule 2. Provisions regarding land reforms legislations

C. Eleventh Schedule 3. Provisions regarding administration of tribal

areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram

D. Sixth Schedule 4. Provisions regarding the distribution of powers

between the Centre and States

5. Provisions regarding the disqualification on ground of

defection

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2

(b) 2 5 1 3

(c) 3 5 1 2

(d) 2 1 4 3

Ans. (b)

43. Consider the following statements:

The ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution includes

1. The Government and Parliament of India. -

2. The Government and legislature of the states.

3. Local authorities Or other authorities within the territories of India or under—the control of Government of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

Ans. (a)

44. Which one of the following issues comes under the Concurrent List?

(a) Taxes on Professions, trades, callings and employment

(b) Capitation Taxes

(c) Adulteration of food stuffs and other goods

(d) Corporation Tax

Ans.(c)

45. Consider the following statements:

Proclamation of emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India

1. requires written communication of the Union Cabinet to the President to that effect.

2. can be issued for the whole of India or part thereof.

3. lapses, if not approved by both Houses of Parliament within a month;

4. requires a resolution, approving the proclamation passed by both Houses of Parliament only by a majority of the total membership of each House, and not less than 2/3 members present and voting.

5. once approved by Parliament-can last for six months.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Ans. (a)

46. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Reservation of seats for SCs and STs : Article 330 of Constitution of India

in the Lok Sabha

(b) Constitution Amendment Procedure : Article 268 of Constitution of India

(c) Public Service Commissions for the : Article 313 of Constitution of India

Union and States

(d) Special Provisions with- respect to : Article 371-D of Constitution of India

the State of Nagaland

Ans. (a)

47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Source) (Tax)

A. Taxes levied by the Union but collected 1. Taxes on income other than agriculture

and appropriated by the State

B. Taxes levied, collected and retained by 2. Stamp duties

the Centre

C. Taxes levied and collected by the Centre 3. Corporation Tax

but assigned to the States

D. Taxes levied and collected by the Centre and 4. Taxes on land and buildings

compulsorily distributed between the

Union and the States

5. Taxes on railway fares and freights

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 5 4 2

(b) 2 3 5 1

(c) 1 3 5 2

(d) 2 5 4 1

Ans. (b)

48. Which of. the following rights is not expressly mentioned in the Fundamental Rights but has been upheld as so by several pronouncements of the Supreme Court?

(a) Equity before law

(b) Right to non-discrimination in public employment

(c) Right to form associations or unions

(d) Right to freedom of Press

Ans. (d)

49 Which of the following Articles were first inserted and repealed later from the Constitution of India?

1. 32-A

2. 51-A

3. 131-A

4. 257-A

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

50. Consider the following statements:

1. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.

2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for legislation.

3. The President has the right to address and send message to either House of Parliament.

4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union must be communicated to the President.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (a)

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam., 2008

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam., 2008
(Held on 11-1-2009)
Political Science

1. Which one is not the principle of Parliamentary government in a democracy ?
(A) Collective responsibility of Executive
(B) Fixed Tenure
(C) Prime Minister as Primes inter pares
(D) Judicial guarantee of Fundamental Rights
Ans : (B)

2. The Executive in Presidential form of government is powerful because—
(A) the Legislature is weak
(B) judges are appointed by the President
(C) it enjoys the fixity of tenure
(D) the procedure of impeachment is cumbersome
Ans : (C)

3. Presidential form of government is based on the principle of—
(A) accountability of Executive to Judiciary
(B) independence of the Executive
(C) separation of powers
(D) sovereignty of the Legislature
Ans : (B)

4. “Politics is struggle for power”, was said by—
(A) Morgenthau
(B) Quincy Wright
(C) Sprout
(D) Thomson
Ans : (A)

5. “Politics is concerned with the authoritative allocation of values for a society.” This definition of politics has been given by—
(A) David Easton
(B) Harold Lasswell
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) Charles Merriam
Ans : (A)

6. According to Structural-Functional approach which of the following does not constitute ‘input functions’ of a political system ?
(A) Political socialisation
(B) Political development
(C) Interest aggregation
(D) Political communication
Ans : (B)

7. Who of the following is regarded as an exponent of empty liberty ?
(A) Bentham
(B) J.S. Mill
(C) Hegel
(D) Green
Ans : (B)

8. Which one of the following books is not written by Machiavelli ?
(A) The Prince
(B) The Discourses
(C) The Art of War
(D) Behemoth
Ans : (D)

9. The view that “the State is a necessary evil”, is associated with—
(A) Individualists
(B) Anarchists
(C) Marxists
(D) Sophists
Ans : (A)

10. The philosophy that stands diametrically opposite to liberalism is—
(A) Individualism
(B) Capitalism
(C) Marxism
(D) Fascism
Ans : (C)

11. Who of the following first propounded the organic theory of State ?
(A) Machiavelli
(B) Plato
(C) Marx
(D) Herbert Spencer
Ans : (B)

12. Social Contract theory is based on—
(A) Nationalism
(B) Constitutionalism
(C) Individualism
(D) Socialism
Ans : (C)

13. Who of the following first used the term ‘Socialism’ ?
(A) Kropotkin
(B) Robert Owen
(C) Marx
(D) Bentham
Ans : (B)

14. Which one of the following is not an agency of public opinion ?
(A) Press
(B) Judiciary
(C) Political Party
(D) T.V. and Radio
Ans : (B)

15. The first systematic classification of government was given by—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Machiavelli
(D) Montesquieu
Ans : (B)

16. Which one of the following functions is performed by political parties ?
(A) To render help to poor people
(B) To run hospitals
(C) To manage newspapers
(D) To assist candidates in contesting elections
Ans : (D)

17. ‘The concept of liberty’ includes—
(A) absence of unjust restraints
(B) maximum justice
(C) national liberation
(D) absence of restraints
Ans : (A)

18. The best explanation of ‘Equality’ is—
(A) identity of treatment
(B) parity of remuneration
(C) fulfilment of minimum needs
(D) abiding by rules
Ans : (C)

19. Marxian socialism is called ‘scientific socialism’, because Marx—
(A) considered personal experiences as his laboratory
(B) opposed religion and metaphysical issues
(C) rejected idealistic, vague and utopian assumptions
(D) accepted dictatorship of the proletariat
Ans : (C)

20. The Retributive Theory of Justice is based on—
(A) the principle of deterrent punishment
(B) the principle of revenge
(C) the principle that punishment should aim at reforming the criminals
(D) the principle of ‘hate the sin and not the sinner’
Ans : (B)

21. Classless society according to Marx denotes—
(A) a tribal society
(B) a casteless society
(C) a society where there is only one class–the working class
(D) a society in which all classes are in equal proportion
Ans : (C)

22. Rousseau’s ‘General Will’ means—
(A) Will of the sovereign
(B) Will of the general public
(C) Will of majority
(D) Collective good of the people
Ans : (D)

23. The Deterrent Theory of Justice is based upon the principle of—
(A) Tit for tat
(B) Severe and exemplary punishment to prevent the reoccurrence of crime
(C) That criminals should be reformed
(D) That criminals should be treated leniently
Ans : (B)

24. Theory of Political Development means—
(A) Development of the whole state
(B) Development of the consciousness amongst the people
(C) Development of the whole society through the instrumentality of the State
(D) Development of political elite
Ans : (C)

25. Divine Origin theory of the State holds that—
(A) State was created by a saint named Divine
(B) State was created by Pope
(C) State was created by God
(D) State was created by majority vote
Ans : (C)

26. Oligarchy is a system where—
(A) representatives of the common people dominate
(B) aristocratic class dominates
(C) working class dominates
(D) peasantry dominates
Ans : (B)

27. A Totalitarian State is one in which—
(A) total power of the state is vested in one person
(B) state has total power over its subjects
(C) state caters to the total needs of its subjects
(D) state has complete control over its resources
Ans : (B)

28. The characteristic which is of the ‘List System’ but not of ‘Single Transferable Vote System’ is—
(A) it is proportional representation
(B) the constituency must be multiple-member
(C) quota is calculated
(D) votes are cast to the party and not the candidate
Ans : (D)

29. The scholar who first propounded the single transferable vote system is—
(A) Thomas Paine
(B) J.S. Mill
(C) Thomas Hare
(D) Rousseau
Ans : (C)

30. The ideology of Democratic Socialism lays emphasis on—
(A) basis of society is not competition, but cooperation
(B) state is a necessary evil
(C) violent revolution
(D) class-struggle theory
Ans : (A)

31. Which of the following statements is not applicable to Hobbes ?
(A) Men entered into a single contract
(B) Sovereign enjoyed absolute powers
(C) Men can appoint their ruler
(D) The contract was one-sided
Ans : (C)

32. Which of the following contains the elements of the historical theory of the origin of the State ?
(A) Kinship, religion, war, political consciousness
(B) War, customs, kingship, dictates of natural law
(C) Kingship, force, mutual agreements, political leadership
(D) Blood-relations, contractual agreements, religion, anarchy
Ans : (A)

33. The basic principle of liberalism is—
(A) social justice
(B) equality
(C) individual freedom
(D) nationalism
Ans : (C)

34. Modern Individualism demands freedom for—
(A) Group
(B) Individual
(C) People
(D) Working class
Ans : (A)

35. The concept of constitutional government was first elaborated by—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Bodin
(D) Machiavelli
Ans : (B)

36. Who propagated “the greatest happiness to the greatest number” ?
(A) Marxists
(B) Utilitarians
(C) Liberals
(D) Pluralists
Ans : (B)

37. Input-output model is chiefly attributed to—
(A) Peter Merkl
(B) Robert Dahl
(C) David Easton
(D) David Apter
Ans : (C)

38. What are the essential elements of the State ?
(A) Population, territory, constitution, power
(B) Population, territory, government, sovereignty
(C) Population, territory, political party, sovereignty
(D) Population, power, authority, sovereignty
Ans : (B)

39. Which of the following theories of origin of State is more appropriate and reliable as it is based on scientific base ?
(A) Divine theory of origin of state
(B) Force theory
(C) Evolutionary theory
(D) Social contract theory
Ans : (C)

40. The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ was given by—
(A) A.V. Dicey
(B) Laski
(C) Austin
(D) MacIver
Ans : (A)

41. Mrs. Annie Besant was associated with—
(A) Servants of India Society
(B) Home Rule Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) Quit India Movement
Ans : (B)

42. Who presides over the joint session of the two Houses of the Parliament ?
(A) President of India
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Leader of Ruling Party
Ans : (B)

43. In the Indian Constitution the word secularism means—
(A) State has a religion of its own
(B) State has nothing to do with religion
(C) State has irreligious
(D) State tolerates religions without professing any particular religion
Ans : (D)

44. Who was the Chairman of the ‘Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly’ ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) J. L. Nehru
(D) B. N. Rao
Ans : (B)

45. Through which Amendment was the word ‘Socialism’ added to the Constitution ?
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 43rd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 45th Amendment
Ans : (A)

46. Indian Institute of Public Administration is situated at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Chennai
(C) Kolkata
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (A)

47. In India the power of judicial review is enjoyed by the—
(A) High Court only
(B) Supreme Court only
(C) Supreme Court and High Court only
(D) Parliament
Ans : (C)

48. In which part of the Indian Constitution proclaims India to be a welfare state ?
(A) Part III
(B) Part IV
(C) Part IX
(D) Part VI
Ans : (B)

49. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are contained in—
(A) Part I of the Constitution
(B) Part III of the Constitution
(C) Part IV of the Constitution
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

50. Which one of the following commissions was constituted to examine the Centre-State relations ?
(A) Sarkaria Commission
(B) Shah Commission
(C) Bachhavat Commission
(D) Jain Commission
Ans : (A)

51. In India the work of Budget forming is performed by—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Public Service Commission
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Finance Commission
Ans : (C)

52. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right to Life
(B) Right to Liberty
(C) Right to Property
(D) Right to Freedom of Expression
Ans : (C)

53. Indian system is—
(A) Federal
(B) Quasi-federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Federal with unitary bias
Ans : (D)

54. Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission of 1945 ?
(A) Sir Stafford Cripps
(B) A.V. Alexander
(C) Lord Pathik Lawrence
(D) C. Atlee
Ans : (D)

55. The partition of India was first hinted—
(A) at the II Round Table Conference
(B) in the Cripps Proposals
(C) in the Cabinet Mission Plan
(D) in the Mountbatten formula
Ans : (D)

56. The demand of the Swarajist Party was—
(A) Poorna Swaraj
(B) Parliamentary Institutions
(C) Dominion Status
(D) Communal Electorates
Ans : (C)

57. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Vice-President
(D) Union Planning Minister
Ans : (B)

58. Mohd. Ali Jinnah propounded the ‘Two-Nation’ theory in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1928
(C) 1940
(D) 1946
Ans : (C)

59. Who among the following was not a moderate ?
(A) B.G. Tilak
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Feroz Shah Mehta
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Ans : (A)

60. ‘Dyarchy’ was introduced in India under—
(A) Morley-Minto Reforms
(B) Montford Reforms
(C) Simon Commission Plan
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans : (B)

61. The Simon Commission was sent to India to—
(A) study the communal problem
(B) negotiate with Gandhiji about representation of backward classes
(C) review the progress of Montford reforms
(D) report on Home Rule to the British Parliament
Ans : (C)

62. The leaders of the Khilafat movement were—
(A) Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das
(B) Gandhi and Annie Beasant
(C) Maulana Azad and Sarojini Naidu
(D) Ali Brothers
Ans : (D)

63. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched ?
(A) Fascism—Mussolini
(B) Anarchism—Bakunin
(C) Socialism—Thomas Moore
(D) Pluralism—Kropotkin
Ans : (D)

64. The importance of Bureaucracy has greatly increased in present times on account of—
(A) the emergence of democratic state
(B) the emergence of welfare state
(C) the emergence of police state
(D) the emergence of liberal economic system
Ans : (B)

65. Freedom of Press in India is—
(A) specifically provided in the Constitution
(B) implied in the right to freedom of expression
(C) available under the Acts of Parliament
(D) available under executive orders
Ans : (B)

66. Universal Adult Franchise in India was granted by—
(A) The Act of 1919
(B) The Act of 1935
(C) The Constitution of India
(D) Constitutional Amendment in 1971
Ans : (C)

67. Representative Institutions in India were introduced for the first time by the—
(A) Charter Act of 1853
(B) Government of India Act 1858
(C) Indian Council Act 1861
(D) Indian Council Act 1892
Ans : (D)

68. Who is the legal sovereign in India ?
(A) President of India
(B) President and Parliament
(C) Constitution of India
(D) People of India
Ans : (B)

69. Idealist theory of Rights lays emphasis on man’s—
(A) social development
(B) economic development
(C) civil development
(D) moral development
Ans : (D)

70. The slogan ‘Swaraj is my birthright’ was given by—
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) Lokmanya Tilak
(D) Bipin Chandra Pal
Ans : (C)

71. The partition of Bengal was annulled in—
(A) 1907
(B) 1908
(C) 1910
(D) 1911
Ans : (D)

72. Who, among the following, was the founder of Ghadar Party ?
(A) Lala Har Dayal
(B) Ram Chandra
(C) Bikaji Cama
(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad
Ans : (A)

73. The first Satyagraha campaign of Gandhiji was started in—
(A) Champaran
(B) Bardoli
(C) Dandi
(D) Baroda
Ans : (A)

74. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder of—
(A) Arya Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Ram Krishna Mission
(D) Prarthana Samaj
Ans : (B)

75. The Indian National Congress adopted the resolution of ‘Complete Independence’ in its session held at—
(A) Lahore
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Bombay
Ans : (A)

76. Which what the April 13, 1919 is associated in the history of freedom struggle of India ?
(A) Start of Civil Disobedience Movement
(B) Countrywide Non-cooperation Movement
(C) Adoption of pledge for complete freedom of the country
(D) Massacre of Jallianwala Bagh
Ans : (D)

77. Why did Gandhiji abruptly stop the Non-cooperation Movement of 1922 ?
(A) For the harsh attitude of British
(B) Because of pact between Congress and British
(C) Because of violence broke at Chauri-Chaura
(D) Because of unanimous decision of Congress
Ans : (C)

78. Which of the following is not matched properly ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi—Noncooperation Movement
(B) Vinoba Bhave—Bhoodan
(C) M.N. Roy—Partyless Democracy
(D) J.L. Nehru—Democratic Socialism
Ans : (C)

79. Which Constitutional Amendment is related to Panchayati Raj ?
(A) 52nd
(B) 62nd
(C) 72nd
(D) 73rd
Ans : (D)

80. In which year Madhya Pradesh State has made Panchayati Raj Act after 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act ?
(A) 1992
(B) 1993
(C) 1995
(D) 1998
Ans : (C)

81. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ? The President of India can—
(A) summon each House of Parliament
(B) address both the Houses of Parliament
(C) prorogue either House of Parliament
(D) dissolve both the Houses of Parliament
Ans : (D)

82. The Presiding Officer of the Upper House of Indian Parliament is—
(A) President of India
(B) Vice-President of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans : (B)

83. The Act of 1919 provided for—
(A) Annulment of Veto power of the Governor General
(B) Bicameral legislature at the centre
(C) End of communal representation
(D) Introduction of dyarchy at the centre
Ans : (B)

84. The Communal Electorate System was introduced by the British in India for the first time through—
(A) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(B) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(C) Government of India Act, 1909
(D) Government of India Act, 1919
Ans : (C)

85. The Political Party commands absolute majority in Lok Sabha. It means—
(A) membership is more than 50%
(B) majority in membership
(C) majority support
(D) 50% membership
Ans : (A)

86. Parliament of India consists of—
(A) Legislative Assembly, Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
(C) President, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
(D) Speaker, Lok Sabha, Council of State
Ans : (C)

87. The State, which elects the largest members of Lok Sabha, is—
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)

88. The ‘Trusteeship Theory’ signifies—
(A) property as theft
(B) state ownership of means of production
(C) abolition of private property
(D) owners consider wealth ‘for society’
Ans : (D)

89. Cripps proposals is a ‘post-dated cheque’ on a failing bank. This is the view of—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Rajgopalachari
(D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (B)

90. The Prime Minister of India is—
(A) appointed
(B) elected
(C) nominated
(D) selected
Ans : (A)

91. In India, the Money Bill is first introduced in—
(A) the Rajya Sabha
(B) the Lok Sabha
(C) simultaneously in both the Houses of Parliament
(D) the Finance Commission
Ans : (B)

92. Which of the following writs literally means : ‘We command’ ?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo warranto
(D) Certiorari
Ans : (B)

93. Where is the International Court of Justice situated ?
(A) The Hague
(B) New York
(C) Geneva
(D) Paris
Ans : (A)

94. When was SAARC formally established ?
(A) December 1980
(B) August 1983
(C) December 1985
(D) July 1987
Ans : (C)

95. Who of the following gave the idea of partyless democracy ?
(A) J. L. Nehru
(B) Lenin
(C) Jayaprakash Narayana
(D) M. K. Gandhi
Ans : (C)

96. The number of Judges in International Court of Justice is—
(A) 15
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 14
Ans : (A)

97. India began NAM in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1954
(C) 1973
(D) 1978
Ans : (A)

98. Sino-Indian war occurred in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1948
(D) 1947
Ans : (B)

99. According to the Constitution, the Lok Sabha must meet at least—
(A) thrice each year with an interval of not more than two months between the two sessions
(B) twice each year with an interval of not more than three months between the two sessions
(C) twice each year with an interval of not more than four months between the two sessions
(D) twice each year with an interval of not more than six months between the two sessions
Ans : (D)

100. Which one the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Simon Commission, 1927
(B) Namak Satyagrah, 1930
(C) Gandhi-Irwin Pact, 1931
(D) Wavell Plan, 1944
Ans : (D)

101. “Law is the command of the sovereign.” It was said by—
(A) H. J. Laski
(B) W. Austin
(C) J. Bentham
(D) T. Acquinas
Ans : (B)

102. Hobbes has been called an individualist because—
(A) he permits Natural Rights to the individual
(B) he allows Right to Revolt against the sovereign
(C) his Monarch has been given absolute powers by the people
(D) his entire philosophy focuses on the security of the individual in the state
Ans : (D)

103. According to Rousseau the State of Nature has to be terminated because—
(A) Human nature was wicked
(B) Natural rights were in danger
(C) Art and culture were to be preserved
(D) Inequality created the institution of property
Ans : (D)

104. According to Karl Marx, State—
(A) is a result of surplus value
(B) is a permanent agency of exploitation of the poor
(C) is a class organisation which was to wither away
(D) is a product of social contract between rich and powerful
Ans : (C)

105. Which one of the following is a Liberal thinker ?
(A) J. S. Mill
(B) Thomas Moore
(C) George Sorel
(D) A. R. Orage
Ans : (A)

106. A welfare state is a/an—
(A) democratic state
(B) socialist state
(C) secular state
(D) administrative state
Ans : (A)

107. “Socialism is like a hat which has lost its shape because everybody wears it.” Who said this ?
(A) Charles Fourier
(B) Proudhoun
(C) C.E.M. Joad
(D) Alexander Gray
Ans : (C)

108. Guild Socialism is a half way house between—
(A) Democracy and Socialism
(B) Socialism and Marxism
(C) Collectivism and Syndicalism
(D) Marxism and State Socialism
Ans : (C)

109. A socialist state believes in giving—
(A) maximum functions to the State
(B) minimum functions to the State
(C) negative functions to the State
(D) no functions to the State
Ans : (A)

110. Proportional representation is also called as—
(A) MacDonald method
(B) Hare plan
(C) Single voting
(D) List system
Ans : (B)

111. Who was the author of ‘Arthashastra’ ?
(A) Kautilya
(B) Adam Smith
(C) Patanjali
(D) Malthus
Ans : (A)

112. Socialism as a political philosophy is not opposed to—
(A) Capitalism
(B) Feudalism
(C) Social engineering
(D) Competition
Ans : (C)

113. Fabian socialists believe in—
(A) inevitability of gradualness
(B) non-violence for social status quo
(C) revolutionary reforms
(D) minimum consumption
Ans : (A)

114. A democratic form of government can be contrasted from a totalitarian form of government on the basis of—
(A) Constitutionalism
(B) Electoral system
(C) Rule of Law
(D) Opposition parties
Ans : (C)

115. Minorities and special interests can be best represented on democratic bodies by a system of—
(A) plural voting
(B) professional representation
(C) proportional representation
(D) separate electorates
Ans : (C)

116. The book entitled ‘Grammar of Politics’ was written by—
(A) E. Barker
(B) H. Laski
(C) H. Lasswell
(D) A. Appodari
Ans : (B)

117. Mr. H. G. Sorel was a—
(A) Guild socialist
(B) Syndicalist
(C) Fabian socialist
(D) Utopian socialist
Ans : (B)

118. “Nothing against the state, nothing beyond the state, everything within the state” was the political philosophy of—
(A) Hegel
(B) Marx
(C) Mussolini
(D) Mao
Ans : (A)

119. Marxism and Fascism agree about—
(A) the nature of state
(B) the role of religion
(C) the utility of wars
(D) the totalitarian character of government
Ans : (D)

120. The socialists consider the state as—
(A) a necessary evil
(B) an unnecessary evil
(C) a divine institution
(D) a positive good
Ans : (D)