Delimitation of constituencies

As per Delimitation Act of 2002, Delimitation Commission of India has redefined the list of parliamentary constituencies, their constituent assembly segments and reservation status (whether reserved for Scheduled castes (SC) candidates or Scheduled tribes (ST) candidates or unreserved). Karnataka Legislative Assembly election, 2008, which took place in May 2008, was the first state election to use newly demarcated assembly constituencies. Consequently, all assembly elections scheduled in 2008, viz. in the states of Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, NCT of Delhi, Mizoram and Rajasthan are based on newly defined assembly constituencies.

History of Indian currency

Money as a means of payment, consists of coins, paper money and withdrawable bank deposits. Today, credit cards and electronic cash form an important component of the payment system. For a common person though, money simply means currency and coins. This is so because in India, the payment system, especially for retail transactions still revolves mainly around currency and coins. Here is an attempt to answer some of the Frequently Asked Questions on Indian Currency.
A) Some Basics
History of Coins / currency:
I. Coins
The first documented coinage seems to have started with 'Punch Marked' coins issued between the 7th-6th Century BC and 1st Century AD.  The coinage can be classified into the following periods:

1. Ancient
2. Medival
3. Mughal
4. Late pre-colonial
5. British India
6. Republic India
7. Others.

India won its independence on August 15, 1947. During the period of transition India retained the monetary system and the currency and coinage of the earlier period. India brought out its distinctive coins on 15th August, 1950.
Coins in India are presently being issued in denominations of 25 paise, 50 paise, one rupee, two rupees and five rupees. Coins upto 50 paise are called 'small coins' and coins of Rupee one and above are called 'Rupee Coins'. Coins can be issued up to the denomination of Rs.1000 as per the Coinage Act, 1906.
II. Currency:
Financial Instruments and 'Hundies' in India have a venerable history. Paper Money, in the modern sense, traces its origins to the late eighteenth century with the issues of private banks as well as those of semi-government banks. The Paper Currency Act of 1861 conferred upon Government of India the monopoly of Note Issue bringing to end banknote issues of Private and Presidency Banks. Government of India continued to issue currency notes till the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established on 1st April, 1935. Reserve Bank issued banknotes in January 1938 when the first Five Rupee banknote was issued bearing the portrait of George VI. This was followed by Rs. 10 in February, Rs. 100 in March and Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 10,000 in June 1938. The George VI series continued till 1947 and thereafter as a frozen series till 1950 when post independence banknotes were issued, with the Ashoka Pillar watermark. 
Banknotes in the Mahatma Gandhi Series were introduced in 1996  and were issued in a phased manner in the denominations of Rs.5, Rs.10, Rs.20, Rs.50, Rs.100, Rs.500 and Rs.1000. 
Banknotes in MG series 2005, in the denomination of Rs.10, Rs.20, Rs.50, Rs.100 Rs.500, and Rs.1000 with additional / new security features are presently being issued. 
What is the Indian currency called?
The Indian currency is called the Indian Rupee (INR) and the coins are called paise. One Rupee consists of 100 paise.
What are the present denominations of banknotes in India?
At present, banknotes in India are issued in the denomination of Rs.10, Rs.20, Rs.50, Rs.100, Rs.500 and Rs.1000. These notes are called banknotes as they are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (Reserve Bank). The printing of notes in the denominations of Re.1, Rs. 2  and Rs.5 has been discontinued as these denominations have been coinised. However, such banknotes issued earlier can still be found in circulation and these banknotes continue to be legal tender.
Can banknotes and coins be issued only in these denominations?
Not necessarily. The Reserve Bank can also issue banknotes in the denominations of five thousand rupees and ten thousand rupees, or any other denomination that the Central Government may specify. There cannot,  though, be banknotes in denominations higher than ten  thousand rupees in terms of the current provisions of the Reserve Bank of India of Act, 1934.  Coins can be issued up to the denomination of Rs.1000.
Demonetization of higher denomination banknotes.
Rs. 1000 and Rs.10000 banknotes, which were then in circulation were demonetized in January 1946, primarily to curb unaccounted money. The higher denomination banknotes in Rs.1000, Rs.5000 and Rs.10000 were reintroduced in the year 1954, and these banknotes (Rs.1000, Rs.5000 and Rs.10000) were again demonetized in January 1978.
What are the present available denominations of coins in circulation in India?
Presently 25 paise, 50 paise, one rupee, two rupees and five rupee coins are being issued. Coins up to 50 paise are called 'small coins' and coins of Rupee one and above are called 'Rupee Coins'. Though the coins in the denomination of 1 paise, 2 paise, 3 paise, 5 paise, 10 paise and 20 paise may still be in circulation, due to lack of demand these coins are not being issued.
What is legal tender?
The coins issued under the authority of Section 6 of The Coinage Act, 1906, shall be legal tender in payment or on account i.e. provided that a coin has not been defaced and has not lost weight so as to be less than such weight as may be prescribed in its
case: - (a) coin of any denomination not lower than one rupee shall be legal tender for any sum, (b) half rupee coin shall be legal tender for any sum not exceeding ten rupees, (c) any other coin shall be legal tender for any sum not exceeding one rupee [Section 13 of The Coinage Act, 1906].
Similarly, the One Rupee notes issued under the Currency Ordinance, 1940 are also legal tender and included in the expression Rupee coin for all the purposes of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Every banknote issued by Reserve Bank of India (Rs.2, Rs.5, Rs.10, Rs.20, Rs.50, Rs.100, Rs.500 and Rs.1000) shall be legal tender at any place in India in payment or on account for the amount expressed therein, and shall be guaranteed by the Central Government, subject to provisions of sub-section (2) Section 26 of RBI Act, 1934.
What is the meaning of "I promise to pay" clause?
As per Section 26 of Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the Bank is liable to pay the value of banknote. This is payable on demand by RBI, being the issuer. The Bank's obligation to pay the value of banknote does not arise out of a contract but out of statutory provisions.
The promissory clause printed on the banknotes i.e., "I promise to pay the bearer an amount of X" is a statement which means that the banknote is a legal tender for X amount. The obligation on the part of the Bank is to exchange a banknote for coins of an equivalent amount.   
Why is One Rupee liability of the Government of India?
The Government of India derives authority to issue Rupee coins from the Coinage Act.  As such the rupee coins issued by Government constitute the liabilities of the Government.
B) Currency Management.
What is the role of the Reserve Bank of India in currency management?
The Reserve Bank derives its role in currency management from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.The Reserve Bank manages currency in India. The Government, on the advice of the Reserve Bank, decides on various denominations of banknotes to be issued. The Reserve Bank also co-ordinates with the Government in the designing of banknotes, including the security features. The Reserve Bank estimates the quantity of banknotes that are likely to be needed denomination-wise and accordingly, places indent with the various printing presses. Banknotes received from banks and currency chests are examined and those fit for circulation are reissued and the others (soiled and mutilated) are destroyed so as to maintain the quality of banknotes in circulation.
What is the role of Government of India?
In terms of Section 25 of RBI Act, 1934 the design of banknotes is required to be approved by the Central Government on the recommendations of the Central Board of the Reserve Bank of India. The responsibility for coinage vests with the Government of India on the basis of the Coinage Act, 1906 as amended from time to time. The Government of India also attends to the designing and minting of coins in various denominations.
Who decides on the volume and value of banknotes to be printed and on what basis?
The Reserve Bank decides the volume and value of banknotes to be printed each year. The quantum of banknotes that needs to be printed, broadly depends on the requirement for meeting the demand for banknotes due to inflation, GDP growth, replacement of soiled banknotes and reserve stock requirements.
Who decides on the quantity of coins to be minted?
The Government of India decides the quantity of coins to be minted on the basis of indents received from the Reserve Bank.  
How does the Reserve Bank estimate the demand for banknotes?
The Reserve Bank estimates the demand for banknotes on the basis of the growth rate of the economy, the replacement demand and reserve stock requirements by using statistical models/techniques. 
How does the Reserve Bank reach the currency to people?
The Reserve Bank presently manages the currency operations through its 18 Issue offices located at Ahmedabad, Bangalore, Belapur, Bhopal, Bhubaneswar, Chandigarh, Chennai, Guwahati, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Jammu, Kanpur, Kolkata, Mumbai, Nagpur, New Delhi, Patna, Thiruvananthapuram, one sub-office at Lucknow, a currency chest at Kochi and a wide net work of currency chests. These offices receive fresh banknotes from the banknote printing presses. The Issue Offices of RBI send fresh banknote remittances to the designated branches of commercial banks.  
The Reserve Bank offices located at Hyderabad, Kolkata, Mumbai and New Delhi (Mint linked Offices) initially receive the coins from the mints. These offices then send them to the other offices of the Reserve Bank. The banknotes and rupee coins are stocked at the currency chests and small coins at the small coin depots. The bank branches receive the banknotes and coins from the Currency Chests and Small Coin Depots for further distribution among the public.
What is a currency chest?
To facilitate the distribution of banknotes and rupee coins, the Reserve Bank has authorised select branches of scheduled banks to establish Currency Chests. These are actually storehouses where banknotes and rupee coins are stocked on behalf of the Reserve Bank. As on June 30, 2006, there were 4428 Currency Chests and 4102 Small Coin Depots. The currency chest branches are expected to distribute banknotes and rupee coins to other bank branches in their area of operation.
What is a small coin depot?
Some bank branches are also authorised to establish Small Coin Depots to stock small coins. The Small Coin Depots also distribute small coins to other bank branches in their area of operation.
What happens when the banknotes and coins return from circulation?
Banknotes and coins returned from circulation are deposited at the Issue offices of the Reserve Bank. The Reserve Bank subjects these to processing, authenticates banknotes for their genuineness, segregates them into notes fit for reissue and those which are not, for cancellation. The banknotes which are fit for reissue are sent back in circulation and those which are unfit for reissue are destroyed by way of shredding after completion of examination process. Similarly, coins received back from circulation are either reissued or are sent to the Mints for melting.
From where can the general public obtain banknotes and coins?
Banknotes and coins can be obtained in exchange at any of the offices of the Reserve Bank and at all the designated branches of banks.
C) Current Issues
Is there a way to reduce dependence on cash?
Cash continues to be the predominant payment means of transactions in India. A compositional shift is underway in the form of a gradual replacement of lower denomination banknotes by higher denomination banknotes, particularly Rs.100 and Rs.500. Instruments such as cheques, credit and debit cards, electronic funds transfer are at present supplementing the use of banknotes and as the use of these gains popularity, the growth rate of the demand for currency is expected to slow down.
Steps taken to increase the supply of banknotes and coins.
Several steps have been taken to augment the supply of banknotes and coins. Some of these are:

• The existing banknote printing presses and the mints owned by the Government have been modernised.
• Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran (P) Ltd., was set up as a fully owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India on February 03, 1995.  Under its aegis   two banknote printing presses with the state-of-the-art technology, one each at Mysore (Karnataka) and Salboni (West Bengal), commenced production from June 01, 1996 and December 11, 1996, respectively.  
• To bridge the demand-supply gap, the Government had, as a one-time measure, imported banknotes, in the year 1997-98.
• Government of India had   also imported rupee coins during 2000-2003 to supplement the supply of coins from the four mints. The overall position of both banknote and coin supply is comfortable now.
• The Regional Offices of RBI launched aggressive campaigns for providing exchange facility to the members of public.

Why are Re.1, Rs.2, Rs.5 banknotes not being printed?
Volume-wise, the share of such small denomination banknotes in the total banknotes in circulation was very high   but in terms of value they constituted a very small percentage.  The average life of these banknotes was found to be less than a year. The cost of printing and servicing these banknotes was, thus, not commensurate with their life, and printing of these banknotes was, therefore, discontinued. These denominations were coinised. However, Rs.5 was re-introduced in 2001 to supplement the gap between the demand and supply of coins in this denomination. The printing of Rs.5 banknotes has been discontinued from the year 2005.
D) Soiled and Mutilated Banknotes
What are soiled, mutilated and imperfect banknotes?
(i) Soiled banknotes are banknotes, which have become dirty and limp due to excessive use. A single numbered banknote cut into two pieces but on which the number is intact is now treated as soiled banknote. A double numbered banknote cut into two pieces but on which both the numbers are intact is now treated as soiled banknote.

(ii) Mutilated banknote is a banknote, of which a portion is missing or which is composed of more than two pieces.

(iii) Imperfect banknote means any banknote, which is wholly or partially, obliterated, shrunk, washed, altered or indecipherable but does not include a mutilated banknote.
Can soiled and mutilated banknotes be exchanged for value?
Yes. Such banknotes can be exchanged for value.
Where are soiled/mutilated banknotes accepted for exchange?

All banks are authorized to accept soiled banknotes for full value. They are expected to extend the facility of exchange of soiled notes even to non-customers. All currency chest branches of commercial banks are authorised to adjudicate mutilated banknotes and pay value for these, in terms of the Reserve Bank of India (Note Refund) Rules, 2009
How much value would one get in exchange of soiled banknotes?
Soiled banknotes are exchanged for full value.
How much value would one get in exchange of mutilated banknotes?
A mutilated banknote can be exchanged for full value if,
(i) For denominations of Re. 1, Rs. 2, Rs. 5, Rs. 10 and Rs. 20, the area of the single largest undivided piece of the note presented is more than 50 percent of the area of respective denomination, rounded off to the next complete square centimeter.
(ii) For denominations of Rs. 50, Rs.100, Rs. 500 and Rs. 1000, the area of the single largest undivided piece of the note presented is more than 65 percent of the area of respective denomination, rounded off to the next complete square centimetre.
Banknotes in denominations of Re. 1, Rs. 2, Rs. 5, Rs. 10 and Rs. 20, cannot be exchanged for half value.
A mutilated banknote in denominations of Rs.50, Rs.100, Rs.500 or Rs.1000, can be exchanged for half value if,
The undivided area of the single largest piece of the note presented is equal to or more than 40 percent and less than or equal to 65 percent of the area of respective denomination, rounded off to the next complete square centimetre. How much value would one get in exchange of imperfect banknotes?
The value of an imperfect note may be paid for full value / half value under rules as specified for mutilated notes if,

(i) the matter, which is printed on the note has not become totally illegible, and
(ii) it can be satisfied that it is a genuine note.
What types of banknotes are not eligible for payment under the Note Refund Rules?
The following banknotes are not payable under the Reserve Bank of India (Note Refund) Rules 2009.
A banknote for which:

• the area of single largest undivided piece of note presented is less than or equal to 50% of area of the note for denominations of Re. 1, Rs. 2, Rs. 5, Rs. 10 and Rs. 20.
  
  
• the area of the single largest undivided piece of the note is less than 40 percent for denominations of Rs.50, Rs. 100, Rs. 500 and Rs. 1000.

A banknote which:

• cannot be identified with certainty  as a  genuine note for which the Bank is liable under the Act,

• has been made imperfect or mutilated, thereby causing the note to appear to be of a higher denomination, or has been deliberately cut, torn, defaced, altered or dealt with in any other manner, not necessarily by the claimants, enabling the use of the same for making of a false claim under these rules or  otherwise to defraud the Bank or the public,
  
  
• carries any extrinsic words or visible representations intended to convey or capable of conveying any message of a political or religious character or furthering the interest of any person or entity,

has been imported into India by the claimant from any place outside India in contravention of the provision of any law.
What if a banknote is found to be non-payable?
Non-payable banknotes are retained by the receiving banks and sent to the Reserve Bank where they are destroyed.
E) Banknotes since Independence.

1. Ashoka Pillar Banknotes:
The first banknote issued by independent India was the one rupee note issued in 1949.  While retaining the same designs the new banknotes were issued with the symbol of Lion Capital of Ashoka Pillar at Sarnath in the watermark window in place of the portrait of King George. The name of the issuer, the denomination and the guarantee clause were printed in Hindi on the new banknotes from the year 1951.  The banknotes in the denomination of Rs.1000, Rs.5000 and Rs.10000 were issued in the year 1954.  Banknotes in Ashoka Pillar watermark Series, in Rs.10 denomination were issued between 1967 and 1992, Rs.20 denomination in 1972 and 1975, Rs.50 in 1975 and 1981, and Rs.100 between 1967-1979. These banknotes are still found in circulation.   The banknotes issued during the above period, contained the symbols representing science and technology, progress, orientation to Indian Art forms.  In the year 1980, the legend "Satyameva Jayate", i.e., truth alone shall prevail was incorporated under the national emblem for the first time.  To contain the volume of banknotes in circulation, Rs.500, banknote was introduced in October 1987 with the portrait of Mahatma Gandhi and the Ashoka Pillar watermark. 
2. Mahtma Gandhi (MG) Series 1996

The banknotes in MG Series – 1996 are available   in the denomination of Rs.5, (introduced in November 2001) Rs.10 (13-06-1996), Rs.20 (24-08-2001), Rs.50 (14-03-1997), Rs.100 (04-06-1996), Rs.500 (20-10.1997) and Rs.1000 (November 2000).  All the banknotes of this series bear the portrait of Mahatma Gandhi on the obverse (front) side, in place of symbol of Lion Capital of Ashoka Pillar, which has also been retained and shifted on the same side. This means that these banknotes contain Mahatma Gandhi watermark as well as Mahatma Gandhi's portrait.

Important Parliamentary Terms

(1) "Act"--A Bill passed by both  Houses of Parliament and assented to by the President.

(2) “Ad hoc Committee”- A Committee constituted by the House or by the Chairman or by the presiding officers of both the Houses jointly to consider and report on specific matter and becomes functus officio as soon as the task is completed.

(3) "Adjournment of Debate"--Adjournment on a motion adopted by the House, of the debate on a Motion/Resolution/Bill on which the House is then engaged until a future day or sine die as specified in the motion.
(4) "Adjournment of the sitting of the House"- Termination of the sitting of the House which meets again at the time appointed for the next sitting.

(5) "Adjournment sine die"-Termination of a sitting of the House without any definite date being fixed for the next sitting.

(6) "Appropriation Bill"-  A Money Bill passed annually (or at various times of the year) providing for the withdrawal or appropriation from and out of the Consolidated Fund of India, of moneys, voted by  Lok Sabha and moneys charged on the Consolidated Fund for the services of a financial year or a part of a financial year.

(7) “Ballot”- A process to determine inter se priority of more than one notice through a draw of lot.

(8) "Bill"--The draft of a legislative proposal put in the proper form which, when passed by both Houses of Parliament and assented to by the President becomes an Act.

(9) "Budget"-Annual financial statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India in respect of a financial year. The Budget is laid in Rajya Sabha in two parts viz., the Railway Budget and the General Budget.

(10) "Bulletin"-Bulletin means the Bulletin of  Rajya Sabha. It is published in two parts. Part I contains a brief record of the proceedings of the House at each of its sittings; and Part II contains information on any matter relating to or connected with the business of the House or Committees or other matter which in the opinion of the Chairman may be included therein.

(11) "Calendar of Sittings"- A calendar showing the provisional days on which Rajya Sabha is to sit and the nature of business to be transacted by it on those days.

(12)  “Calling Attention” –  A procedure whereby a Member calls the attention of a Minister to a matter of urgent public importance , the  Minister makes a brief statement thereon and thereafter the Members seek clarifications.

(13) "Casting Vote"-The vote cast by the Chairman, or a Member acting as such in the House and by the Chairman or a Member acting as such in a Committee, in the case of an equality of votes on a matter.

(14) "Crossing the floor"--Passing between the member addressing the House and the Chair which is considered breach of Parliamentary etiquette.

(15) “Demand for Grants”-Earmarking of budgetary allocation for meeting the plan and non-plan expenditure of a Ministry/Department.

 (16) "Division"-The mode of arriving at a decision on a proposed measure or question before the House by recording votes for or against it.

(17) "Draw of lot" - A method applied to determine the relative precedence of private members' Bills and Resolutions, notices of questions, half-an-hour discussions or any other notice given by more than one member simultaneously for being taken up on the same day.

(18) "Expunction"-Deletion of words, phrases or expressions from the proceedings or records of  Rajya Sabha by an order of the Chairman for being defamatory or indecent or unparliamentary or undignified.

(19) "Finance Bill"-A Bill ordinarily introduced every year to give effect to the financial proposals of the Government of India for the following financial year and includes a Bill to give effect to supplementary financial proposals for any period.

 (20) "Financial Business" – The financial business of the House consists of the laying of the Railway and General Budgets and statements of supplementary Demands for Grants on the Table after they are presented to the Lok Sabha, general discussion on the General and Railway Budgets, consideration and return of connected Appropriate Bills and Finance Bills, laying of Budges, etc. of States which are under the President’s Rule.

(21) "Gazette"-The Gazette of India.

(22) “Half-an-Hour Discussion”-A Member with the permission of the Chairman may raise a discussion on a matter of sufficient public importance which has been the subject of a recent oral or written question and the answer to which needs elucidation on a matter of fact.

 (23) "Leader of the Council"-The Prime Minister, if he is a member of the Council or a Minister who is a member of the Council  and is nominated by the Prime Minister to function as the Leader of the Council.
(24) "Leader of the Opposition"-A Member of the House, who is, for the time being, the leader in that House of the Party in opposition to the Government having the greatest numerical strength and recognised as such by the Chairman.

(25) “Leave of absence”-A member wishing to obtain permission of the House for remaining absent from its sittings is required to make an application stating the reasons and the  period for which he may be permitted to be absent from the sittings of the House.

(26) "Legislative Business" – Introduction, consideration and passing of a bill, piloted by a Minister or a Private Member, in the House.

(27) "List of Business"- A list of items of business scheduled to be taken up in Rajya Sabha on a particular day of the sittings in the order in which they stand on it.
 
(28) "Lobby"-The covered corridor immediately adjoining the Chamber and co-terminus with it.

 (29) "Maiden Speech"-The first speech of a member after his election/nomination to the Rajya Sabha in the House.

(30) “Matters raised with permission”- Immediately after the Question Hour and laying of papers, a Member may raise an issue of urgent public importance with the prior permission of the Chairman.

(31) "Member in charge of the Bill"-The Minister/Private Member who has introduced the government/Private Members’ Bill.

(32) "Memorandum of business" – It is meant for the use of the Chair to help him while calling the items listed in the Agenda paper of the day.

(33) "Message"-A communication from the President to a House or Houses of Parliament under articles 86(2) and 111 of the Constitution and a communication sent from one House of Parliament to the other House.

 (34) "Motion"-A  formal proposal made to the House by a Minister or a member that the House do something, order something to be done or express an opinion with regard to some matter, and is so phrased that, if  adopted, it will purport to express the judgment or will of the House.

(35) "Motion of Thanks"-A formal motion moved in the House, expressing its gratitude to the President for the Address delivered by him/her under article 87(1) of the Constitution to both Houses of Parliament assembled together.

(36) "Naming a Member"-The drawing of attention of the House by the Chairman to the conduct of a member who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the Rules of the House by persistently and willfully obstructing the business thereof, with a view to action being taken to suspend him from the service of the House for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session.

 (37) "Ordinance"-A law made by the President in exercise of the powers vested in him under article 123 of the Constitution.

(38) "Panel of Vice-Chairmen"- A panel of six members of  Rajya Sabha nominated by the Chairman, any one of whom may preside over the House in the absence of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman when so requested by the Chairman, or in his absence, by the Deputy Chairman.

(39) "Papers laid on the Table"-The papers or documents laid on the Table of the House for purpose of bringing them on the record of the House by a Minister or by a private member or by the Secretary-General with the permission of the Chairman in pursuance of the provisions of the Constitution or the Rules of Procedure of Rajya Sabha or an Act of Parliament and the Rules and Regulations made thereunder.

(40) "Personal explanation" -  A Member or a Minister against whom comments or criticism of a personal nature are made on the floor of the House is entitled to make, with the consent of the Chairman, personal explanation in his defence.

(41) "Point of Order"- A point relating to the interpretation or enforcement of the Rules of Procedure or such articles of the Constitution as regulate the business of the House raised in the House and submitted for the decision of the Chair.

(42) "Precincts of Rajya Sabha"-This includes the Chamber, the Lobbies, the Galleries and such other places as the Chairman may from time to time specify.

(43) “Private Members’ Resolution”- A resolution, on a matter of general public interest, a Member, other than a Minister, on a day allotted for Private Members Resolutions which is in the form of a declaration of opinion by the House or in such other form as the Chairman may consider appropriate.

(44) "Prorogation"-The termination of a session of  Rajya Sabha by an order made by the President under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution.

(45) "Putting the Question"-When debate on a question is closed, the Chairman, rising from the Chair, states or reads the question to the House, beginning with "The question is, that".

(46) "Question Chart"-A chart circulated to members, along with the Summons for a Session, which indicates the dates for answering questions and the last date for receiving notices of questions pertaining to various Ministries/ Departments.

(47) "Question Hour"-The first hour of a sitting of the House allotted for asking and answering of questions.

(48) "Question of Privilege"-A question involving a breach of privilege either of a member or of the House or of a Committee thereof or a contempt of the House.

(49) "Quorum"-The minimum number of members required to be present at a sitting of the House or a Committee for valid transaction of its business, which is one-tenth of the total number of members of the House, as provided under article 100(3) of the Constitution.

(50) "Rajya Sabha debate" – A verbatim record of everything said in the House is reported by the official Reporter for each of the sittings of the Rajya Sabha, except certain words, phrases and expression, if any, ordered by the Chair to be expunged or ordered by the Chairman not to be recorded, when Members speak without his permissions.

(51) "Roll of Members"-A register in which newly elected members sign, after making and subscribing the oath or affirmation and before taking their seats for the first time in the House.

(52) "Session"-A session of  Rajya Sabha comprises the period commencing from the date and time mentioned in the order of the President summoning  Rajya Sabha and ending with the day on which the President prorogues Rajya Sabha.

(53) “Short Duration Discussion”-For raising a discussion on a matter of urgent public importance for which a notice has to be given by a Member supported by two other Members specifying clearly and precisely the matter to be raised.

(54) "Short Notice Question"-A question relating to a matter of urgent public importance asked for oral answer by a Member with shorter notice than fifteen clear days by giving the reasons for asking the question with short notice.

(55) "Sitting of the House"-A sitting of the House is duly constituted when it is presided over by the Chairman or a member competent to preside over a sitting of the House  under the Constitution or the Rules of Procedure of  Rajya Sabha.

(56) “Special Mention”-A procedure available to a Member who wishes  to mention a matter of public importance in the House by reading out from the text not exceeding 250 words.

(57) “Standing Committee”- Committee constituted by election  by the House or nomination by the Chairman every year or from time to time which are permanent in nature.

(58) "Starred Question"-A question to which a member wishes to have an oral answer on the floor of the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk.

(59) "Statutory Resolution"-A resolution in pursuance of a provision in the Constitution or an Act of Parliament.

(60) "Subordinate Legislation"--Rules, regulations, orders, schemes, bye-laws,  etc. having the force of law, framed by the Executive or other subordinate authority in pursuance of the power conferred on it by the Constitution or delegated to it by an Act of Parliament.

(61) "Summons"--An official communication issued by the Secretary-General of  Rajya Sabha under the orders of the President to the Members of Rajya Sabha informing them of the place, date and time of the commencement of a session of Rajya Sabha.

(62) "Supplementary question" – A Question asked by any member when called by the Chairman for the purpose of further elucidating any matter of fact regarding which an answer has been given during the question hour.

(63) "Table of the House"--The Table just in front of the desk of the Secretary-General below the Chairman's Chair, on which papers which are required to be laid on the Table of the House, are deemed to be placed.

(64) "Unstarred Question"--A question which is not called for oral answer in the House and the  written answer to such a question is deemed to have been laid on the Table.

(65) “Valedictory remarks”-It is customary in every Session for the Chair to make the  Valedictory remarks at the end of Session thanking Members and leaders of parties and groups for their cooperation in the conduct of business of the House.

 (66) "Whips" – Members drawn from the party in power and the parties/groups in opposition to perform specified functions and form vital links in the internal organization of a party inside Parliament.

MPPSC Exam Solved Paper 2011

PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
 
1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as “the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
(Ans) : (B)

2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
(Ans) : (B)

3. ‘Good Governance’ and ‘Participating Civil Society for Development’ were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
(Ans) : (A)

4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
(Ans) : (B)

5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
(Ans) : (B)

6. By whom was the ‘Managerial Grid’ developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
(Ans) : (C)

7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
(Ans) : (C)

8. The concept of the ‘zone of indifference’ is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
(Ans) : (C)

9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of ‘circular response’ ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
(Ans) : (B)

10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
(Ans) : (C)

11. Who wrote the book ‘Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective’ ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
(Ans) : (A)

12. Who rejected the principles of administration as ‘myths’ and ‘proverbs’ ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
(Ans) : (B)

13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
(Ans) : (B)

14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
(Ans) : (B)

15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
(Ans) : (B)

16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
(Ans) : (A)

17. ‘Job loading’ means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (B)

18. The theory of ‘Prismatic Society’ in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
(Ans) : (C)

19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
(Ans) : (A)

20. Which of the following is not included in ‘hygiene’ factors in the Herzberg’s two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company’s policy
(D) Responsibility
(Ans) : (D)

21. The ‘Gang-Plank’ refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
(Ans) : (D)

22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
(Ans) : (C)

23. Henry Fayol’s General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
(Ans) : (B)

24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
(Ans) : (D)

25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
(Ans) : (C)

26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
(Ans) : (C)

27. The principle of ‘span of control’ means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
(Ans) : (B)

28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
(Ans) : (D)

29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
(Ans) : (D)

30. In hierarchy, the term ‘scalar’ means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
(Ans) : (B)

31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
(Ans) : (D)

32. One who tells one’s supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
(Ans) : (A)

33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
(Ans) : (B)

34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
(Ans) : (C)

35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
(Ans) : (C)

36. The most effective means of citizen’s control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
(Ans) : (A)

37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
(Ans) : (D)

38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
(Ans) : (C)

39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (A)

40. ‘Habeas Corpus’ literally me(Ans)—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (A)

41. The system of ‘Rule of Law’ was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
(Ans) : (A)

42. Who says that “Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
(Ans) : (C)

43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
(Ans) : (B)

44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
(Ans) : (B)

45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
(Ans) : (B)

46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
(Ans) : (C)

47. ‘Grand Corps’ in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
(Ans) : (C)

48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
(Ans) : (D)

49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
(Ans) : (B)

50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
(Ans) : (A)

51. The term ‘Performance Budget’ was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
(Ans) : (D)

52. During passing of budget in the Parliament ‘Guilotine’ is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
(Ans) : (D)

53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
(Ans) : (B)

54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
(Ans) : (D)

55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
(Ans) : (A)

56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
(Ans) : (A)

57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
(Ans) : (A)

58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
(Ans) : (A)

59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
(Ans) : (B)

60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(Ans) : (A)

GENERAL STUDIES PRACTICE PAPER

1. Consider the following statements:

1.Most magmas are a combination of liquid, solid and gas.
2.Water vapour and carbon dioxide are the principal gases dissolved in magma.
3.Basaltic magma is hotter than the silicic magma.
4.The magma solidified between sedimentary rocks in a horizontal position is known as dike.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

2. Consider the following schemes launched by the Union Government:
1. Antyodaya Anna
2. Gram Sadak Yojana
3. Sarvapriya
4. Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana
Which of these were announced in the year 2000?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

3. Match List I with List Ii and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Books)	List II (Author)
A. The Struggle in My Life	1. Lech Walesa
B. The Struggle and the Triumph	2. Nelson Mandela
C. Friends and Foes	3. Leonid Brezhnev
D. Rebirth	4. Zulfikar Ali Bhutto
	5. Sheikh Mujibur Rehman

Codes:

(a) A B C D 1 2 5 3

(b) A B C D 2 1 5 3

(c) A B C D 1 2 3 4

(d) A B C D 2 1 3 4

4. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in increasing order of molecular weights of the hydrocarbons?
(a) Methane, ethane, propane and butane
(b) Propane, butane, ethane and methane
(c) Butane, ethane, propane and methane
(d) Butane, propane, ethane and methane

5. Which organelle in the Cell, other than nucleus, contains DNA?
(a) Centriole
(b) Golgi apparatus
(c) Lysosome
(d) Mitochondrion

6. Hoysala monuments are found in
(a) Hampi and Hospet
(b) Halebid and Belur
(c) Mysore and Bangalore
(d) Sringeri and Dharwar

7. Consider the following statements regarding the earthquakes:
1. The intensity of earthquake is measured on Mercalli Scale.
2. The magnitude of an earthquake is a measure of energy released.
3. Earthquake magnitudes are based on direct measurements of the amplitude of seismic waves.
4. In the Richter Scale, each whole number demonstrates a hundredfold increase in the amount of energy released.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

8. Match List 1 with List Ii and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Achievement in genetics)	List II (Scientists)
A. Discovery of Transduction and Conjugation in bacteria	1. Khurana
B. Establishing the Sex-linked Inheritance	2. Kornberg
C. Isolation of DNA polymerase from E. Coli	3. Lederberg
D. Establishing the complete genetic code	4. Morgan
	5. Ochoa

Codes:

(a) A B C D 4 3 2 1

(b) A B C D 3 4 1 5

(c) A B C D 4 3 1 5

(d) A B C D 3 4 2 1

9. Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every state to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?
(a) Article 349 (b) Article 350
(c) Article 350A (d) Article 351

10. “Athlete’s Foot” is a disease caused by
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungus
(c) Protozoan (d) Nematode

11. In the eye donation, which part of the eye is transplanted from the donor?
(a) Cornea (b) Lens
(c) Retina (d) The whole eye

12. Who among the following Indian rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines?
(a) Haider Ali (b) Mir Qasim
(c) Shah Alam II (d) Tipu Sultan
13. A great landslide caused by an earthquake killed hundreds of people in January 2001 near
(a) San Salvador (b) San Jose
(c) Managua (d) Gautemala City

14. Most guitarists are bearded males. If a represents all males, B represents bearded males and C represents all male guitarists, then the correct diagram for their relation (shaded portion) is

15.

In the above map, the black marks show the distribution of
(a) Asbestos (b) Gypsum
(c) Limestone (d) Mica

16. Consider the following factors regarding an industry:
1. Capital investments
2. Business turnover
3. Labour force
4. Power consumption
Which of these determine the nature and size of the industry?
(a) 1, 3and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2,3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

17. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? (a) India’s first technicolour film Jhansi Ki Rani
(b) India’s first 3-D film My Dear Kuttichathan
(c) India’s first insured film Taal
(d) India’s first actress to win the Bharat Ratna Meena Kumari

18. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Dancer)	List II (Dance)
A. Kalamandalam Kshemavaty	1. Kathakali
B. Kottakkal Sivaraman	2. Manipuri
C. Lakshmi Viswanathan	3. Mohiniattam
D. N. Madhabi Devi	4. Bharatanatyam

Codes:

(a) A B C D 1 3 2 4

(b) A B C D 3 1 4 2

(c) A B C D 1 3 4 2

(d) A B C D 3 1 2 4

19. A man whose blood group is not known meets with a serious accident and needs blood transfusion immediately. Which one of the blood groups mentioned below and readily available in the hospital will be safe for transfusion? (a) O, Rh- (b) O, Rh+
(c) AB, Rh- (d) AB, Rh+
20. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I	List II
(Bhakti Saint)	(Profession)
A. Namdev	1. Barber
B. Kabir	2. Weaver
C. Ravidas	3. Tailor
D. Sena	4. Cobbler

21. Cloudy nights are warmer compared to clear cloudless nights, because clouds
(a) prevent cold waves from the sky from descending on earth
(b) reflect back the heat given off by earth
(c) produce heat and radiate it towards earth
(d) absorb heat from the atmosphere and send it towards earth

22.

In the above figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral, AB = BC and ÐBAC = 700, then Ð ADC is
(a) 40^o (b) 80^o
(c) 110^o (d) 140^o

23. Which one of the following weather conditions is indicated by a sudden fall in barometer reading? (a) Stormy weather
(b) Calm weather
(c) Cold and dry weather
(d) Hot and sunny weather

24. The most appropriate measure of a country’s economic growth is its
(a) Gross Domestic Product
(b) Net Domestic Product
(c) Net National Product
(d) Per Capita Real Income

25. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact
(a) on its own initiative
(b) only if he seeks such advice
(c) only if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights of citizens
(d) only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country

26. Falun Gong is
(a) an ethnic minority in Eastern China
(b) an insurgency outfit in Western China
(c) a pro-democracy movement in China
(d) a spiritual movement in China

27. “Metastasis” is the process by which
(a) cells divide rapidly under the influence of drugs
(b) cancer cells spread through the blood or lymphatic system to other sites or organs
(c) the chromosomes in cell nuclei are attached to the spindle before moving to the anaphase poles
(d) cancer cells are successfully inhibited to divide any further

28. The Hunter Commission was appointed after the
(a) black-hole incident
(b) Jalianwallabagh masscre
(c) Uprising of 1857
(d) Partition of Bengal

29. Who is the scientist in whose honour the “Chandra” X-ray telescope has been named?
(a) Chandrasekhar Venkat Raman
(b) Jagdish Chandra Bose
(c) Prafulla Chandra Roy
(d) Subramanyan Chandrasekhar

30. The mass of a body on earth is 100 kg (accelertion due to gravity ge = 10m/s2). If acceleration due to gravity on the moon is (ge/6), then the mass of the body on the moon is
(a) 100/6 kg (b) 60 kg
(c) 100 kg (d) 600 kg

31. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Term)	List II (Explanation)
A. Fiscal deficit	1. Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts
B. Budget deficit	2. Excess of Revenue Expenditure over Revenue Receipts
C. Revenue deficit	3. Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts less Borrowings
D.Primary deficit	4.Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipt less borrowing and interest payments

Codes:

(a) A B C D 3 1 2 4

(b) A B C D 4 3 2 1

(c) A B C D 1 3 2 4

(d) A B C D 3 1 4 2

33. Consider the following organizations:
1. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
2. International Finance Corporation
3. International Fund for Agricultural Development
4. International Monetary Fund
Which of these are agencies of the United Nations?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

34. In an atom, the order of filling up of the orbitals is governed by
(a) Aufbau principle
(b) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(c) Hund’s rule
(d) Pauli’s exclusion principle

35. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I (Person)	List II (Achievement)
A. Deep Sen Gupta	1. India’s youngest International Master in The Sangli International Chess Tournament, 2000
B. P. Harikrishna	2. The first Indian ever to Win a gold in discuss in The World Junior Athletic Championship In Santiago, 2000
C. Seema Antil	3. Won the title in the Asian Junior Chess Tournament in Mumbai, 2000
D. Tejas bakre	4. Won the under-12 title In the World Youth Chess Festival in Oropesa, 2000

Codes:

(a) A B C D 4 3 2 1	(b) A B C D 2 4 1 3
(c) A B C D 4 1 2 3	(d) A B C D 2 1 3 4

36. Under the permanent Settlement, 1793, the Zamindars were required to issue pattas to the farmers which were not issued by many of the Zamindars. The reason was
(a) The Zamindars were trusted by the farmers
(b) There was no official check upon the Zamindars
(c) It was the responsibility of the British government
(d) The farmers were not interested in getting pattas

37. If the stars are seen to rise perpendicular to the horizon by an observer, he is located on the
(a) Equator
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) South Pole
(d) North Pole

38. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Person)	List II (Distinguished as)
A. Santosh Yadav	1. T. V. host
B. Oprah Winfrey	2. Journalist
C. Oscar Wilde	3. Mountaineer
D. P. Sainath	4. Dramatist andAuthor

Codes:

(a) A B C D 3 1 4 2

(b) A B C D 1 3 2 4

(c) A B C D 3 1 2 4

(d) A B C D 1 3 4 2

39.

In the shaded area of the above map, the mean temperature for the month of July varies between
(a) 22.5^oC-25.0^oC
(b) 25.0^oC-27.5^oC
(c) 27.5^oC-30.0^oC
(d) 30.0^oC-32.5^oC

40. The Union Budget 2000 awarded a Tax Holiday for the North-Eastern Region to promote industrialization for
(a) 5 years (b) 7 years
(c) 9 years (d) 10 years

41. Consider the following statements: 1. Arya Samaj was founded in 1835.
2. Lala Lajpat Rai opposed the appeal of Arya Samaj to the authority of Vedas in support of its social reform programmes.
3. Under Keshab Chandra Sen, the Brahmo Samaj campaigned for women’s education
4. Vinoba Bhave founded the Sarvodaya Samaj to work among refuges
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

42. An aqueous solution of copper sulphate is acidic in nature because the salt undergoes
(a) dialysis (b) electrolysis
(c) hydrolysis (d) photolysis

43. Consider the following taxes: 1. Corporation tax 2. Customs duty
3. Wealth Tax 4. Excise duty

44. The Mongols under Genghis Khan invaded India during the reign of
(a) Balban (b) Feroz Tughlaq
(c) Iltutmish (d) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

45. Consider the following statements:
A simple pendulum is set into oscillation. Then
1. the acceleration is zero when the bob passes through the mean position
2. in each cycle the bob attains a given velocity twice
3. both acceleration and velocity of the bob and zero when it reaches its extreme position during its oscillation
4. the amplitude of oscillation of the simple pendulum decreases with time
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3and 4 (c) 1,2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

46. Anand must be a vegetarian because he is a Buddhist
The argument assumes that
(a) most Buddhists are vegetarians
(b) all Buddhists are vegetarians
(c) Only Buddhists are vegetarians
(d) Most vegetarians are Buddhists

47. The high density of population in Nile Valley and Island of Java is primarily due to
(a) intensive agriculture
(b) industrialization
(c) urbanization
(d) topographic constraints

48. The largest share of Foreign Direct Investment (1997-2000) went to
(a) Food and food-product sector
(b) Engineering sector
(c) Electronics and electric equipment sector
(d) Services sector

49. Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
(a) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(b) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts
(c) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts
(d) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer

50. Consider the following statements with reference to the Periodic Table of chemical elements:
1. Ionisation potential gradually decreases along a period
2. In a group of elements, electron affinity decreases as the atomic weight increases
3. In a given period, electronegativity decreases as the atomic number increases.
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

51.Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Substance)	List II (Physiological role)
A. Ptyalin	1. Converts Angiotensinogen in Blood into angiotensin
B. Pepsin	2. Digests starch
C. Renin	3. Digests proteins
D. Oxytocin	4. Hydrolyses fats
	5.Induces contraction of smooth muscles

Codes:

(a) A B C D 2 3 1 5

(b) A B C D 3 4 2 5

(c) A B C D 2 3 5 1

(d) A B C D 3 1 2 4

52. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Harappan Civilization Painted Grey Ware
(b)The Kushans Gandhara School of Art
(c) The Mughals Ajantha Paintings
(d) The Marathas Painting Pahari School of

53. A radioactive substance has a half-life of four months. Three-fourth of the substance would decay in
(a) 3 months (b) 4 months (c) 8 months (d) 12 months

54. The following table shows the percentage change in the consumption of electricity by five towns P, Q, R, S, T from 1986 to 1988:

Per cent change
Town	From 1986 to 1987	From 1987 to 1988
P	+8	-18
Q	-15	+11
R	+6	+9
S	-7	-5
T	+13	-6

If town T consumed 500,000 units in 1986, how much did it consume in 1988?
(a) 371,000 units
(b) 531,000 units
(c) 551,100 units
(d) 571,100 units

55. Consider the following statements made about the sedimentary rocks:
1. Sedimentary rocks are formed at earth’s surface by the hydrological system
2. The formation of sedimentary rocks involves the weathering of pre-existing rocks.
3. Sedimentary rocks contain fossils
4. Sedimentary rocks typically occur in layers
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

56. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Publisher)	List II (Publication)
A. Ministry of Industry	1. Report on Currency and Finance
B. Central Statistical	2. Economic Survey Organization
C. Reserve Bank Of India	3. Wholesale Price of Index
D. Ministry of Finance	4. National Accounts Statistics

Codes:

(a) A B C D 4 3 2 1

(b) A B C D 3 4 1 2

(c) A B C D 4 3 1 2

(d) A B C D 3 4 2 1

57. Which of the following distance-time graph (x-t) represents one-dimensional uniform motion?


58. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Award/Prize)	List II (Recipient)
A. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament And Development	1. Archibishop Desmond Tutu
B. Jamnalal Bajaj Award	2. Dr. Gurudev Khush
C. International Gandhi Peace Prize	3. Dr. M. S.Swaminathan
D. Wolf Prize	4. Nelson Mandela

Codes:

(a) A B C D 1 3 4 2

(b) A B C D 3 1 4 2

(c) A B C D 1 3 2 4

(d) A B C D 3 1 2 4

59. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States

60. Epiphytes are plants, which depend on other plants for
(a) food
(b) mechanical support
(c) shade
(d) water

61. Which among the following ports was called Babul Makka (Gate of Makka) during the Mughal Period?
(a) Calicut (b) Broach (c) Cambay (d) Surat

62. A person travels from X to Y at a speed of 40 kmph and returns by increasing his speed his 50%. What is his average speed for both the trips?
(a) 36 kmph (b) 45 kmph (c) 48 kmph (d) 50 kmph

63. Volcanic eruptions do not occur in the
(a) Baltic Sea (b) Black Sea (c) Caribbean Sea (d) Caspian Sea

64. Who among the following leaders proposed to adopt Complete Independence as the goal of the Congress in the Ahmedabad session of 1920?
(a) Abdul Kalam Azad
(b) Hasrat Mohani
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi

65. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Sports women)	List II (Sport)
A. Anjali Vedpathak	1. Athletics
B. Mouma Das	2. Gymnastics
C. Neelam Singh	3. Rifle Shooting
D. Tumpa Debnath	4. Table Tennis
	5. Chess

Codes:

(a) A B C D 3 4 2 5

(b) A B C D 4 3 1 2

(c) A B C D 4 3 2 5

(d) A B C D 3 4 1 2

66. A class of animals known as Marsupials is a characteristic feature of
(a) Africa (b) Australia
(c) South America (d) South-east Asia

67. The location of the space organization units have been marked in the given map as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match these units with the list given below and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list: List
A. I.S.R.O.
B. I.I.R.S.
C. N.R.S.A.
D. S.A.C.
Codes:
(a)
A B C D
4 1 2 3

(b)
A B C D
1 4 3 2

(c)
A B C D
1 4 2 3

(d)
A B C D
4 1 3 2

68. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Dewan-i-bandagani… Tughlaq
(b) Dean-i-Mustakhraj…Balban
(c) Dewan-i-Kohi…Alauddin Khilji
(d) Dewan-i-Arz…Muhammad Tughlaq

69. Quartzite is metamorphosed from
(a) Limestone (b) Obsidian (c) Sandstone (d) Shale

70. The earlier name of WTO was
(a) UNCTAD (b) GATT (c) UNIDO (d) OECD

71. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?
(a) Through Parliamentary Committee
(b) Through Consultative Committees of various ministries
(c) By making the administrators send periodic reports
(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs

72. Antigen is a substance which
(a) destroys harmful bacteria
(b) is used to treat poisoning
(c) lowers body temperature
(d) stimulates formation of antibody
73. Who among the following organized the famous Chittagong armoury raid?
(a) Laxmi Sehgal
(b) Surya Sen
(c) Batukeshwar Datta
(d) J. M. Sengupta

74. Solve the given equations:
x²+y²=34
x⁴-y²=544
The values of x and y are
(a) ±4, ±3 (b) ±5, ±3 (c) ±3, ±5 (d) ±3, ±4

75. Consider the decadal Census data given below:
Decadal population (in millions):

Year	Population
1961	10.7
1971	14.3
1981	16.2
1991	18.9

The above data refers to which one of the ‘Population of Religion’ Groups?
(a) Sikhs (b) Jains (c) Christians (d) Buddhists

76. Which of the following committees examined and suggested Financial Sector reforms?
(a) Abid Hussain Committee
(b) Bhagwati Committee
(c) Chelliah Committee
(d) Narasimaham Committee

77. In which one of the following cities is the Lingaraja Temple located?
(a) Bhubaneswar
(b) Bijapur
(c) Kolkata
(d) Shravanabelagola

78. A worker reaches his factory 3 minutes late if his speed from his house to the factory is 5 km/hr. If he walks at a speed of 6 km/hr, then he reaches the factory 7 minutes early. The distance of the factory from his house is:
(a) 4 km (b) 5 km (c) 6 km (d) 7 km

79. A London branch of the All India Muslim League was established in 1908 under the presidency of
(a) Aga Khan (b) Ammer Ali (c) Liaquat Ali Khan (d) M. A. Jinnah

80. Which of the following features of DNA makes it uniquely suited to store and transmit genetic information from generation to generation?
(a) Complementarity of the two strands
(b) Double helix
(c) Number of base-pairs per turn
(d) Sugar-phosphate backbone

81. Two wires have their lengths, diameters and resistivities, all in the ratio of 1:2. If the resistance of the thinner wire is 10 ohms, the resistance of the thicker wire is
(a) 5 ohms (b) 10 ohms (c) 20 ohms (d) 40 ohms

82.

The above map is the Union Territory of
(a) Chandigarh (b) Daman and Diu (c) Dadra Na Nagar Haveli (d) Pondicherry

83. Identify the correct order of the processes of soil-erosion from the following:
(a) Splash erosion, Sheet erosion, Rill erosion, Gully erosion
(b) Sheet erosion, Splash erosion, Gully erosion, Rill erosion
(c) Rill erosion, Gully erosion, Sheet erosion, Splash erosion
(d) Gully erosion, Rill erosion, Sheet erosion, Splash erosion

84. The new series of Wholesale Price Index (WPI) released by the Government of India is with reference to the base prices of
(a) 1981-82 (b) 1990-91 (c) 1993-94 (d) 1994-95
85. The Chess player Alexi Shirov represents
(a) Albania (b) Kazhakstan (c) Russia (d) Spain

86. Consider the following organizations:
1. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research & Exploration
2. Heavy Water Board
3. Indian Rare Earths Limited
4. Uranium Corporation of India
Which of these is/are under the Department of Atomic Energy?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

87. Who among the following, was the President of the All-India States ‘Peoples’ Conference in 1939?
(a) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Sheikh Abdullah
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

88. Consider the following statements about the minorities in India:
(a) The Government of India has notified five communities, namely, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists and Zoroastrians as Minorities.
(b) The National Commission for Minorities was given statutory status in 1993.
(c) The smallest religious minority in India are the Zoroastrians.
(d) The Constitution of India recognizes and protects religious and linguistic minorities.
Which of these is/are under the Department of Atomic Energy?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

89. The temperature and rainfall of a meteorological station are given below:

Months	J	F	M	A	M	J	J	A	S	O	N	D
Temperature (0C)	9.4	10.6	11.7	12.2	13.3	13.9	13.9	14.4	15.6	15.0	13.3	10.6
Rainfall (cm)	12.2	9.1	7.9	2.5	1.8	0.3	-	-	0.8	2.5	6.1	11.7

Average Temperature: 12.8 ⁰C
Average Rainfall: 54.9 cm per annum
Identify the region having the above climatic pattern from amongst the following:
(a) Mediterranean region
(b) Monsoon region
(c) Steppe region
(d) N. W. European region

90. The theme of the World Development Report 2001, is
(a) From Plan to Market
(b) Knowledge for Development
(c) Attacking Poverty
(d) The State in the Changing World

91. Which of the following cell organelles play the most significant role in protein synthesis?
(a) Lysosome and Centrosome
(b) Ednoplasmic reticulum and Ribosome
(c) Golgi apparatus and Mitochondria
(d) Lysosome and Mitochondria

92. In which one of the following areas does the State Government NOT have control over its local bodies?
(a) Citizens’ grievances
(b) Financial matters
(c) Legislation
(d) Personnel matters

93. A conveyer belt delivers baggage at the rate of 3 tons in 5 minutes, and a second conveyer belt delivers baggage at the rate of 1 ton in 2 minutes. How much time will it take to get 33 tons of baggage delivered using both the conveyer belts?
(a) 25 minutes and 30 seconds
(b) 30 minutes
(c) 35 minutes
(d) 40 minutes and 45 seconds

94. Who amongst the following Englishmen, first translated Bhagavad-Gita into English?
(a) William Jones
(b) Charles Wilkins
(c) Alexander Cunningham
(d) Johan Marshall

95. Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India:
1. There are eighteen High Courts in the country.
2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one state.
3. No Union Territory has a High Court of its own.
4. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 4 only
96. The term national Income represents:
(a) Gross national product at market prices minus depreciation
(b) Gross National product at market prices minus depreciation plus net factor income from abroad
(c) Gross national product at market prices minus depreciation and indirect taxes plus subsidies
(d) Gross national product at market prices minus net factor income from abroad

97. Mat the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Local Wind)	List II (Region)
A. Fohn	1. Argentina
B. Samun	2. Kurdistan
C. Santa Ana	3. California
D. Zonda	4. Alps

Codes:

(a) A B C D 2 4 1 3

(b) A B C D 4 2 3 1

(c) A B C D 2 4 3 1

(d) A B C D 4 2 1 3

98. The given map shows four tows of Central Asian region marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Identify these from the following list and select the correct answer using the codes given below: Towns: A. Bishkek B. Ashkhabad C. Tashkent D. Dushanbe

Codes:

(a) A B C D 3 1 2 4

(b) A B C D 3 1 4 2

(c) A B C D 1 3 2 4

(d) A B C D 1 3 4 2

99. Mekong Ganga co-operation project is
(a) an irrigation project involving India and Myanmar
(b) a joint tourism initiative of some Asian countries
(c) a hydroelectric power project involving India, Bangladesh and Myanmar
(d) a defence and security agreement of India with its eastern neighbours

100. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Amendments to the Constitution)	(Contents)
A. The Constitution (sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991	1. Establishment of state level Rent Tribunals
B. The Constitution (Seventy-fifth Amendment) Act, 1994	2. No reservations for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh
C. The Constitution (Eightieth Amendment)Act, 2000	3. Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or at other local levels
D. The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2000	4. Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission
	5.According the Status of National Capital Territory to Delhi

Codes:

(a) A B C D 5 1 4 2

(b) A B C D 1 5 3 4

(c) A B C D 5 1 3 4

(d) A B C D 1 5 4 2

101. Water is filled in a container in such a manner that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the container to be full, in how much time will it be one-fourth full?
(a) 7 minutes and 30 seconds
(b) 10 minutes
(c) 20 minutes
(d) 25 minutes

102. The largest number of Buddhists is found in
(a) Bihar (b) Karnataka (c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh

103. Who amongst the following was the Chairman of I.S.R.O. when INSAT-3B was launched?
(a) Anil Kakodkar (b) Abdul Kalam (c) K. Kasturirangan (d) U. R. Rao

Directions: The following 12 (twelve) items consist of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Assertion A’ and the other as ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the ‘Assertion A’ and the ‘Reason R’ are individually true and if so, whether the ‘Reason R’ is the correct explanation for the given ‘Assertion A’. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your Answer Sheet accordingly:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

104. Assertion (A): The Battle of Khanua was certainly more decisive and significant than the First Battle of Panipat.
Reason (R): Rana Sanga, the Rajput hero, was certainly a more formidable adversary than Ibrahim Lodi.

105. Assertion (A): Anticyclonic conditions are formed in winter season when atmospheric pressure is high and air temperatures are low.
Reason (R): Winter rainfall in Northern India causes development of anticyclonic conditions with low temperatures.

106. Assertion (A): Harshavardhana convened the Prayag Assembly.
Reason (R): He wanted to popularize only the Mahayana form of Buddhism.

107. Assertion (A): A stick is dipped in water in a slanting position. If observed sideways, the stick appears short and bent at the surface of water.
Reason (R): The light coming from the stick undergoes scattering from water molecules giving the stick a short and bent appearance.

108. Assertion (A): There was an increase in industrial production during 1999-2000.
Reason (R): The period witnessed a stable exchange rate and improved business sentiments.

109. Assertion (A): A piece of copper and a piece of glass are heated to the same temperature. When touched, thereafter, the copper piece appears hotter than the glass piece.
Reason (R): The density of copper is more than that of glass.

110. Assertion (A): India’s software exports increased at an average growth rate of 50% since 1995-96.
Reason (R): Indian software companies were cost-effective and maintained international quality.

111. Assertion (A): A chemical reaction becomes faster at higher temperatures.
Reason (R): At higher temperatures, molecular motion becomes more rapid.

112. Assertion (A): Ceiling on foreign exchange for a host of current account transaction heads was lowered in the year 2000.
Reason (R): There was a fall in foreign currency assets also.

113. Assertion (A): The boiling point of water decreases as the altitude increases.
Reason (R): The atmospheric pressure increases with altitude.
114. Assertion (A): Scientists can cut apart and paste together DNA molecules at will, regardless of the source of the molecules.
Reason (R): DNA fragments can be manipulated using restriction endonucleases and DNA ligases.
115. Assertion (A): During the Neap Tides, the high tide is lower and the low tide is higher than usual.
Reason (R): The Neap Tide, unlike the Spring Tide, occurs on the New Moon instead of on the Full Moon.
116. The price at which the government purchases food grains for maintaining the public distribution system and for building up buffer-stocks is known as
(a) minimum support prices (b) procurement prices (c) issue prices (d) ceiling prices
117. The theme of Indian Science Congress, 2001 was
(a) “Food, nutrition and environmental security”
(b) “Arrest declining interest in pure sciences”
(c) “Make India energy self-sufficient”
(d) “Make India I. T. Superpower”
118. A city has a population of 3,00,000 out of which 1,80,000 are males. 50% of the population is literate. If 70% of the males are literate, the number of literate females is
(a) 24,000 (b) 30,000 (c) 54,000 (d) 60,000
119. Consider the following statements regarding environmental issues of India:
1. Gulf of Mannar is one of the biosphere reserves.
2. The Ganga Action Plan, phase II has been merged with the National River Conservation Plan.
3. The National Museum of Natural History at New Delhi imparts non-formal education in environment and conservation.
4. Environmental Information System (ENVIS) acts as a decentralized information network for environmental information.

120. Which one of the following is NOT radioactive?
(a) Astatine (b) Francium (c) Tritium (d) Zirconium
121. The American multinational company, Monsanto has produced in an insect-resistant cotton variety that is undergoing field-trials in India. A toxin gene from which ONE of the following bacteria has been transferred to this transgenic cotton?
(a) Bacillus subtilis (b) Bacillus thurigiensis (c) Bacillus amyloliquifanciens (d) Bacillus globlii

122. Which one of the Chola kings conquered Ceylon?
(a) Aditya I (b) Rajaraja I (c) Rejendra (d) Vijayalaya

123. When lightwaves pass from air to glass, the variables affected are
(a) Wavelength, frequency and velocity
(b) Velocity and frequency
(c) Wavelength and frequency
(d) Wavelength and velocity

124. In a survey, it was found that 80% of those surveyed owned a car while 60% of those surveyed owned a mobile phone. If 55% owned both a car and a mobile phone, what per cent of those surveyed owned a car or a mobile phone or both?
(a) 65% (b) 80% (c) 85% (d) 97.5%

125. Consider the following statements regarding the Armed Forces:
1. First batch of women pilots was commissioned in Indian Air Force in 1996.
2. Officers’ Training Academy is located in Nagpur.
3. Southern Command of Indian Navy has its Headquarters at Chennai.
4. One of the Regional Headquarters of Coast Guard is located at Port Blair.

126. Consider the following statements regarding power sector in India:
1. The installed capacity of power generation is around 95000 MW.
2. Nuclear plants contribute nearly 15% of total power generation.
3. Hydroelectricity plants contribute nearly 40% of total power generation.
4. Thermal plants at present account for nearly 80% of total power generation.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

127. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the Constitution must be amended?
(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fifth

128. When water is heated from 00C to 100C, its volume
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) does not change (d) first decreases and then increases

129. The cellular and molecular control of programmed cell death is known as
(a) Apoptosis (b) Ageing (c) Degeneration (d) Necrosis
130. National Agricultural Insurance Scheme replacing Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme was introduced in the year
(a) 1997 (b) 1998 (c) 1999 (d) 2000

131. Who among the following presided over the Buddhist Council held during the region of Kanishka at Kashmir?
(a) Parsva (b) Nagarjuna (c) Sudraka (d) Vasumitra

132. Consider the following statements:
In a nuclear reactor, self-sustained chain reaction is possible, because
1. more neutron are released in each of the fission reactions.
2. the neutrons immediately take part in the fission process.
3. the fast neutrons are slowed down by Graphite.
4. every neutron released in the fission reaction initiates further fission.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

133. In 1930, a person’s age was 8 times that of his son. In 1938, the father’s age became ten times that of his son’s age in 1930. The ages of the son and father in 1940 were, respectively.

(a) 16 years, 58 years
(b) 15 years, 50 years
(c) 14 years, 42 years
(d) 13 years, 34 years

134. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Country)	List II (President)
A. Columbia	1. Vicente Fox
B. Philippines	2. Hugo Chavez
C. Mexico Arroya	3. Gloria Macapagal
D. Venezuela	4. Andres Pastrana

Codes:

(a) A B C D 4 3 2 1

(b) A B C D 3 4 2 1

(c) A B C D 4 3 1 2

(d) A B C D 3 4 1 2

135.

The annual agricultural production of a product for the period 1991-92 to 1998-99 is shown in the figure given above. Which one of the following is the product in question?

(a) Pulses (b) Wheat (c) Oilseeds (d) Rice

136. Consider the following states:
1. Gujarat 2. Kanataka 3. Maharashtra 4. Tamil Nadu
The descending order of these states with reference to their level of Per Capita Net State Domestic Product is
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2

137. Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India:
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political parties.
2. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission.
3. A national level political party is one which is recognized in four or more states.
4. During the 1999 general elections, there were six national and 48 state level parties recognized by the Election Commission.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

138. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Institute)	List II (Location)
A. Central Institute Of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants	1. Chandigarh
B. Centre for DNA Finger Printing And Diagnostics	2. Hyderabad
C. Institute of Microbial Technology	3. New Delhi
D. National Institute Of Immunology	4. Lucknow

Codes:

(a) A B C D 2 4 1 3

(b) A B C D 4 2 1 3

(c) A B C D 2 4 3 1

(d) A B C D 4 2 3 1

139. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Bone)	List-II (Name)
A. Breast-bone	1. Clavicle
B. Collar-bone	2. Patella
C. Knee-cap	3. Scapula
D. Shoulder blade	4. Sternum

Codes:

(a) A B C D 4 1 3 2

(b) A B C D 1 4 3 2

(c) A B C D 1 4 2 3

(d) A B C D 4 1 2 3

140. Which one of the following animals was NOT represented on the seals and terracotta art of the Harappan culture?
(a) Cow (b) Elephant (c) Rhinoceros (d) Tiger

141. The range of Agni-II missile is around
(a) 500 km (b) 2000 km (c) 3500 km (d) 5000 km

142.

A circle of 1m radius is drawn inside a square as shown in the figure given above. What is the area of the shaded portion in m2?
(a) (4 - p) (b) [1 - p/2] (c) [1/4 - p/4] (d) [1 - p/4]

143. The approximate age of the Aravallis range is
(a) 370 million years (b) 470 million years (c) 570 million years (d) 670 million years

144. Consider the following:
1. Market borrowing
2. Treasury bills
3. Special securities issued to RBI
Which of these is/are component(s) of internal debt?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 only (d) 1,2 and 3

145. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Article of the Constitution)	List-II (Content)
A. Article 54	1. Election of the President of India
B. Article 75	2. Appointment of the Prime Minister and Council of Minister
C. Article 155	3. Appointment of the Governor of a state
D. Article 164	4. Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers Of a state
	5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies

Codes:

(a) A B C D 1 2 3 4

(b) A B C D 1 2 4 5

(c) A B C D 2 1 3 5

(d) A B C D 2 1 4 3

146. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Important Day)	List II
A. World Environment Day	1. March 20
	List II (Date)
B. World Forestry Day	2. June 5
C. World Habitat Day	3. September 16
C. World Habitat Day	3. September 16
D. World Ozone Day	4. October 3
	5. December 10

Codes:

(a) A B C D 2 1 4 5

(b) A B C D 1 2 4 3

(c) A B C D 1 2 3 4

(d) A B C D 2 1 4 3

147. Consider the following statements:
1. Tapeworm is a hermaphordite.
2. Round-worm has separate sexes.
3. Filaria is caused by a nematode.
4. Guinea-worm is an annelid.
Which of these are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

148.

The shaded area in the above map shows the empire of
(a) Ala-ud-din-Khilji (b) Mohammad Tughlaq (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb

149. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I (Characteristic)	List II (Particle)
A. Zero mass	1. Position
B. Fractional Charge	2. Neutrino
C. Fractional spin	3. Quark
D. Integral spin	4. Phonon

Codes:

(a) A B C D 2 3 1 4

(b) A B C D 3 2 4 1

(c) A B C D 2 3 4 1

(d) A B C D 3 2 1 4

150. Consider the following statements regarding Reserve Bank of India:
1. It is a banker to the Central Government
2. It formulates and administers monetary policy.
3. It acts as an agent of the Government in respect of India’s membership of IMF.
4. It handles the borrowing programme of Government of India.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1,2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

ANSWERS

1. (a)	2. (d)	3. (b)	4. (a)	5. (d)	6. (b)
7. (a)	8. (d)	9. (c)	10. (b)	11. (a)	12. (d)
13. (a)	14. (a)	15. (c)	16. (a)	17. (d)	18. (b)
19. (a)	20. (b)	21. (b)	22. (d)	23. (a)	24. (a)
25. (b)	26. (d)	27. (b)	28. (b)	29. (d)	30. (c)
31. (a)	32. (a)	33. (d)	34. (a)	35. (c)	36. (b)
37. (a)	38. (a)	39 (b)	40. (d)	41. (d)	42. (c)
43. (b)	44. (c)	45. (c)	46. (b)	47. (a)	48. (d)
49. (c)	50. (b)	51. (a)	52. (b)	53. (c)	54. (b)
55. (d)	56. (b)	57. (d)	58. (b)	59. (d)	60. (b)
61. (d)	62. (c)	63. (a)	64. (b)	65. (d)	66. (b)
67. (d)	68. (a)	69. (c)	70. (b)	71. (a)	72. (d)
73. (b)	74. (b)	75. (c)	76. (d)	77. (a)	78. (b)
79. (b)	80. (a)	81. (b)	82. (c)	83. (a)	84. (c)
85. (d)	86. (d)	87. (b)	88. (d)	89. (a)	90. (c)
91. (b)	92. (d)	93. (b)	94. (b)	95. (a)	96. (c)
97. (b)	98. (a)	99. (b)	100. (a)	101. (c)	102. (c)
103. (c)	104. (b)	105. (c)	106. (b)	107. (c)	108. (a)
109. (b)	110. (a)	111. (a)	112. (d)	113. (c)	114. (a)
115. (c)	116. (b)	117. (a)	118. (a)	119. (b)	120. (d)
121. (b)	122. (b)	123. (d)	124. (c)	125. (d)	126. (a)
127. (a)	128. (d)	129. (a)	130. (c)	131. (d)	132. (b)
133. (c)	134. (c)	135. (d)	136. (b)	137. (d)	138. (b)
139. (d)	140. (a)	141. (b)	142. (d)	143. (d)	144. (d)
145. (a)	146. (d)	147. (a)	148. (c)	149. (a)	150. (c)