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Wednesday, July 11, 2012

Solved GS Paper -I of Civils Main Exam 2011

General Studies Paper – I
1. Answer any three of the following in about 250 words each:         20x3=60

(a) ‘Essentially all that is contained in part IV- A of the Constitution is just a codification of tasks integral to Indian way of life.’ Critically examine the statement.

Answer:

Article 51A of the part IV-A of the Indian Constitution lists the fundamental duties of the citizens which were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act. Fundamental duties are restrictions on the citizens, but they are not enforceable in a court of law. They act more like a lighthouse to guide citizens’ conduct and bring it in conformity with the Indian way of life. They include abiding the constitution and respecting its ideals and institutions such as the National Flag and the National Anthem. Fundamental Duties also include cherishing and following the noble ideals that inspired our freedom struggle, upholding the sovereignty and integrity of the nation, rendering national services, promoting harmony and brotherhood, renouncing practices derogatory to the dignity of women, safeguarding public property, developing scientific temper etc.

Incidents like destruction of public property by violent mobs and protestors, delivering of hate speeches to cause disharmony and rift among communities, mounting corruption, declining child sex ratio, reports of practices like sati which still is continuing in some parts of the country point towards the fact that the republic has not succeeded completely in instilling the values contained in part IV-A, in the hearts and minds of the Indian citizens.

These values should be taught from the early childhood through a free, fair, secular, and non-discriminatory education system. The society also needs role models from all walks of life such as politics, business, administration, judiciary, academia etc. so that national identity becomes paramount and the values are most cherished.

(b) ‘The exercise of executive clemency is not a privilege but is based on several principles, and discretion has to be exercised in public consideration.’ Analyse this statement in the context of judicial powers of the President of India.

Answer:

Article 72 of the Indian Constitution empowers the president to pardon, remit, commute, respite and reprieves a person of any offence. Supreme Court has held that pardoning power of the President is subject to judicial review and it should not be handled dishonestly in the public interest.

The question of executive clemency has come into focus due to the recent decision of the President’s rejecting the mercy plea of those, convicted in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case and Tamil Nadu assembly’s passage of a resolution over it. The Afzal Guru case has also not yet been resolved which also is giving political colour to the whole issue.

Supreme Court in its 1989 judgement laid down several principles or ‘do’s’ and ‘don’ts’ with respect to the executive clemency. The apex court observed that the delay in making a decision on the death penalty leads to adverse psychological impact on the convicted and it amounts to the court’s inhuman and brutal treatment. Thus inordinate delay can form the basis for clemency. It also observed that the nature of crime needs to be taken into consideration before granting executive clemency. The conduct of the convicted cannot form the basis for granting clemency and the time calculated should be from the date the final verdict was given on the case if it needs to form the ground for clemency.

Constitution should be amended to provide the time limits within which mercy petition are to be decided. Importantly, the political parties should restrain from politicising the power of the President which is supposed to be used in the public consideration.

(c) Discuss the extent, causes, and implications of ‘nutrition transition’ said to be underway in India.

Answer:
Nutrition Transition can be referred to as the increased consumption of unhealthy foods compounded with increased prevalence of overweight in middle-to-low-income countries. It has serious implications in terms of public health outcomes, risk factors, economic growth and international nutrition policy.

Extent: As developing societies like India industrialise and urbanise, and as standards of living continue to rise, weight gain and obesity are beginning to pose a growing threat to the health of the citizens. Repeated episodes of malnutrition, followed by nutritional rehabilitation, are known to alter body composition and increase the risk of obesity. Food balance data from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) show that the change in energy intake in Asian countries has been small, but there have been large changes in consumption of animal products, sugars and fats in countries like India. There is a progressive increase in the intake of protein, and probably fats. The increase in the intake of protein and fats is due to the phenomenal increase in the consumption of milk and milk products and an increase in the intake of animal products. On the other hand consumption of pulses and legumes has fallen drastically in India.

Causes: In India, the demographic and epidemiological transition, the forces of internal migration and urbanisation, the changes in food consumption patterns and low physical activity patterns to an epidemic of obesity and other NCDs (Non-communicable Diseases). There is also a decrease in the energy expenditure in occupational activities, increased urbanisation, universal use of motor cars, mechanisation of most manual jobs outside the occupational sphere and increasing leisure time have aggravated this trend in India.

Implications: There is a large increase in the non-communicable diseases (NCDs) in the developing countries specially the countries under transition like India. Approximately 40% of the deaths in the developing countries take place due to NCDs.

(d) Bring out the salient features of the PCPNDT Act, 1994, and the implication of its amendment in 2003.

Answer:
Pre Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Technique Act, 1994 was enacted to arrest the declining sex ration. It is a subject of discussion now because; an all-time low child sex ratio of 914 was reported in the 2011 provisional census data.

The main purpose of enacting the act is to ban the use of sex selection techniques before or after conception and prevent the misuse of prenatal diagnostic technique for sex selective absorption.

Offences under this act include conducting or helping in the conduct of prenatal diagnostic technique in the unregistered units, sex selection on a man or woman, conducting PND test for any purpose other than the one mentioned in the act, sale, distribution, supply, renting etc. of any ultra sound machine or any other equipment capable of detecting sex of the foetus.

The act was amended in 2003 to improve the regulation of the technology used in sex selection.

Implications of PCPNDT Act, 1994 amendment:

1. Amendment of the act mainly covered bringing the technique of pre conception sex selection within the ambit of the act

2. Bringing ultrasound within its ambit

3. Empowering the central supervisory board, constitution of state level supervisory board

4. Provision for more stringent punishments

5. Empowering appropriate authorities with the power of civil court for search, seizure and sealing the machines and equipments of the violators

6. Regulating the sale of the ultrasound machines only to registered bodies

2. Answer one of the following in about 250 words:        20x1=20

(a) Trace the salient sequences of events in popular revolt that took place in February 1946 in the then Royal Indian Navy and bring out its significance in the freedom struggle. Do you agree with the views that the sailors who took part in this revolt were some of the unsung heroes of the freedom struggle?

Answer:

Royal Indian Navy revolt of February 1946 took place in the background of Quit India Movement and Second World War. This was a very turbulent phase in India’s freedom struggle. The popular revolt shook the very foundation of British Raj and made it abundantly clear that their time in India was numbered.
In November 1945 some students from Forward Block, Students Federation of India and Islamia College participated in a protest march over the INA trials. They tied together League, Congress and red flag, as a symbol of anti imperialist unity.

In February 1946, Muslim League students took a protest march in which some Congress students also participated against the seven year sentence to INA prisoner Rashid Ali.

In February 1946, naval ratings of HMIS Talwar went on strike to protest against racial discrimination, unpalatable food, INA trials, and abuse by superior officers. This was followed by city people joining in through mass strikes, hartals, meetings, attacks on police stations, railway station etc. Other parts of the country also expressed support in the form of strikes by Royal Indian Forces in Calcutta, Puna and Bombay.

The upsurge showed that the fearless action by the masses, revolt in armed forces had psychological affect on masses and it also prompted British to extend some concessions but above all it marked the end of British rule in India.

Sailors who took part in the struggle were the unsung heroes as they did not get the level of publicity as that of the INA trials and in the pages of history; they remain anonymous and unknown.

(b) Evaluate the influence of three important women’s organisations of the early twentieth century in India on country’s society and politics. To what extent do you think were the social objectives of these organisations constrained by their political objectives?

Answer:

Bharat Stree Mahamandal, All India Women’s Conference and Women’s India Association were some of the important women’s associations of the early twentieth century. Bharat Stree Mahamandal was the first women's organisation in India founded by Sarala Devi Chaudhurani in Allahabad in 1910. One of the primary goals of the organisation was to promote female education which was not well developed at that time. The organisation opened several offices in Lahore, Allahabad, Delhi, Karachi, Amritsar etc. to improve the condition of women all over India.

All India Women’s Conference was founded in 1927 by Margret cousins having Sarojni Naidu, Lady Dorab Tata as its founding members. It worked towards women’s education, abolition of purdah system, legislative reform, abolition of child marriage, harijan welfare, family planning, and rural reconstruction. These women’s organisations worked for a society based on principles of social justice, integrity, equal rights and opportunities. They wanted security for every human being; the essentials of life not determined by accidental births but by planned social distribution.

Their efforts led to several legislative reforms in Sharda Act (1929), Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act (1937), Factory Act (1947), Hindu Marriage and Divorce Act etc. AIWC efforts also led to setting up of The All India Women’s Education Fund
Association, and Lady Irwin College of Home Science.

Social and educational reforms effort by the women’s associations helped in preparing the Indian women to participate in the freedom struggle. With Mahatma Gandhi women availed an opportunity to get into the scene of freedom struggle.

3. Answer any one of the following in about 250 words:    20x1=20

(a) Critically examine the design of National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) scheme. Do you think it has a better chance of
success than the Swarna Jayanti Swarojgar Yojna(SGSY) in achieving its objectives?

Answer:

NRLM is the rechristened version of Swarna Jayanti Swarojgar Yojna (SGSY). It is a Ministry of Rural Development programme. It aims to reduce poverty by enabling the poor household to access gainful self employment and skilled wage employment opportunity resulting in a sustainable livelihood.

NRLM is based on three pillars

1. Enhancing and expanding the existing livelihood options of the poor

2. Building skills for the job market

3. Nurturing self employed and entrepreneurs

NRLM plans to give special focus on the poorest households who are currently dependent on the MGNREGA. The design of
NRLM is more likely to succeed because its implementation is in a mission mode which enables it shift from the present allocation based approach to demand based approach. This enables the states to formulate their own livelihood based on poverty reduction action plans. It also focuses on targets, outcomes, and time bound strategy. The monitoring would be done against the targets of the poverty outcomes. NRLM will have continuous capacity building, imparting of requisite skills and creating linkages with livelihood opportunities for the poor, including those emerging from the organised sector.

NRLM funds will be directly released to the state level agencies and DRDA based on the detailed district wise annual action plan. It will involve the Self Help Group in the implementation which increases the likelihood of its success. National Skill Development Council will also coordinate in the skill development part in the implementation of NRLM. In order to ensure institutional arrangement for skill development for self employment and wage employment, dedicated training institute for rural BPL youth i.e Rural Self Employment Training Institutes (RSETIs) are being set up with the aim of having at least one such institution in each district in India. These RSETIs will be set up with the partnership of banks. This will help in achieving the objectives of NRLM.

(b) Highlight the structure, objectives and role of the Advertising Standard Council of India. In what way has the August 2006
government notification made it more effective?

Answer:

The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI), established in 1985, is committed to the cause of Self-Regulation in Advertising, ensuring the protection of the interests of consumers. The ASCI was formed with the support of all four sectors connected with Advertising, viz. Advertisers, Ad Agencies, Media (including Broadcasters and the Press) and others like PR Agencies, Market Research Companies etc. Its main objective is to promote responsible advertising; thus enhancing the public's confidence in Advertising. ASCI thus aims to achieve its own overarching goal i.e., to maintain and enhance the public's confidence in advertising.

The Board of Governors (16 members) ensures equitable representation of Advertisers, Agencies, Media and other Advertising Services, the individual member firms being leaders in their respective industries or services. The Consumer Complaints Council (CCC) (21 members) has 12 Non-Advertising professionals representing civil society, who are eminent and recognised opinion leaders in their respective disciplines such as Medical, Legal, Industrial Design, Engineering, Chemical Technology, Human Resources and Consumer Interest Groups; 9 are advertising practitioners from our member firms.

ASCI is represented in all committees working on advertising content in every Ministry of the Government of India. ASCI’s Code for Self-Regulation in Advertising is now part of ad code under Cable TV Act’s Rules. Violation of ASCI’s Code is now treated as a violation of the government’s rules. ASCI’s membership of The European Advertising Standards Alliance (EASA) ensures that it gets valuable advice, learning and even influence at the international level.
The Consumer Complaints Council is ASCI's heart and soul. It is the dedicated work put in by this group of highly respected people that has given tremendous impetus to the work of ASCI and the movement of self-regulation in the advertising.

In August 2006, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting issued a notification deeming it necessary for all TV commercials in India to abide by the ASCI code. This effort of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting has made the advertising self-regulatory movement in India stronger and more effective.

4. Comment on any five of the following in about 150 words each.    12x5=60

(a) Salient recommendations of the RBI-appointed Damodaran committee on customer service in Banks.

Answer:

The Damodaran Committee on bank customer services has recommended active involvement of the boards of banks to guarantee customer satisfaction. The committee held that customer service and grievance redress should be included as a mandatory parameter in the performance appraisal report of all employees.

The committee has suggested that an agenda on the level of implementation of the Bank's Code of Commitments to Customers and an overview on the grievance redress mechanism in the bank should be placed before the bank every quarter before the Customer Service Committee.

The committee suggets that every board should ensure they have comprehensive policies for customer acceptance, care and severance. The banks should show sensitivity for small customers by ensuring that the pricing (bank charges) does not act as a deterrent for the small person to do banking transactions.

Emphasising on 'customer centricity', the committee recommended that bank boards should evolve human resources policies which should recruit for attitude and train for skills.

(b) Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS).

Answer:

It is a scheme by the Central Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. Its funding pattern is up to 90 percent; it is funded by the Central Ministry. The Grant in Aid is released on the basis of recommendations received from the State Government, UTs through State Multi-Disciplinary grant-in-aid committee concerned or any other agency designated by the Ministry. Beneficiary could be an individual, a family, a community, women and Children.

The voluntary organisations are assisted in running rehabilitation centres for leprosy cured persons and also for manpower
development in the field of mental retardation and cerebral palsy. They are also assisted in establishment and development of special schools for major disability areas, viz. Orthopaedic, speech, hearing, visual and mental disability. The NGOs are extended assistance for setting up projects of vocational training to facilitate the disabled persons to be as independent as possible by acquiring basic skills. The Ministry, under the Scheme supports both recurring and non-recurring expenditure of projects by NGOs up to 90 percent.

(c) Evolution of ‘Green Benches’ in our higher judiciary.

Answer:

The Supreme Court of India interpreted Article 21 which guarantees the fundamental right to life and personal liberty, to include the right to a wholesome environment and held that a litigant may assert his or her right to a healthy environment against the State by a writ petition to the Supreme Court or a High Court. Public interest litigation has been used by the higher judiciary to ensure environment protection and safeguard public interest.

Till 1980, not much contribution was made by the courts in preserving the environment. One of the earliest cases which came to the Supreme Court of India was Municipal Council, Ratlam, vs Vardhichand AIR 1980 SC 1622. Thereafter, series of cases were filed before the Supreme Court and there was a dynamic change in the whole approach of the courts in matters concerning environment.
India has now become the third country in the world to start a National Green Tribunal (NGT) which is a judicial body exclusively meant to judge environmental cases. The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same. The predecessor to the NGT, the erstwhile National Environment Appellate Authority has been superseded by the NGT.

(d) Distinction between ‘Department Related Parliament Standing committees’ and ‘Parliamentary Forum’.

Answer:

Departmental Standing Committees were created in 1993 to exercise control over the executive; particularly financial control. There are now 2 such committees having 31 members each; 21 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. Members from the Lok Sabha are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, while members from the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the Rajya Sabha Chairman. A minister cannot be nominated as a member of the committee. These committees consider the demand for grants of the concerned ministry. They submit the reports based on which the discussion on budget takes place.

Parliamentary Forums on the other hand are ad hoc in nature and are constituted for specific issues to make the Members of the Parliament aware of the seriousness of the particular situation and to enable them to adopt a result-oriented approach towards these issues. The Parliamentary fora do not interfere in or encroach upon the jurisdiction of the concerned Departmentally Related Standing Committees or the Ministry/Department concerned. Members of these fora are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, as the case may be.

(e) Benefits and potential drawbacks of ‘cash transfers’ to Below Poverty Line Households.

Answer:

Cash transfer has come into discussion due to the leakages in several government schemes like the Public Distribution System. It has been successful in Latin American countries. Cash transfer has some benefits in terms of better targeting of public subsidy, reducing diversion, preventing corruption, and eliminating wastages in transportation and storage of goods like food grains. It also gives flexibility to the citizens in terms of buying the public goods and services. Cash transfer is also suitable for migrating population that moves in search of work.

Cash transfer on the other hand can only succeed if an appropriate IT infrastructure exits, through which cash can be transferred directly to the account of the beneficiary which becomes a challenge in the poor financial inclusion. Cash can be more prone to diversion if proper safeguards are not taken. Moreover cash transfer can work if the public delivery system is in place for e.g. how giving cash for health services will make any difference if there are no hospitals, medicines and doctors in the villages. Factoring inflation into cash transfer is always been a challenge.

(f) New initiatives during the 11th Five Year Plan in the National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB).

Answer:

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) endorsed and approved a budget of INR 12,500 million for the XI five-year (2007-12) plan period. The enhanced funding and financial allocation to the tune of nearly two-thirds of the previous plan period is indicative of the high political commitment accorded to blindness control activities in the India. With the federal nature of the Indian Constitution, the States are largely independent in matters relating to health delivery. The Central Government’s responsibility consists mainly of policy making, planning, funding, guiding, assisting, evaluating and coordinating the work of state health ministries so that health services cover every part of the country and no state lags behind for want of these services. The NPCB is striving to enhance the capacity of health institutions, health personnel and the community at all levels to address issues under the programme. In the approved XI five-year plan period, schemes with existing/enhanced financial allocation are being implemented along with new initiatives to reduce blindness.

5. Examine any three of the following in about 150 words each.        12x3=36

(a) The impact of climate change on water resources in India.

Answer:

The impact of climate change on water resources in India is evident through erratic monsoon, more frequent floods and droughts, stronger cyclones and rivers changing their course frequently. The severity is also due to the prevailing more than 7000km of coastline.

The changed rainfall pattern has adversely affected ground water recharge, wetlands both coastal and terrestrial. Climate change has resulted in melting of Himalayan glaciers. It has the potential of making the Himalayan Rivers swell first and then turning them into seasonal rivers, threatening the source of freshwater. It can also lead to salt water intrusion and threatening aquaculture and coastal agriculture.

The impact has been severe also because, India is still an agricultural country with its large population being dependant on weather related livelihood through agriculture, forestry, pisciculture etc.

(b) Measures taken by the Indian government to combat piracy in the Indian Ocean.

Answer:
Indian government has used INS Talwar to foil several bids by pirates near the Gulf of Aden. Indian government is coordinating the anti piracy measures at the international level with China, European countries and with the Gulf countries.
Indian government has placed surveillance radars in countries like Maldives and Srilanka to secure the sea lanes in the Indian Ocean. It has signed agreements with Madagascar, Seychelles and Mauritius for anti piracy measures. Government has also taken measures in strengthening the coastal security by equipping and reforming the coast guards. However, incidents like unmanned vessel drifting in the ocean and reaching the coast of Mumbai have highlighted the holes in our coastal security which needs to be plugged.

Supreme Court has recently asked the Central Government to formulate separate piracy law for trying the pirates and to take care of the compensation to the victim’s family. Currently piracy is being dealt under the provisions of Indian Penal Code.

(c) The significance of counter-urbanisation in the improvement of metropolitan cities in India.

Answer:

Counter-urbanisation is a demographic and social process where people move from large urban areas or into rural areas, thereby leapfrogging the rural-urban fringe. It might mean daily commuting, but could also require lifestyle changes and the increased use of ICT (home working or teleworking). It is the process of migration of people from major urban areas to smaller urban settlements and rural areas. Counter-urbanisation affects the layout of rural settlements. Modern housing estates locate of the edge of small settlements. Industrial units are sited on main roads leading into the settlement.

Counter urbanisation will reduce pressure on the metropolitan cities and its basic amenities like drinking water supply, sewage facilities, continuous supply of electricity, education facilities, etc as people move out due to following

(i) Increase in car ownership enabling their movement, growth in information technology (E-mail, faxes and video conferencing) meaning more people can work from home

(ii) Urban areas are becoming increasing unpleasant place to live. This is the result of pollution, crime and traffic congestion.

(iii) More people tend to move when they retire.

(iv) New business parks being developed on the edge of cities (on Greenfield sites) meaning people no longer have to travel to the city centre. People now prefer to live on the outskirts of the city to be near where they work.

(d) Problems specific to the denotified and nomadic tribes in India.

Answer:
Post Independence the Criminal Tribe Act 1871 was replaced; and criminal tribe nomenclature was replaced with denotified tribe (DNTs) which is still considered derogatory. They have been discriminated; British government included some of the tribes like Gonds, Ho and Santhals under this categorisation as they had rebelled against the British Raj.

A major challenge in the intervention comes due dispersed nature of the tribes and having a nomadic culture surviving on shifting cultivation. This results in health and educational services a challenging task to deliver. It also makes the implementation of nutritional initiative like addressing iodine deficiency a challenging task. Preservation of their culture, script, practices also get hampered due to the same reason. Two different opinions arise with regard to the reservation for the DNTs to raise their social and economic conditions. One view supports providing reservation within existing group of SCs, STs and OBCs while the other view supports creating a new group for the reservation of DNTs.

6. In the context of the freedom struggle, write short notes (not exceeding 50 words each) on the following:    5x3=15

(a) 'Benoy-Badal-Dinesh' martyrdom.

Answer:

On 8 December 1930, Benoy along with Dinesh chandra Gupta and Badal Gupta, dressed in European costume, entered the Writers' Building and shot dead Simpson, the Inspector General of Prisons, who was infamous for the brutal oppression on the prisoners. This inspired further revolutionary activities in Bengal. After Independence Dalhousie square was named B.B.D Bagh-after Benoy-Badal-Dinesh.

(b) Bharat Naujavan sabha

Answer:

Bharat Naujavan Sabha was an association of Indian youths which was established at a convention held in April 1928 at the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. The aims of the Sabha were to create a youth wing of peasants and workers with a view to usher in revolution in the country and overthrow the British rule. Bhagat Singh was its secretary and principle organiser.

(c) 'Babbar Akali' movement

Answer:

The Babbar Akali movement, which emerged in the wake of the Akali Movement, and was an underground terrorist movement established in the Jalandhar Doab in 1921. Members fought pitched battles with police and committed acts of violence.

7. Comment on the following in not more than 50 words each:             5x6=30

(a) Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme in India.

Answer:

Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme by by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) means initiating intensive, annual monitoring of tigers at the tiger reserve level, across 41 protected areas in India. This programme is to estimate numbers of both tigers and their prey. This programme is planned to be commenced from November 2011.

(b) Why the Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of Consumer Price Index from this year?

Answer:

The Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of CPI with its base year of 2010 for rural, urban areas and for the nation as a whole. It will give a comprehensive picture of inflation at the national level for retail prices. Government also proposes to use it for giving dearness allowance for government employee in the seventh pay commission.

(c) Composition and functions of the National Executive Committee of the National Disaster Management Authority.

Answer:

The National Executive Committee (NEC) of the National Disaster Management Authority comprises the Union Home Secretary as the Chairperson, and the Secretaries to the GOI in the Ministries/Departments of Agriculture, Atomic Energy, Defence, Drinking Water Supply, Environment and Forests, Finance (Expenditure), Health, Power, Rural Development, Science and Technology, Space, Telecommunications, Urban Development, Water Resources and the Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff of the Chiefs of Staff Committee as members.

(d) The Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 and why it has been in news recently?

Answer:

Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 provides that the property of corrupt persons can be attached even when the probe is under way, if the authorised officer concludes that the acquisition of the property was the result of the offence committed by the accused. Bihar implemented it and some officials came under this Act. Its constitutional validity was questioned in Supreme Court which refused to stay this act.

(e) The Telecommunications Ministry’s proposed Spectrum Management Commission.

Answer:
Spectrum Management Commission is a new entity to manage and regulate spectrum allocation. The Commission will subsume Wireless Planning Coordination wing of the Department of Telecom and will get wider powers including dispute settlement, pricing and regulations related to spectrum. While the DoT will continue to be the licensor, all issues pertaining to spectrum allocation will be brought under Spectrum Management Commission.

(f) The Community-Led Total Sanitation (CLTS) approach to sanitation.

Answer:
CLTS is an innovative methodology for mobilising communities to completely eliminate open defecation (OD). Communities are facilitated to conduct their own appraisal and analysis of open defecation (OD) and take their own action to become ODF (open defecation free). CLTS focuses on the behavioural change needed to ensure real and sustainable improvements. It invests in community mobilisation instead of hardware, and shifting the focus from toilet construction for individual households to the creation of ’open defecation-free’ villages.

8. Attempt the following in not more than 50 words each.        5x4=20

(a) Distinguish either between the ‘Moatsu’ and ‘Yemshe’ festivals of Nagaland or the ‘Losar’ and ‘Khan’ festivals of Arunachal Pradesh.

Answer:

Moatsu Festival is celebrated in Nagaland by the Ao tribe. It is observed every year in the first week of May. During this Nagaland festival, a number of rituals are performed. After sowing the seeds, the Aos observe Moatsu Mong.

The Pochury Tribe celebrates their greatest festival, Yemshe in the month of October every year. During the Yemshe festival, the arrival of the new harvest is celebrated with full fun & fair. The Losar Festival also called as the New Year Festival and it is the most important festival celebrated in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh. Losar is celebrated by the Monpas that forms the major portion of population in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh.
In the Khan festival of Arunachal Pradesh, the social and cultural beliefs of the local tribes can be witnessed. Regardless the different casts and creed, the local tribes unite in the Khan celebration.

(b) Write a sentence each of any five of the following traditional theater forms:

(i) Bhand Pather: It is the traditional theatre form of Kashmir, which is a unique combination of dance, music and acting. Satire, wit and parody are preferred for inducing laughter.

(ii) Swang:
It is a popular folk dance-drama or folk theatre form in Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh. Swang incorporates suitable theatrics and mimicry (or nakal) accompanied by song and dialogue. Swang theatre is
traditionally restricted to men, who also play the female roles.

(iii) Maach:
It is a traditional Hindi theatre form of Madhya Pradesh. It shares the secular nature and characteristics of other north Indian genres like Nautanki and Khyal. Based on religious, historical, romantic, or social themes, it was invented and developed by prominent artists like Guru Gopalji, Guru Balmukund, Kaluram Ustad, and Radhakrishan Ustad.

(iv) Bhaona:
It is a unique festival of Vaishnava theatrical performance in Assam. The performance is marked by a continuous shifting between the classical and the folk, the mundane and the spiritual, providing thousands of spectators a rare aesthetic experience.

(v) Mudiyettu:
It is ritualistic dance drama performed after the harvest of summer crops in Kerala. In 2010, Mudiyettu was included in the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage Lists.

(vi) Dashavatar:
Dashavatar is the most developed theatre form of the Konkan and Goa regions. The performers personify the ten incarnations of Lord Vishnu-the god of preservation and creativity.

(c) What are the major different styles of unglazed pottery making in India?

Answer:

There are three different styles in unglazed pottery making in India. They are - the paper-thin, scrafito and highly polished. Black pottery is another famous form of unglazed pottery in Indian villages and it resembles the Harappan pottery style. In the paper thin pottery, the biscuit coloured pottery is decorated with incised patterns.

(d) List the classical dance forms of India as per the Sangeet Natak Akademy.

Answer:
Sangeet Natak Akademi currently confers classical status on nine Indian dance styles which are Bharatnatyam, Kathak, Gaudiya Nritya, Kathakali, Mohiniyattam, Oddisi, kuchipudi, Sattriya, and Manipuri.

9. Comment on following in not more than 50 words each:        5x5=25

(a) Nisarga-Runa technology of BARC.

Answer:

The Nisarga-Runa technology developed at BARC converts biodegradable solid waste into useful manure and methane. It can be deployed for the dual objectives of waste management as well as for livelihood creation among the urban underprivileged. The 'Nisargruna' technology adopts biphasic reactor system wherein the first reactor is operated under aerobic and thermophilic conditions. As a result of the first feature, the universal problem of odour from waste processing biogas plants is eliminated and the second feature leads to a faster process. Unlike conventional single phase digesters, which take 30-40 days, a 'Nisargruna' plant can digest organic solid waste between 18-22 days.

(b) The first aid that you can safely administer to a person standing next to you at the bus stop who suddenly faints.

Answer:

I would first take the person away from the crowd to an open and safe area. Then I would sprinkle some water on his/her face to bring him/her back to consciousness. If the person does not gain consciousness then mouth to mouth respiration and administering CPR can be considered as the next step. His/her family members or friends should be immediately informed about his/her ill health by a phone call from the contact details from the mobile phone or the purse of the person and can gather information on the person’s medical condition and then accordingly he/she can be taken for medical supervision.

(c) The Kaveri K-10 aero-engine.

Answer:

Kaveri K-10 engine is being developed to be used in the Light Combat Aircraft, Tejas. It is being developed in collaboration of French firm, Snecma. It will have less weight and more reheat thrust to meet the requirements of the Indian Army.

(d) Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) technology

Answer:
Molecular breast imaging (MBI) is three times more effective than mammograms, and far less costly than other nuclear-medicine imaging. Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) uses a dedicated dual-head gamma camera and 99mTc-sestamibi in women having dense breast patterns and additional risk factors for breast cancer.

(e) E-governance initiatives by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)

Answer:

UPSC has taken the initiative for getting the forms of several examinations like civil services filled online. It also displays the status of the application form for every candidate on its website. UPSC publishes the syllabus and tentative schedules of various UPSC conducted examinations on its website helping students to plan in advance. UPSC also publishes the various court orders and notifications on the web site and information regarding the RTI petitions on its website.

10. Who are the following and why have they been in the news recently? (each answer should not exceed 20 words): 2x7=14

(a) Lieutenant Navdeep Singh

Answer:

Lieutenant Navdeep Singh laid down his life fighting terrorists during an anti-infiltration operation along LOC in Gurez Sector of north Kashmir.

(b) Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar

Answer:

He was an exponent of Dagar vani Dhrupad, which is one of the most pristine and richest forms of Indian classical music. He represented the 19th generation of Dagar Tradition.

(c) Lobsang Sangay
Answer:

He is the Tibetan Prime Minister in exile. He is a Harvard graduate and a political successor of Dalai Lama.

(d) P.R. Sreejesh

Answer:

P.R. Sreejesh is Hockey Goalkeeper in the Indian Hockey team. He is from Kerela.

(e) Nileema Mishra

Answer:

She is one of the Magsaysay Award winners for 2011.. She is a lender to the poorest in Maharashtra. She was recognised for her purpose-driven zeal to work tirelessly with villagers in Maharashtra.

(f) V.Tejeswini Bai

Answer:

Tejeswini is a Kabbadi player from Karnataka who has represented India from 2005 to 2010 and captained Indian team for four years.

(g) Aishwarya Narkar

Answer:

Aishwarya Narkar is a Marathi actress who also works in the Hindi TV serials. She has received National Film Award from the   President of India.

Thursday, May 24, 2012

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMS 2012 PAPER-I SOLVED PAPER WITH EXPLANATIONS

1. Under which of the following circumstances may “capital gains” arise?

1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product

2. When there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned

3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Capital gains arise from sale of capital investments. It can be a home, a farm, a business, shares, mutual fund, jewellery, art and paintings, bonds, other real estate, etc. It excludes items for personal use like apparel, motor vehicle, furniture. It also excludes stock-in-trade for business and agricultural land.

Capital Gains Tax can be triggered by the ‘Transfer’ of above mentioned assets, which includes:

► Acquisition of an asset

► Sale of asset

► Exchange of asset

► Relinquishing of asset

► Extinguishment of rights of an asset, etc

Moreover this tax is related to the value of the asset rather than the quantum of sales of it, therefore statement 1 cannot be true rather statement 2 and 3 are true.

2. Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?

1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank

2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public

3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank

4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Money supply is increased in the system when currency is pushed into the market by any way. As per the given options statements 2 and 4 lead to the absorption of currency from the market while actions following statements 1 and 3 would release it into the market, therefore the answer has to be C.

3. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?

1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India

2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies

3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies

4. Portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: The FDIs are categorized into vertical and horizontal based on how the subsidiary company works in par with the parent investor.

Vertical FDIs happen when a corporation owns some share of the foreign enterprise. The local enterprise could either be supplying the input or selling finished goods to the parent corporation. The subsidiary here helps the parent company to grow more.

When the MNCs kick off similar business operations in different countries it becomes horizontal Foreign Direct Investment. It is actually a cloning that is happening here. Both the countries enjoy the same share of growth.

(Source moneyguideindia.com)

Further Wikipedia draws a distinction between FDI and portfolio investment as well. According to Wikipedia Foreign direct investment (FDI) is direct investment into one country by a company in production located in another country either by buying a company in the country or by expanding operations of an existing business in the country. Foreign direct investment is in contrast to portfolio investment which is a passive investment in the securities of another country such as stocks and bonds.

From the above two sources it can be inferred that the answer to this question should be D.

4. Consider the following statements:

The price of any currency in international market is decided by the

1. World Bank

2. Demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned

3. Stability of the government of the concerned country

4. Economic potential of the country in question

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: There is hardly any direct role of the World Bank in deciding the price of any currency, apart from the case of US dollar which the World Bank uses as its official currency. However the reason for this is also related to the economic potential of the US economy rather than something else. Further statement 2 and 4 imply almost the same thing yet statement 4 is more explicit. Therefore out of the given options, C option seems to be the best choice.

5. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that

(a) Big banks should try to open offices in each district

(b) There should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks

(d) All the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits

Ans. (c)

6. Consider the following:

1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops

2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare

3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies

Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2

Ans. (d)

Exp: Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of soil and the quality of crops is a practice which has been in vogue since ancient times and there are definite evidences right from the Gupta period.

Cannons were first introduced in India in the medieval period while there are references of the use of mobile cannons by Ahmad Shah Abdali in the third battle of Panipat.

Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies was pioneered by the Portuguese.

Therefore the answer has to be D.

7. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country’s economy, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.

2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.

3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: (Source: The article on Srenis titled Sreni (Guilds): a Unique Social Innovation of Ancient India by Manikant Shah & D.P. Agrawal)

8. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the

(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909

(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919

(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

Ans. (c)

Exp: The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced a federal constitution to India, involving distribution of powers between the Centre and the constituent units.

9. Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?

1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use.

2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.

3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

10. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the

(a) Direction facing the polestar

(b) Direction opposite to the polestar

(d) Direction keeping the polestar to his right

Ans. (c)

Exp: The Pole star always identified with the north direction.

11. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called “rare earth metals”. Why?

1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export

2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country.

3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Wikipedia on rare earths says that “Searches for alternative sources in Australia, Brazil, Canada, South Africa, Tanzania, Greenland, and the United States are ongoing. Mines in these countries were closed when China undercut world prices in the 1990s, and it will take a few years to restart production as there are many barriers to entry”, which also means that such metals are found beyond China, Canada, Australia and Chile as well. Therefore the answer is C.

12. Consider the following protected areas:

1. Bandipur

2. Bhitarkanika

3. Manas

4. Sunderbans

Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Bhitarkanika is not yet declared a Tiger reserve.

13. Consider the following statements:

1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.

2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: The duration of monsoon is maximum over the peninsular region i.e. starting from around 1 June in Kerala to around mid of October, while such is not the case for north India. Further the amount of rainfall in eastern part of the northern plains is greater than that in the western part. Therefore the answer is C.

14. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?

(a) Rainfall throughout the year

(b) Rainfall in winter only

(d) A definite dry and wet season

Ans. (d)

Exp: Tropical savannah region is characterized by a definite dry season which is mentioned in the option D.

15. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?

(a) Biosphere Reserves

(b) National Parks

(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries

Ans. (b)

Exp: According to the Indian Forest Dwellers Act 2006, the core areas of the National Parks are protected and local people are not allowed to collect and use the biomass from these areas.

16. Consider the following kinds of organisms:

1. Bat

2. Bee

3. Bird

Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: All the three are pollinating agents.

17. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?

(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass

(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard

(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal

Ans. (a)

18. Consider the following statements:

If there were no phenomenon of capillarity

1. It would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp

2. One would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink

3. The blotting paper would fail to function

4. The big trees that we see around would not have grown on the Earth

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: All the processes are possible because of capillarity.

19. The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services—provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?

(a) Production of food and water

(b) Control of climate and disease

(d) Maintenance of diversity

Ans. (c)

Exp: Source: Wikipedia

20. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?

(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains

(b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

Ans. (a)

21. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?

1. Global warming

2. Fragmentation of habitat

3. Invasion of alien species

4. Promotion of vegetarianism

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: All options other than that give impetus to vegetarianism obstruct the interaction between organic and inorganic elements.

22. Consider the following:

1. Black-necked crane

2. Cheetah

3. Flying squirrel

4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: All the animals mentioned in the option are found naturally in India.

23. Consider the following agricultural practices:

1. Contour bunding

2. Relay cropping

3. Zero tillage

In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: In contour bunding and relay cropping the deterioration in carbonic matter is minimum compared to the practice of zero tillage.

24. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?

1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.

2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.

3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: If phytoplankton is completely destroyed then the primary producer of the Food-chain will get completely destroyed. Other than that the phytoplanktons also absorb heavy amount of CO2 in the process of Photosynthesis.

25. Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to

(a) The destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species

(b) A drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle

(d) a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them

Ans. (b)

Exp: A drug Diclofenac used by cattle owners for treating diseased cattle destroys the digestive system of vultures.

26. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?

1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.

2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.

3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting license or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. (d)

27. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

(a) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

(b) To let opposition members collect information from the ministers

(d) To postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members.

Ans. (a)

Exp: The purpose of an adjournment motion is to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance.

28. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?

1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.

2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.

3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

29. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21

2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275 (1)

3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

Ans. (a)

30. If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?

1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of waste-water.

2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.

3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India.

4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw ground water will be completely reimbursed by the Government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only (d) 1,2,3 and 4

Ans. (d)

31. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code

2. Organizing village Panchayats

3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas

4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) 1 , 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

32. Consider the following statements:

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.

2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.

3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Exp: The Union territories are represented in the Rajya Sabha. According to the Constitution of India the parliament consists of the Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the president. The power to decide election disputes at present rests in the High Courts with a right to appeal to the Supreme Court (Article-329).

33. With reference to consumers' rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.

2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.

3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

34. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:

1. He/she holds the office during the pleasure of the President.

2. He/she need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.

3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Lok Sabha speaker does not hold the office during the pleasure of the President. The speaker must be a member of parliament at the time of his/her election.

35. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States

2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State

3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory

4. A dispute between two or more states

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

Exp: The original jurisdiction of Supreme Court includes-

(a) Disputes between GOI and one or more states.

(b) GOI and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other.

(c) Between two or more states (Article-131)

36. Consider the following kinds of organisms:

1. Bacteria

2. Fungi

3. Flowering plants

Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

37. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statement is/are correct?

1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.

2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.

3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: Biomass gasification contains Hydrogen, Carbon-monoxide and Methane and it is used in combustion engines.

38. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?

1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.

2. It removes all the undesirable odours from water.

3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: The ultraviolet (UV) radiation inactivates/kills the harmful micro-organisms in water.

39. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance?

1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.

2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.

3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.

4. It can be used as 'conducting electrodes' required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Graphene is an allotrope of carbon.

40. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?

1. Smelting units

2. Pens and pencils

3. Paints

4. Hair oils and cosmetics

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

41. With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.

2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.

3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Stem cells are found in all multi-cellular organisms.

42. Consider the following statements:

Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used

1. in the production of plastic foams

2. in the production of tubeless tyres

3. in cleaning certain electronic components

4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: CFC is used in Refrigeration, Foams, Solvents, Aerosol Products and Sterilants.

43. A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/implications of the creation of anti-matter?

1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.

2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter.

3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

44. Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of universe?

1. Detection of microwaves in space

2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space

3. Movement of asteroids in space

4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Hubble discovered that there is a simple relationship between the distance to a remote galaxy and the redshift in the spectral lines from the galaxy.

45. Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?

(a) The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles

(b) Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

Ans. (a)

Exp: The Sun continually emits a flux of electrically charged particles into space. The earth's magnetic field prevents these charged particles from reaching earth's surface.

46. With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?

1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD.

2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.

3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.

4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Internal organ transplant is a relatively new field with first successful transplant in 1954 in USA.

47. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?

1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment

2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas

3. Denial of efficacy of rituals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Jainas and Buddhas both denied the efficacy of rituals and were indifferent to the authority of Vedas but in the case of penance and enjoyment they differed, while Buddhas were for the moderate path jains strictly condemned all enjoyments and supported extreme penance such as plucking out their hair from the skin.

48. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of “Inclusive Governance’?

1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking

2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts

3. Increasing the government spending on public health

4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Inclusive Governance include-

a) Empowering the affected individuals and groups

b) Operating in an atmosphere of mutual respect and trust.

c) Producing Practical decisions and strategies flexible and open to revision with time.

49. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the

(a) Three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent

(b) Three main linguistic divisions into which the language of India can be classified

(d) Three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India

Ans. (c)

50. The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because

(a) The Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces

(b) Emergence of a ‘left wing’ in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

Ans. (d)

Exp: After declaration of war without any consultation with Indian people on Sep. 3, 1939 by Linlithgow, the congress working committee suggested that it would cooperate if there were Central Indian National Government formed and a commitment made to India's Independence after War. Linlithgow refused the demand and on October 1939 all congress ministries resigned.

51. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of 'ASHA', a trained community health worker?

1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup

2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy

3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization

4. Conducting the delivery of baby

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only

Ans. (a)

52. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?

1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces

2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims

3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Communal electorates for muslims – 1909

53. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?

(a) Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government

(b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose

(c) Behramji Malabari and M.G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Ans. (d)

Exp: Founded by Ranade and R. Rao to endorse the uplift of untouchables as well as education of women etc.

54. Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India

2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation

3. The Independent Labour Party

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Peasants and worker party was formed in 1949, Chairperson was Jayant Prabhakar and General Secretary was S.V. Jadav.

55. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State

(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services

(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement

(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

Ans. (b)

56. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?

1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas

2. By strengthening 'self-help groups' and providing skill development

3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Objective of the mission is to reduce poverty among rural BPL by promoting diversified and gainful self-employment and wage employment opportunities.

57. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?

1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level

2. Purchasing power parity at national level

3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: The MPI identifies deprivation across health, education and living standards.

58. Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?

1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design

2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India's demographic dividend

3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

59. What is/are recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?

1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones

2. Providing the benefit of 'single window clearance'

3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: National Manufacturing Policy-2010

(1) Setting up of Manufacturing Investment Regions (MIR).

(2) Single window clearance mechanism for manufacturing units.

(3) Establishing Technology acquisition and development fund.

60. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament

2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill

3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account

4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office

5. Introduction Finance Bill in the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

Ans. (a)

61. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because

(a) Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations

(b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion

(d) None of the statement (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Ans. (c)

Exp: On September 16, 1932, in his cell at Yeravada Jail near Bombay, Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi begins a hunger strike in protest of the British government's decision to separate India's electoral system by caste by communal award.

62. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements:

1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government

2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots

3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Ryotwari system, one of the three principal methods of revenue collection in British India. It was prevalent in most of southern India, being the standard system of the Madras Presidency (a British-controlled area now constituting much of present-day Tamil Nadu and portions of neighbouring states). The system was devised by Capt. Alexander Read and Thomas (later Sir Thomas) Munro at the end of the 18th century and introduced by the latter when he was governor (1820–27) of Madras (now Chennai).

Under the Ryotwari System # every registered holder of land is recognised as its proprietor. The principle was the # direct collection of the land revenue from each individual cultivator by government agents. For this purpose # all holdings were measured and assessed according to crop potential and actual cultivation. The advantages of this system were the elimination of middlemen, who often oppressed villagers, and an assessment of the tax on land actually cultivated and not merely occupied.

63. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development:

1. Low birth rate with low death rate

2. High birth rate with high death rate

3. High birth rate with low death rate

Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3

Ans. (c)

Exp:

64. In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?

1. Cement 2. Fertilizers

3. Natural gas 4. Refinery products

5. Textiles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 5 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Index of Eight Core Industries (Base: 2004-05=100) March 2012.

The summarized Index of Eight Core Industries with 2004-05 base is given at the Annexure.

The Eight core industries have a combined weight of 37.90 per cent in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). The combined Index was 158.4 in March 2012 with a growth rate of 2.0% compared to their 6.5% growth in March 2011. During April-March 2011-12, the cumulative growth rate of the Core industries was 4.3 % as against their growth at 6.6% during the corresponding period in 2010-11.

Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Petroleum Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel (Alloy + Non-Alloy), Cement, Electricity.

65. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy

2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies

3. Fifth Schedule

4. Sixth Schedule

5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3, 4 and 5 only

Ans. (a)

66. Government of India encourages the cultivation of 'sea buckhorn'. What is the importance of this plant?

1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification

2. It is a rich source of biodiesel

3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.

4. Its timber is of great commercial value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

Exp: oil is used to treat skin burns from radiation. Currently, cosmetic companies are adding sea-buckthorn oil to anti-aging preparations. Not biodiesel.

67. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of 'mixed farming'?

(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops

(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

Exp: Mixed farming is the combining of two independent agricultural enterprises on the same farm. A typical case of mixed farming is the combination of crop enterprise with dairy farming or in more general terms, crop cultivation with livestock farming. Mixed farming may be treated as a special case of diversified farming. This particular combination of enterprises, support each other and add to the farmer’s profitability.

68. A particular State in India has the following characteristics:

1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.

2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.

3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes protected Area Network in this State.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Assam

(d) Uttarakhand

Ans. (a)

69. Consider the following crops of India:

1. Cowpea

2. Green gram

3. Pigeon pea

Which of the statements is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: green gram (mung) is not used as fodder.

70. Consider the following factors:

1. Rotation of the Earth

2. Air pressure and wind

3. Density of ocean water

4. Revolution of the Earth

Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

Exp: The four factors that influence ocean currents are: (1) Planet rotation, (2) Wind, (3) Density of the water (depends on temperature and salinity), and (4) Gravitation of the moon and earth.

71. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements:

1. The country's total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.

2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: Tamil Nadu has wetland area of 18.05%, Gujarat has 17.56%.

Inland wetland

Natural- 43.40% Man-made-25.83% Total - 69.23%

Coastal wetland

Natural- 24.27% Man-made 2.80% Total- 27.07%

72. Consider the following crops of India?

1. Groundnut

2. Sesamum

3. Pearl millet

Which of the statements given above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

73. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following:

1. Deep gorges

2. U-tern river courses

3. Parallel mountain ranges

4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding

Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

Ans. (d)

74. Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth's surface, because

1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth's surface

2. There is more moisture in the upper atmosphere

3. The air is less dense in the upper atmosphere

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: the earth’s atmosphere is not heated by the sun. The sun light comes in through the atmosphere. 25% of it is lost through reflection and then 50% is used to heat the surface of the earth, which then makes the Earth warmer, and heats up the atmosphere. This heat is then stored around the earth because of the ozone layer, keeping us warm.

75. The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?

1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.

2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.

3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.

4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (a)

76. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.

2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.

3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.

4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

77. The endeavour of 'Janani Suraksha Yojana' Programme is:

1. to promote institutional deliveries

2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery

3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (a)

78. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:

(a) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months

(b) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months

(d) Must be a member of the Lok Sabha

Ans. (a)

79. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.

2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: The Delimitation Commission in India is a high power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court. These orders come into force on a date to be specified by the President of India in this behalf.

The copies of its orders are laid before the House of the People and the State Legislative Assembly concerned, but no modifications are permissible therein by them.

80. Consider the following:

1. Hotels and restaurants

2. Motor transport undertakings

3. Newspaper establishments

4. Private medical institutions

The employees of which

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: most of the State Govts. have extended the ESI Act to certain specific classes of establishments, such as, Medical and Educational Institutes, shops, hotels, restaurants, cinemas, preview theatres, motor transport undertakings, newspaper and advertising establishments etc., employing 10 or more persons.

81. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission

2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee

3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General

4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: The conclusions of the Public Accounts Committee are contained in its Report, which, after its adoption by the Committee, is presented by the Chairman to the Lok Sabha.

82. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joing sitting of the Parliament during the passage of

1. Ordinary Legislation

2. Money Bill

3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: Disagreement between the two Houses on amendments to a Bill may be resolved by both the Houses meeting in a joint sitting where questions are decided by majority vote. However, this provision of joint sitting does not apply to Money Bills and Constitution Amendment Bills.

83. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?

1. DRDAs act as Pancyayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.

2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.

3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.

4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: The DRDAs are not the implementing agencies, but can be very effective in enhancing the quality of implementation through overseeing the implementation of different programmes and ensuring that necessary linkages are provided. It shall be their endeavour and objective to secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for reducing poverty in the district. It is their ability to coordinate and bring about a convergence of approach among different agencies for poverty alleviation that would set them apart. The DRDAs are expected to coordinate effectively with the Panchayati Raj Institutions. Under no circumstances will they perform the functions of PRIs.

84. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice

3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry

4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Fundamental duties as enshrined in Indian Constitution are:

(a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;

(b) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;

(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;

(d) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;

(e) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;

(f) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;

(g) To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures;

(h) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;

(i) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;

(j) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement;

(k) Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

85. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.

2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.

3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.

4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: The Supreme Court Judges are not removed by the Chief Justice rather they are removed by the President by a method prescribed in the Constitution. Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and staff of the Supreme Court without any interference from the Executive or Legislature.

86. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?

1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.

2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.

3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: Thorium is three times more abundant in nature compared to uranium. Because nearly all of the thorium is used up in an Thorium Reactor (versus only about 0.7% of uranium mined for a conventional Uranium reactor), the reactor achieves high energy production per metric ton of fuel ore, on the order of 300 times the output of a typical uranium reactor. A Thorium Reactor power plant would generate 4,000 times less mining waste (solids and liquids of similar character to those in uranium mining) and would generate 1,000 to 10,000 times less nuclear waste than a Uranium reactor. Additionally, because Thorium Reactor burns all of its nuclear fuel, the majority of the waste products (83%) are safe within 10 years, and the remaining waste products (17%) need to be stored in geological isolation for only about 300 years (compared to 10,000 years or more for uranium waste).

87. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs:

(a) The water vapours of the air and retains its heat

(b) The ultraviolet part of the solar radiation

(d) The infrared part of the solar radiation

Ans. (d)

Exp: Carbon dioxide is virtually transparent to the visible radiation that delivers the sun's energy to the earth. But the earth in turn reradiates much of the energy in the invisible infrared region of the spectrum. This radiation is most intense at wavelengths very close to the principal absorption band (13 to 17 microns) of the carbon dioxide spectrum. When the carbon dioxide concentration is sufficiently high, even its weaker absorption bands become effective, and a greater amount of infrared radiation is absorbed. Because the carbon dioxide blanket prevents its escape into space, the trapped radiation warms up the atmosphere.

88. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?

(a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium (b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen

Ans. (b)

Exp: Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen, Nitrogen and Phosphorus were the elements which formed the DNA responsible for the origin of life on earth.

89. What are the reasons for the people's resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?

1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.

2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.

3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health.

4. There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: The main concern for farmers and people is that the terminator seeds in the Bt brinjal would not let the fruit have its natural seed for reproduction. Hence after each harvest farmers would need to buy seeds from the seed companies. Environment activists says the effect of GM (genetically modified) crops on rats have shown to be fatal for lungs and kidneys.

90. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?

1. To enable them to withstand drought

2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce

3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations

4. To increase their shelf life

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Though with the help of genetic engineering the third option (3) can be achieved but it was not the prospect for which genetically engineered plants have been created.

91. Consider the following statements:

The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Nauroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he

1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British

2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians

3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

92. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the Major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?

1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period.

2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.

3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: origin from Sama Veda. The lyrics, some of which were written in Sanskrit centuries ago, Dhrupad music is primarily devotional in theme and content.

93. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?

1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.

2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: The dance form spread further during the Bhakti movement between 11th and the 13th century, when dance dramas set to devotional themes were performed by a cast of all men in open-air theaters, with the men playing both the male and female roles. The dramas were usually opened by the narrator, or soothradhar accompanied by (music and) the rhythms of the drums and cymbals. As the audience watched with rapt attention, the characters would introduce themselves, with the lead roles entering the stage behind a curtain. Dramatic elements were used heavily throughout the performance, with the characters speaking out dialogues to the audience during key moments.

94. With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?

1. Meditation and control of breath

2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place

3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

95. The Rowlatt Act aimed at

(a) Compulsory economic support to war efforts

(b) Imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial

(d) Imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press

Ans. (b)

96. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because:

1. The Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence

2. The rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session

3. A resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: The Lahore session of Indian National Congress of 1929 was held under the president ship of Jawaharlal Nehru. The two important decisions taken were the following:

a. The attainment of complete independence: It was declared in this session that the chief goal of the Indian National congress was the attainment of complete independence.

b. It was decided to launch the Civil Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Gandhiji to get the complete independence..

c. It was decided in this session to celebrate 26th January as the Independence Day all over the country. Because of its significance the same day was chosen as the Republic day of India.

97. Lord Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called 'Bhumisparsha Mudra'. It symbolizes:

(a) Buddha's calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation

(b) Buddha's calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara

(c) Buddha's reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory

(d) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context

Ans. (d)

Exp: The "earth witness" Buddha is one of the most common iconic images of Buddhism. It depicts the Buddha sitting in meditation with his left hand, palm upright, in his lap, and his right hand touching the earth. This represents the moment of the Buddha's enlightenment.

Just before the historical Buddha, Siddhartha Gautama, realized enlightenment, it is said the demon Mara attacked him with armies of monsters to frighten Siddhartha from his seat under the bodhi tree. But the about-to-be Buddha did not move. Then Mara claimed the seat of enlightenment for himself, saying his spiritual accomplishments were greater than Siddhartha's. Mara's monstrous soldiers cried out together, "I am his witness!" Mara challenged Siddhartha--who will speak for you?

Then Siddhartha reached out his right hand to touch the earth, and the earth itself roared, "I bear you witness!" Mara disappeared. And as the morning star rose in the sky, Siddhartha Gautama realized enlightenment and became a Buddha.

98. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of

(a) Bhakti (b) image worship and Yajnas

Ans. (c)

99. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?

1. It opposed idolatry.

2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.

3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. (b)

100. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers' bank. This would imply which of the following?

1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.

2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.

3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: The Reserve Bank of India acts as the bankers' bank. According to the provisions of the Banking Companies Act of 1949, every scheduled bank was required to maintain with the Reserve Bank a cash balance equivalent to 5% of its demand liabilites and 2 per cent of its time liabilities in India. By an amendment of 1962, the distinction between demand and time liabilities was abolished and banks have been asked to keep cash reserves equal to 3 per cent of their aggregate deposit liabilities. The minimum cash requirements can be changed by the Reserve Bank of India.

The scheduled banks can borrow from the Reserve Bank of India on the basis of eligible securities or get financial accommodation in times of need or stringency by rediscounting bills of exchange. Since commercial banks can always expect the Reserve Bank of India to come to their help in times of banking crisis the Reserve Bank becomes not only the banker's bank but also the lender of the last resort.