APPSC PORTAL

Thursday, May 24, 2012

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMS 2012 PAPER-I SOLVED PAPER WITH EXPLANATIONS

1. Under which of the following circumstances may “capital gains” arise?

1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product

2. When there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned

3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Capital gains arise from sale of capital investments. It can be a home, a farm, a business, shares, mutual fund, jewellery, art and paintings, bonds, other real estate, etc. It excludes items for personal use like apparel, motor vehicle, furniture. It also excludes stock-in-trade for business and agricultural land.

Capital Gains Tax can be triggered by the ‘Transfer’ of above mentioned assets, which includes:

► Acquisition of an asset

► Sale of asset

► Exchange of asset

► Relinquishing of asset

► Extinguishment of rights of an asset, etc

Moreover this tax is related to the value of the asset rather than the quantum of sales of it, therefore statement 1 cannot be true rather statement 2 and 3 are true.

2. Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?

1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank

2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public

3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank

4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Money supply is increased in the system when currency is pushed into the market by any way. As per the given options statements 2 and 4 lead to the absorption of currency from the market while actions following statements 1 and 3 would release it into the market, therefore the answer has to be C.

3. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?

1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India

2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies

3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies

4. Portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: The FDIs are categorized into vertical and horizontal based on how the subsidiary company works in par with the parent investor.

Vertical FDIs happen when a corporation owns some share of the foreign enterprise. The local enterprise could either be supplying the input or selling finished goods to the parent corporation. The subsidiary here helps the parent company to grow more.

When the MNCs kick off similar business operations in different countries it becomes horizontal Foreign Direct Investment. It is actually a cloning that is happening here. Both the countries enjoy the same share of growth.

(Source moneyguideindia.com)

Further Wikipedia draws a distinction between FDI and portfolio investment as well. According to Wikipedia Foreign direct investment (FDI) is direct investment into one country by a company in production located in another country either by buying a company in the country or by expanding operations of an existing business in the country. Foreign direct investment is in contrast to portfolio investment which is a passive investment in the securities of another country such as stocks and bonds.

From the above two sources it can be inferred that the answer to this question should be D.

4. Consider the following statements:

The price of any currency in international market is decided by the

1. World Bank

2. Demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned

3. Stability of the government of the concerned country

4. Economic potential of the country in question

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: There is hardly any direct role of the World Bank in deciding the price of any currency, apart from the case of US dollar which the World Bank uses as its official currency. However the reason for this is also related to the economic potential of the US economy rather than something else. Further statement 2 and 4 imply almost the same thing yet statement 4 is more explicit. Therefore out of the given options, C option seems to be the best choice.

5. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that

(a) Big banks should try to open offices in each district

(b) There should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks

(d) All the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits

Ans. (c)

6. Consider the following:

1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops

2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare

3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies

Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2

Ans. (d)

Exp: Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of soil and the quality of crops is a practice which has been in vogue since ancient times and there are definite evidences right from the Gupta period.

Cannons were first introduced in India in the medieval period while there are references of the use of mobile cannons by Ahmad Shah Abdali in the third battle of Panipat.

Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies was pioneered by the Portuguese.

Therefore the answer has to be D.

7. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country’s economy, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.

2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.

3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: (Source: The article on Srenis titled Sreni (Guilds): a Unique Social Innovation of Ancient India by Manikant Shah & D.P. Agrawal)

8. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the

(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909

(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919

(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

Ans. (c)

Exp: The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced a federal constitution to India, involving distribution of powers between the Centre and the constituent units.

9. Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?

1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use.

2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.

3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

10. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the

(a) Direction facing the polestar

(b) Direction opposite to the polestar

(d) Direction keeping the polestar to his right

Ans. (c)

Exp: The Pole star always identified with the north direction.

11. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called “rare earth metals”. Why?

1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export

2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country.

3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Wikipedia on rare earths says that “Searches for alternative sources in Australia, Brazil, Canada, South Africa, Tanzania, Greenland, and the United States are ongoing. Mines in these countries were closed when China undercut world prices in the 1990s, and it will take a few years to restart production as there are many barriers to entry”, which also means that such metals are found beyond China, Canada, Australia and Chile as well. Therefore the answer is C.

12. Consider the following protected areas:

1. Bandipur

2. Bhitarkanika

3. Manas

4. Sunderbans

Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Bhitarkanika is not yet declared a Tiger reserve.

13. Consider the following statements:

1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.

2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: The duration of monsoon is maximum over the peninsular region i.e. starting from around 1 June in Kerala to around mid of October, while such is not the case for north India. Further the amount of rainfall in eastern part of the northern plains is greater than that in the western part. Therefore the answer is C.

14. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?

(a) Rainfall throughout the year

(b) Rainfall in winter only

(d) A definite dry and wet season

Ans. (d)

Exp: Tropical savannah region is characterized by a definite dry season which is mentioned in the option D.

15. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?

(a) Biosphere Reserves

(b) National Parks

(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries

Ans. (b)

Exp: According to the Indian Forest Dwellers Act 2006, the core areas of the National Parks are protected and local people are not allowed to collect and use the biomass from these areas.

16. Consider the following kinds of organisms:

1. Bat

2. Bee

3. Bird

Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: All the three are pollinating agents.

17. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?

(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass

(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard

(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal

Ans. (a)

18. Consider the following statements:

If there were no phenomenon of capillarity

1. It would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp

2. One would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink

3. The blotting paper would fail to function

4. The big trees that we see around would not have grown on the Earth

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: All the processes are possible because of capillarity.

19. The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services—provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?

(a) Production of food and water

(b) Control of climate and disease

(d) Maintenance of diversity

Ans. (c)

Exp: Source: Wikipedia

20. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?

(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains

(b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

Ans. (a)

21. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?

1. Global warming

2. Fragmentation of habitat

3. Invasion of alien species

4. Promotion of vegetarianism

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: All options other than that give impetus to vegetarianism obstruct the interaction between organic and inorganic elements.

22. Consider the following:

1. Black-necked crane

2. Cheetah

3. Flying squirrel

4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: All the animals mentioned in the option are found naturally in India.

23. Consider the following agricultural practices:

1. Contour bunding

2. Relay cropping

3. Zero tillage

In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: In contour bunding and relay cropping the deterioration in carbonic matter is minimum compared to the practice of zero tillage.

24. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?

1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.

2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.

3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: If phytoplankton is completely destroyed then the primary producer of the Food-chain will get completely destroyed. Other than that the phytoplanktons also absorb heavy amount of CO2 in the process of Photosynthesis.

25. Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to

(a) The destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species

(b) A drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle

(d) a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them

Ans. (b)

Exp: A drug Diclofenac used by cattle owners for treating diseased cattle destroys the digestive system of vultures.

26. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?

1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.

2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.

3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting license or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. (d)

27. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

(a) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

(b) To let opposition members collect information from the ministers

(d) To postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members.

Ans. (a)

Exp: The purpose of an adjournment motion is to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance.

28. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?

1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.

2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.

3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

29. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21

2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275 (1)

3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

Ans. (a)

30. If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?

1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of waste-water.

2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.

3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India.

4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw ground water will be completely reimbursed by the Government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only (d) 1,2,3 and 4

Ans. (d)

31. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code

2. Organizing village Panchayats

3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas

4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) 1 , 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

32. Consider the following statements:

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.

2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.

3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Exp: The Union territories are represented in the Rajya Sabha. According to the Constitution of India the parliament consists of the Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the president. The power to decide election disputes at present rests in the High Courts with a right to appeal to the Supreme Court (Article-329).

33. With reference to consumers' rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.

2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.

3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

34. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:

1. He/she holds the office during the pleasure of the President.

2. He/she need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.

3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Lok Sabha speaker does not hold the office during the pleasure of the President. The speaker must be a member of parliament at the time of his/her election.

35. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States

2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State

3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory

4. A dispute between two or more states

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

Exp: The original jurisdiction of Supreme Court includes-

(a) Disputes between GOI and one or more states.

(b) GOI and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other.

(c) Between two or more states (Article-131)

36. Consider the following kinds of organisms:

1. Bacteria

2. Fungi

3. Flowering plants

Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

37. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statement is/are correct?

1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.

2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.

3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: Biomass gasification contains Hydrogen, Carbon-monoxide and Methane and it is used in combustion engines.

38. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?

1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.

2. It removes all the undesirable odours from water.

3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: The ultraviolet (UV) radiation inactivates/kills the harmful micro-organisms in water.

39. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance?

1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.

2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.

3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.

4. It can be used as 'conducting electrodes' required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Graphene is an allotrope of carbon.

40. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?

1. Smelting units

2. Pens and pencils

3. Paints

4. Hair oils and cosmetics

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

41. With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.

2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.

3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Stem cells are found in all multi-cellular organisms.

42. Consider the following statements:

Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used

1. in the production of plastic foams

2. in the production of tubeless tyres

3. in cleaning certain electronic components

4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: CFC is used in Refrigeration, Foams, Solvents, Aerosol Products and Sterilants.

43. A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/implications of the creation of anti-matter?

1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.

2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter.

3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

44. Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of universe?

1. Detection of microwaves in space

2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space

3. Movement of asteroids in space

4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Hubble discovered that there is a simple relationship between the distance to a remote galaxy and the redshift in the spectral lines from the galaxy.

45. Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?

(a) The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles

(b) Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

Ans. (a)

Exp: The Sun continually emits a flux of electrically charged particles into space. The earth's magnetic field prevents these charged particles from reaching earth's surface.

46. With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?

1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD.

2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.

3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.

4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Internal organ transplant is a relatively new field with first successful transplant in 1954 in USA.

47. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?

1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment

2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas

3. Denial of efficacy of rituals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Jainas and Buddhas both denied the efficacy of rituals and were indifferent to the authority of Vedas but in the case of penance and enjoyment they differed, while Buddhas were for the moderate path jains strictly condemned all enjoyments and supported extreme penance such as plucking out their hair from the skin.

48. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of “Inclusive Governance’?

1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking

2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts

3. Increasing the government spending on public health

4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Inclusive Governance include-

a) Empowering the affected individuals and groups

b) Operating in an atmosphere of mutual respect and trust.

c) Producing Practical decisions and strategies flexible and open to revision with time.

49. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the

(a) Three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent

(b) Three main linguistic divisions into which the language of India can be classified

(d) Three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India

Ans. (c)

50. The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because

(a) The Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces

(b) Emergence of a ‘left wing’ in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

Ans. (d)

Exp: After declaration of war without any consultation with Indian people on Sep. 3, 1939 by Linlithgow, the congress working committee suggested that it would cooperate if there were Central Indian National Government formed and a commitment made to India's Independence after War. Linlithgow refused the demand and on October 1939 all congress ministries resigned.

51. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of 'ASHA', a trained community health worker?

1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup

2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy

3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization

4. Conducting the delivery of baby

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only

Ans. (a)

52. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?

1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces

2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims

3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Communal electorates for muslims – 1909

53. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?

(a) Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government

(b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose

(c) Behramji Malabari and M.G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Ans. (d)

Exp: Founded by Ranade and R. Rao to endorse the uplift of untouchables as well as education of women etc.

54. Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India

2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation

3. The Independent Labour Party

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Peasants and worker party was formed in 1949, Chairperson was Jayant Prabhakar and General Secretary was S.V. Jadav.

55. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State

(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services

(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement

(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

Ans. (b)

56. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?

1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas

2. By strengthening 'self-help groups' and providing skill development

3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: Objective of the mission is to reduce poverty among rural BPL by promoting diversified and gainful self-employment and wage employment opportunities.

57. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?

1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level

2. Purchasing power parity at national level

3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: The MPI identifies deprivation across health, education and living standards.

58. Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?

1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design

2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India's demographic dividend

3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

59. What is/are recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?

1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones

2. Providing the benefit of 'single window clearance'

3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: National Manufacturing Policy-2010

(1) Setting up of Manufacturing Investment Regions (MIR).

(2) Single window clearance mechanism for manufacturing units.

(3) Establishing Technology acquisition and development fund.

60. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament

2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill

3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account

4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office

5. Introduction Finance Bill in the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

Ans. (a)

61. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because

(a) Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations

(b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion

(d) None of the statement (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Ans. (c)

Exp: On September 16, 1932, in his cell at Yeravada Jail near Bombay, Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi begins a hunger strike in protest of the British government's decision to separate India's electoral system by caste by communal award.

62. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements:

1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government

2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots

3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Ryotwari system, one of the three principal methods of revenue collection in British India. It was prevalent in most of southern India, being the standard system of the Madras Presidency (a British-controlled area now constituting much of present-day Tamil Nadu and portions of neighbouring states). The system was devised by Capt. Alexander Read and Thomas (later Sir Thomas) Munro at the end of the 18th century and introduced by the latter when he was governor (1820–27) of Madras (now Chennai).

Under the Ryotwari System # every registered holder of land is recognised as its proprietor. The principle was the # direct collection of the land revenue from each individual cultivator by government agents. For this purpose # all holdings were measured and assessed according to crop potential and actual cultivation. The advantages of this system were the elimination of middlemen, who often oppressed villagers, and an assessment of the tax on land actually cultivated and not merely occupied.

63. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development:

1. Low birth rate with low death rate

2. High birth rate with high death rate

3. High birth rate with low death rate

Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3

Ans. (c)

Exp:

64. In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?

1. Cement 2. Fertilizers

3. Natural gas 4. Refinery products

5. Textiles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 5 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Index of Eight Core Industries (Base: 2004-05=100) March 2012.

The summarized Index of Eight Core Industries with 2004-05 base is given at the Annexure.

The Eight core industries have a combined weight of 37.90 per cent in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). The combined Index was 158.4 in March 2012 with a growth rate of 2.0% compared to their 6.5% growth in March 2011. During April-March 2011-12, the cumulative growth rate of the Core industries was 4.3 % as against their growth at 6.6% during the corresponding period in 2010-11.

Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Petroleum Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel (Alloy + Non-Alloy), Cement, Electricity.

65. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy

2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies

3. Fifth Schedule

4. Sixth Schedule

5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3, 4 and 5 only

Ans. (a)

66. Government of India encourages the cultivation of 'sea buckhorn'. What is the importance of this plant?

1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification

2. It is a rich source of biodiesel

3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.

4. Its timber is of great commercial value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

Exp: oil is used to treat skin burns from radiation. Currently, cosmetic companies are adding sea-buckthorn oil to anti-aging preparations. Not biodiesel.

67. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of 'mixed farming'?

(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops

(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

Exp: Mixed farming is the combining of two independent agricultural enterprises on the same farm. A typical case of mixed farming is the combination of crop enterprise with dairy farming or in more general terms, crop cultivation with livestock farming. Mixed farming may be treated as a special case of diversified farming. This particular combination of enterprises, support each other and add to the farmer’s profitability.

68. A particular State in India has the following characteristics:

1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.

2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.

3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes protected Area Network in this State.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Assam

(d) Uttarakhand

Ans. (a)

69. Consider the following crops of India:

1. Cowpea

2. Green gram

3. Pigeon pea

Which of the statements is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: green gram (mung) is not used as fodder.

70. Consider the following factors:

1. Rotation of the Earth

2. Air pressure and wind

3. Density of ocean water

4. Revolution of the Earth

Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

Exp: The four factors that influence ocean currents are: (1) Planet rotation, (2) Wind, (3) Density of the water (depends on temperature and salinity), and (4) Gravitation of the moon and earth.

71. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements:

1. The country's total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.

2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: Tamil Nadu has wetland area of 18.05%, Gujarat has 17.56%.

Inland wetland

Natural- 43.40% Man-made-25.83% Total - 69.23%

Coastal wetland

Natural- 24.27% Man-made 2.80% Total- 27.07%

72. Consider the following crops of India?

1. Groundnut

2. Sesamum

3. Pearl millet

Which of the statements given above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

73. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following:

1. Deep gorges

2. U-tern river courses

3. Parallel mountain ranges

4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding

Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

Ans. (d)

74. Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth's surface, because

1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth's surface

2. There is more moisture in the upper atmosphere

3. The air is less dense in the upper atmosphere

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: the earth’s atmosphere is not heated by the sun. The sun light comes in through the atmosphere. 25% of it is lost through reflection and then 50% is used to heat the surface of the earth, which then makes the Earth warmer, and heats up the atmosphere. This heat is then stored around the earth because of the ozone layer, keeping us warm.

75. The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?

1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.

2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.

3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.

4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (a)

76. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.

2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.

3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.

4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

77. The endeavour of 'Janani Suraksha Yojana' Programme is:

1. to promote institutional deliveries

2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery

3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (a)

78. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:

(a) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months

(b) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months

(d) Must be a member of the Lok Sabha

Ans. (a)

79. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.

2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: The Delimitation Commission in India is a high power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court. These orders come into force on a date to be specified by the President of India in this behalf.

The copies of its orders are laid before the House of the People and the State Legislative Assembly concerned, but no modifications are permissible therein by them.

80. Consider the following:

1. Hotels and restaurants

2. Motor transport undertakings

3. Newspaper establishments

4. Private medical institutions

The employees of which

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: most of the State Govts. have extended the ESI Act to certain specific classes of establishments, such as, Medical and Educational Institutes, shops, hotels, restaurants, cinemas, preview theatres, motor transport undertakings, newspaper and advertising establishments etc., employing 10 or more persons.

81. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission

2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee

3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General

4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: The conclusions of the Public Accounts Committee are contained in its Report, which, after its adoption by the Committee, is presented by the Chairman to the Lok Sabha.

82. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joing sitting of the Parliament during the passage of

1. Ordinary Legislation

2. Money Bill

3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: Disagreement between the two Houses on amendments to a Bill may be resolved by both the Houses meeting in a joint sitting where questions are decided by majority vote. However, this provision of joint sitting does not apply to Money Bills and Constitution Amendment Bills.

83. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?

1. DRDAs act as Pancyayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.

2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.

3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.

4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: The DRDAs are not the implementing agencies, but can be very effective in enhancing the quality of implementation through overseeing the implementation of different programmes and ensuring that necessary linkages are provided. It shall be their endeavour and objective to secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for reducing poverty in the district. It is their ability to coordinate and bring about a convergence of approach among different agencies for poverty alleviation that would set them apart. The DRDAs are expected to coordinate effectively with the Panchayati Raj Institutions. Under no circumstances will they perform the functions of PRIs.

84. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice

3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry

4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Fundamental duties as enshrined in Indian Constitution are:

(a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;

(b) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;

(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;

(d) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;

(e) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;

(f) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;

(g) To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures;

(h) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;

(i) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;

(j) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement;

(k) Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

85. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.

2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.

3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.

4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: The Supreme Court Judges are not removed by the Chief Justice rather they are removed by the President by a method prescribed in the Constitution. Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and staff of the Supreme Court without any interference from the Executive or Legislature.

86. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?

1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.

2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.

3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

Exp: Thorium is three times more abundant in nature compared to uranium. Because nearly all of the thorium is used up in an Thorium Reactor (versus only about 0.7% of uranium mined for a conventional Uranium reactor), the reactor achieves high energy production per metric ton of fuel ore, on the order of 300 times the output of a typical uranium reactor. A Thorium Reactor power plant would generate 4,000 times less mining waste (solids and liquids of similar character to those in uranium mining) and would generate 1,000 to 10,000 times less nuclear waste than a Uranium reactor. Additionally, because Thorium Reactor burns all of its nuclear fuel, the majority of the waste products (83%) are safe within 10 years, and the remaining waste products (17%) need to be stored in geological isolation for only about 300 years (compared to 10,000 years or more for uranium waste).

87. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs:

(a) The water vapours of the air and retains its heat

(b) The ultraviolet part of the solar radiation

(d) The infrared part of the solar radiation

Ans. (d)

Exp: Carbon dioxide is virtually transparent to the visible radiation that delivers the sun's energy to the earth. But the earth in turn reradiates much of the energy in the invisible infrared region of the spectrum. This radiation is most intense at wavelengths very close to the principal absorption band (13 to 17 microns) of the carbon dioxide spectrum. When the carbon dioxide concentration is sufficiently high, even its weaker absorption bands become effective, and a greater amount of infrared radiation is absorbed. Because the carbon dioxide blanket prevents its escape into space, the trapped radiation warms up the atmosphere.

88. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?

(a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium (b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen

Ans. (b)

Exp: Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen, Nitrogen and Phosphorus were the elements which formed the DNA responsible for the origin of life on earth.

89. What are the reasons for the people's resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?

1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.

2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.

3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health.

4. There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: The main concern for farmers and people is that the terminator seeds in the Bt brinjal would not let the fruit have its natural seed for reproduction. Hence after each harvest farmers would need to buy seeds from the seed companies. Environment activists says the effect of GM (genetically modified) crops on rats have shown to be fatal for lungs and kidneys.

90. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?

1. To enable them to withstand drought

2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce

3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations

4. To increase their shelf life

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Exp: Though with the help of genetic engineering the third option (3) can be achieved but it was not the prospect for which genetically engineered plants have been created.

91. Consider the following statements:

The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Nauroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he

1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British

2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians

3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

92. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the Major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?

1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period.

2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.

3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: origin from Sama Veda. The lyrics, some of which were written in Sanskrit centuries ago, Dhrupad music is primarily devotional in theme and content.

93. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?

1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.

2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: The dance form spread further during the Bhakti movement between 11th and the 13th century, when dance dramas set to devotional themes were performed by a cast of all men in open-air theaters, with the men playing both the male and female roles. The dramas were usually opened by the narrator, or soothradhar accompanied by (music and) the rhythms of the drums and cymbals. As the audience watched with rapt attention, the characters would introduce themselves, with the lead roles entering the stage behind a curtain. Dramatic elements were used heavily throughout the performance, with the characters speaking out dialogues to the audience during key moments.

94. With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?

1. Meditation and control of breath

2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place

3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

95. The Rowlatt Act aimed at

(a) Compulsory economic support to war efforts

(b) Imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial

(d) Imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press

Ans. (b)

96. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because:

1. The Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence

2. The rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session

3. A resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (a)

Exp: The Lahore session of Indian National Congress of 1929 was held under the president ship of Jawaharlal Nehru. The two important decisions taken were the following:

a. The attainment of complete independence: It was declared in this session that the chief goal of the Indian National congress was the attainment of complete independence.

b. It was decided to launch the Civil Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Gandhiji to get the complete independence..

c. It was decided in this session to celebrate 26th January as the Independence Day all over the country. Because of its significance the same day was chosen as the Republic day of India.

97. Lord Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called 'Bhumisparsha Mudra'. It symbolizes:

(a) Buddha's calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation

(b) Buddha's calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara

(c) Buddha's reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory

(d) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context

Ans. (d)

Exp: The "earth witness" Buddha is one of the most common iconic images of Buddhism. It depicts the Buddha sitting in meditation with his left hand, palm upright, in his lap, and his right hand touching the earth. This represents the moment of the Buddha's enlightenment.

Just before the historical Buddha, Siddhartha Gautama, realized enlightenment, it is said the demon Mara attacked him with armies of monsters to frighten Siddhartha from his seat under the bodhi tree. But the about-to-be Buddha did not move. Then Mara claimed the seat of enlightenment for himself, saying his spiritual accomplishments were greater than Siddhartha's. Mara's monstrous soldiers cried out together, "I am his witness!" Mara challenged Siddhartha--who will speak for you?

Then Siddhartha reached out his right hand to touch the earth, and the earth itself roared, "I bear you witness!" Mara disappeared. And as the morning star rose in the sky, Siddhartha Gautama realized enlightenment and became a Buddha.

98. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of

(a) Bhakti (b) image worship and Yajnas

Ans. (c)

99. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?

1. It opposed idolatry.

2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.

3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. (b)

100. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers' bank. This would imply which of the following?

1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.

2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.

3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only

Ans. (b)

Exp: The Reserve Bank of India acts as the bankers' bank. According to the provisions of the Banking Companies Act of 1949, every scheduled bank was required to maintain with the Reserve Bank a cash balance equivalent to 5% of its demand liabilites and 2 per cent of its time liabilities in India. By an amendment of 1962, the distinction between demand and time liabilities was abolished and banks have been asked to keep cash reserves equal to 3 per cent of their aggregate deposit liabilities. The minimum cash requirements can be changed by the Reserve Bank of India.

The scheduled banks can borrow from the Reserve Bank of India on the basis of eligible securities or get financial accommodation in times of need or stringency by rediscounting bills of exchange. Since commercial banks can always expect the Reserve Bank of India to come to their help in times of banking crisis the Reserve Bank becomes not only the banker's bank but also the lender of the last resort.

HORTICULTURE SECTOR IN INDIA

The horticulture sector encompasses a wide range of crops e.g., fruit crops, vegetable crops, potato and tuber crops, ornamental crops, medicinal and aromatic crops, spices and plantation crops.

India, with its wide variability of climate and soil, is highly favourable for growing a large number of horticultural crops. It is the fastest growing sector within agriculture. It contributes in poverty alleviation, nutritional security and have ample scope for farmers to increase their income and helpful in sustaining large number of agro-based industries which generate huge employment opportunities.

The achievement in the development of horticulture is laudable, as the sector now contributes more than 30.5 per cent to GDP of agriculture and has maintained the growth rate of more than 5 per cent during the last two decades.

Production base of horticultural crops has increased considerably as compared to the situation of 1950-51. Area under horticulture crops has increased from 12.77 million ha in 1991-92 to 20.95 million ha in 2009-10, while the production from 96.52 million tonnes (1991-92) to 220.87 million tonnes during 2009-10.

India is the second largest producer of fruits in the world, it the largest producer of fruits like mango, banana, papaya, sapota, pomegranate and aonla. In terms of productivity of grapes, India ranks first in the world. India occupies the second position in the production of brinjal, cabbage, cauliflower and onion and third in potato and tomato in the world. Vegetables that are produced in abundance are potato, tomato, brinjal, okra, cucurbits, etc. India has made noticeable advancement in the production of flowers, particularly cut flowers, which have a high potential for exports. India is the largest producer, consumer and exporter of spices and spice products in the world. Over 100 plants spices are known to yield spices and spice products among which around 50 are grown in India.

The most significant development that happened in the last decade is that horticulture has moved from rural confines to commercial production and this changing scenario has encouraged private sector investment in production system management. The last decade has seen technological infusion like micro-irrigation, precision farming, greenhouse cultivation, and improved post harvest management.

IMPORTANT INITIATIVES FOR HORTICULTURE DEVELOPMENT

a) National Horticulture Mission
National Horticulture Mission was launched during the year 2005-06 with objective of providing holistic growth to the horticulture sector through an area based, regionally differentiated strategy, supply of quality planting material, production and productivity improvement, technology promotion, extension, post harvest management and marketing.

b) Horticulture Mission for North East and Himalayan States
This Mission was launched during the financial year 2001-02 to achieve overall development of horticulture in 8 States to harness the potential that exists in the North East region. The Scheme was further extended to three other hilly States namely Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand during 2003-04.

c) National Bamboo Mission
The National Bamboo Mission was launched in 2006-07 as a Centrally Sponsore Scheme to promote the growth of bamboo sector. The programmes address four major areas of bamboo development namely (i) Research and Development, (ii) Plantation Development, (iii) Handicrafts Development and (iv)Marketing.

d) Micro Irrigation
The main objective of this Scheme is to increase the coverage of area under improved methods of irrigation in the country for better water use efficiency and to provide stimulus to growth in the agriculture sector.

e) Central Institute for Horticulture (CIH) Nagaland
Recognizing the importance of institutional support for the development of horticulture in the North East region, the establishment of a Central Institute of Horticulture in Nagaland, has been approved for implementation in 2005-06.

The thrust areas for the Institute are (i) refinement / demonstration of identified technologies specific for the region, (ii) production and supply of quality seed and planting material of improved/high yielding varieties and (iii) training of state department officials and field functionaries in selected aspects of horticulture development including post harvest management, processing and value addition.

CENSUS 2011

The Indian Census is the most credible source of information on Demography (Population characteristics), Economic Activity, Literacy & Education, Housing & Household Amenities, Urbanization, Fertility and Mortality, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, Language, Religion, Migration, Disability and many other socio-cultural and demographic data since 1872.

Census 2011 is the 15th National Census of the country. This is the only source of primary data at village, town and ward level. It provides valuable information for planning and formulation of polices for Central & State Governments and is widely used by National & International agencies, scholars, business people, industrialists, and many more.

The delimitation/reservation of Constituencies - Parliamentary/Assembly/Panchayats and other Local Bodies is also done on the basis of the demographic data thrown up by the Census. Census is the basis for reviewing the country's progress in the past decade, monitoring the on-going schemes of the Government and most importantly, plan for the future. That is why the slogan of Census 2011 is "Our Census, Our Future".

The Census is a statutory exercise conducted under the provisions of the Census Act 1948 and Rules made thereunder.

Census Process:

The Census process involves visiting each and every household and gathering particulars by asking questions and filling up Census Forms. The information collected about individuals is kept absolutely confidential. In fact this information is not accessible even to Courts of law.

After the field work is over, the forms are transported to data processing centres located at 15 cities across the country. The data processing is done using sophisticated software called Intelligent Character Recognition Software (ICR). This technology was pioneered by India in Census 2001 and has become the benchmark for Censuses all around the globe. This involves the scanning of the Census Forms at high speed and extracting the data automatically using computer software. This revolutionary technology has enabled the processing of the voluminous data in a very short time and saving a huge amount of manual labour and cost.

The 15th Indian National census was conducted in two phases, house-listing and population enumeration. House-listing phase began on April 1, 2010 and involved collection of information about all buildings.

Information for National Population Register was also collected in the first phase which included data about the person that will be converted to digital form along with fingerprinting and photograph of the person, which will be used to issue a 12-digit unique identification number to all registered Indians by Unique Identification Authority of India.

Census Commissioner of India is C. Chandramouli.

Census report:

1. India's population has reached to 1.21 billion. Indians percentage in world population is 17.5.
2. The country’s population is almost equal to the combined population of the U.S., Indonesia, Brazil, Pakistan, Bangladesh and Japan.
3. UN estimated that world population grew at an annual rate of 1.23 per cent during 2000-2010 but India’s annual growth rate comes out to be 1.64 per cent much higher even that of China.
4. It is now estimated that by 2030 India will overtake China in terms of population and will become the most populous country on the earth with 17.9 per cent population of the world living in India.
5. 2001-2011 is the first decade (exception of 1911-1921) in which the net addition of population is less as compared to previous by 0.86 million.
6. Uttar Pradesh is the most populous State with 199 million people which is more than the population of Brazil, the fifth most populous country of the world.
7. Lakshadweep is the least populated at 64,429 persons.
8. Among UTs, Daman and Diu and Dadar and Nagar Haveli registered very high growth rate of 53 per cent points.
9. Nagaland is the only state that registered a small negative growth whereas Bihar registered the highest decadal growth rate of 25.07 per cent.
10. The population density of India grows to 382 persons per square kilometer from 325 persons per square kilometer in 2001.
11. Among states Bihar ranks first by having density of 1102 persons per square kilometer followed by West Bengal. Whereas Arunachal Pradesh ranks lowest by having density as 17 persons per square kilometer.
12. Among UTs NCT of Delhi ranks first with density of 11297 persons per square kilometer and Andaman and Nicobar ranks lowest with density of 46 persons per square kilometer.
13. Overall sex ratio at the national level has increased from 933 to 940.
14. Kerala with 1084 has the highest sex ratio and Daman and Diu has the lowest sex ratio of 618.
15. Child sex ratio has declined from 927 to 914.
16. Top three states recording highest value of child sex ratio are Mizoram (971), Meghalaya (970) and Chhattisgarh (964).
17. Among UTs Andaman and Nicobar islands ranks first with child sex ratio of 966 females per 1000 males.
18. Lowest child sex ratio among state is of Haryana (830) and among UTs is Delhi (866).
19. The literacy rate of India according to 2011 Census is 74.04 per cent with 82.14 per cent males and 65.46 per cent females.
20. Among states Kerala ranks first in literacy with 93.91 per cent literates and Bihar ranks lowest with 63.82 per cent literates.
21. Among UTs Lakshadweep ranks first with 92.28 per cent literates and Dadar and Nagar Haveli ranks lowest with 77.65 literates.

The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012

The Lok Sabha has passed the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Bill, 2011. The Bill, already passed by the Rajya Sabha, has been drafted to strengthen the legal provisions for the protection of children from sexual abuse and exploitation. For the first time, a special law has been passed to address the issue of sexual offences against children.

Sexual offences are currently covered under different sections of IPC. The IPC does not provide for all types of sexual offences against children and, more importantly, does not distinguish between adult and child victims.

The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2011 defines a child as any person below the age of 18 years and provides protection to all children under the age of 18 years from the offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment and pornography. These offences have been clearly defined for the first time in law. The Act provides for stringent punishments, which have been graded as per the gravity of the offence. The punishments range from simple to rigorous imprisonment of varying periods. There is also provision for fine, which is to be decided by the Court.

Punishments for Offences covered in the Act are:

• Penetrative Sexual Assault (Section 3) – Not less than seven years which may extend to imprisonment for life, and fine (Section 4)
• Aggravated Penetrative Sexual Assault (Section 5) –¬ Not less than ten years which may extend to imprisonment for life, and fine (Section 6)
• Sexual Assault (Section 7) – Not less than three years which may extend to five years, and fine (Section 8)
• Aggravated Sexual Assault (Section 9) – Not less than five years which may extend to seven years, and fine (Section 10)
• Sexual Harassment of the Child (Section 11) – Three years and fine (Section 12)
• Use of Child for Pornographic Purposes (Section 13) – Five years and fine and in the event of subsequent conviction, seven years and fine(Section 14 (1))

An offence is treated as “aggravated” when committed by a person in a position of trust or authority of child such as a member of security forces, police officer, public servant, etc.

The Act provides for the establishment of Special Courts for trial of offences under the Act, keeping the best interest of the child as of paramount importance at every stage of the judicial process. The Act incorporates child friendly procedures for reporting, recording of evidence, investigation and trial of offences.

The Act also recognizes that the intent to commit an offence, even when unsuccessful for whatever reason, needs to be penalized. The attempt to commit an offence under the Act has been made liable for punishment for upto half the punishment prescribed for the commission of the offence.

The Act also provides for punishment for abetment of the offence, which is the same as for the commission of the offence. This would cover trafficking of children for sexual purposes.

For the more heinous offences of Penetrative Sexual Assault, Aggravated Penetrative Sexual Assault, Sexual Assault and Aggravated Sexual Assault, the burden of proof is shifted on the accused. This provision has been made keeping in view the greater vulnerability and innocence of children. At the same time, to prevent misuse of the law, punishment has been provided for making false complaint or proving false information with malicious intent. Such punishment has been kept relatively light (six months) to encourage reporting. If false complaint is made against a child, punishment is higher (one year).

The media has been barred from disclosing the identity of the child without the permission of the Special Court. The punishment for breaching this provision by media may be from six months to one year.

For speedy trial, the Act provides for the evidence of the child to be recorded within a period of 30 days. Also, the Special Court is to complete the trial within a period of one year, as far as possible.

To provide for relief and rehabilitation of the child, as soon as the complaint is made to the Special Juvenile Police Unit (SJPU) or local police, these will make immediate arrangements to give the child, care and protection such as admitting the child into shelter home or to the nearest hospital within twenty-four hours of the report. The SJPU or the local police are also required to report the matter to the Child Welfare Committee within 24 hours of recording the complaint, for long term rehabilitation of the child.

The Act casts a duty on the Central and State Governments to spread awareness through media including the television, radio and the print media at regular intervals to make the general public, children as well as their parents and guardians aware of the provisions of this Act.

The National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) and State Commissions for the Protection of Child Rights (SCPCRs) have been made the designated authority to monitor the implementation of the Act.

Friday, May 18, 2012

National Water Mission

The National Water Mission under the National Action Plan for Climate Change envisages the following five goals :

Goal 1: Comprehensive water data base in public domain and assessment of the impact of climate change on water resource,

Goal 2: Promotion of citizen and state actions for water conservation, augmentation and preservation

Goal 3: Focused attention to vulnerable areas including over-exploited areas

Goal 4: Increasing water use efficiency by 20%

Goal 5: Promotion of basin level integrated water resources management

Planning Commission has indicated a tentative outlay of Rs.1488 crore for the Central Sector Plan Scheme “Implementation of National Water Mission” for the 12th Five Year Plan. No expenditure has been incurred so far under the said scheme. Funds available under other Plan Schemes will also be utilized for achieving various objectives of the Mission.

Election Commission of India signs MoU with IFES

The Election Commission of India signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the Washington based International Foundation for Electoral Systems (IFES) at New Delhi for developing and strengthening democratic institutions and processes. The focus of the MoU is making available the knowledge and experience of ECI to election managers and practitioners around the world through the Commission’s India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management, IIIDEM. IFES has been involved in election assistance and democracy promotion in around 100 countries across the world.

The MoU was signed by Dr S Y Quraishi, Chief Election Commissioner and Mr William Sweeney, President and CEO, IFES. The Foundation is already working with IIIDEM for development of curriculum for international participants.

The MoU aims to promote working partnership between ECI and IFES for joint initiatives, exchange of information and experiences, training and research and assistance. It also aims at promoting exchanges, assignments and visits of practitioners and experts.

Signing the MOU, the Chief Election Commissioner, Dr S Y Quraishi offered India’s expertise in election management and related democratic processes to all democratic countries and hoped that the outreach of IFES would facilitate IIIDEM to meet its goals. Election Commissioners, Mr VS Sampath and Mr HS Brahma underlined the role of systematic training and capacity building in conduct of elections worldwide.

Mr William Sweeney applauded the strength of India’s electoral system and its management and said that countries across the World were looking to learn from the Indian experience. He observed that the recently shown willingness of the Election Commission of India to share its skill and knowledge resources has generated demand from several countries, who are in actual need of it.

IIIDEM, which was launched in the middle of June last year, is already offering courses to international election practitioners and managers at their request, besides training domestic election officials at regular intervals. It proposes to hold special courses for SAARC Election Commissions and make global offer of election management courses under the ITEC programme of Ministry of External Affairs.

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. State Service (Pre.) Exam

Geography

(Exam Held on 11-01-2009)

1. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Trans Siberian Railway—Moscow to Vladivostok
(B) Canadian Pacific Railway—Halifax to Vancouver
(C) Orient Express Railway—Paris to Istanbul
(D) Cape Cairo Railway—Warsaw to Madrid

2. Which is the largest canal of the world ?
(A) Suez canal
(B) Panama canal
(C) Kra canal
(D) Bhakra canal

3. Which of the following are connected by Suez canal ?
(A) Red Sea and Dead Sea
(B) Red Sea and Arabian Sea
(C) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(D) Red Sea and Black Sea

4. Which of the following ports is not situated at Pacific coast ?
(A) Vancouver
(B) Los Angeles
(C) San Francisco
(D) Miami

5. Which of the following airports is not situated at New York-Tokyo air route ?
(A) London
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) Panama

6. Which of the following occupations is not related to tertiary economy ?
(A) Transport
(B) Hunting and gathering
(C) Trade
(D) Communication

7. In which region of the world are nights the winters ?
(A) Tundra region
(B) Mediterranean region
(C) Tropical desert region
(D) Equatorial region

8. Which of the following is not the most developed part of the world ?
(A) Most of the Western Europe
(B) Japan
(C) Nepal
(D) South-East Australia

9. The school of Environmental Determinism was born in—
(A) Germany
(B) India
(C) England
(D) France

10. Who was the father of the school of possibilism ?
(A) Davis
(B) Chisolm
(C) Vidal-de-la-Blache
(D) Aristotle

11. Which of the following is secondary consumer ?
(A) Goat
(B) Lion
(C) Reindeer
(D) None of these

12. How much is the area of India ?
(A) 32,87,263 sq. km
(B) 99,76,140 sq. km
(C) 95,97,000 sq. km
(D) 31,40,200 sq. km

13. Which is the southern-most point of India ?
(A) Kanyakumari
(B) Goa
(C) Indira point
(D) Rameshwaram

14. From economic point of view, the most important rocks are—
(A) Dharwar
(B) Gondwana
(C) Vindhyan
(D) Cuddapah

15. The stretch of the Himalayas between the Indus and the Sutlej rivers is called—
(A) The Assam Himalayas
(B) The Punjab Himalayas
(C) The Nepal Himalayas
(D) The Kumaon Himalayas

16. The flood plain along river banks formed by newer alluvium is called—
(A) Bhabar
(B) Khadar
(C) Tarai
(D) Bangar

17. Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’ ?
(A) Kosi
(B) Chambal
(C) Gandak
(D) Son

18. In which state are the Mahadeo hills located ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh

19. The ‘Kalabaisakhis’ originate during—
(A) Winter season
(B) Rainy season
(C) Period of retreating monsoon
(D) Summers

20. What type of forests are the ‘Sunderbans’ ?
(A) Tidal forests
(B) Monsoon forests
(C) Tropical Evergreen forests
(D) Temperate Evergreen forests

21. The ‘Regur’ soil is—
(A) Red soil
(B) Black soil
(C) Alluvial soil
(D) None of these

22. Which river basin has the maximum amount of water available for irrigation ?
(A) The Ganga
(B) The Indus
(C) The Brahmaputra
(D) Mahanadi

23. Which state of India is the largest producer of Iron ore ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh

24. Which mineral is known as ‘Black Gold’ ?
(A) Iron ore
(B) Bauxite
(C) Coal
(D) Manganese

25. Which food grain occupies the largest cropped area in India ?
(A) Maize
(B) Wheat
(C) Rice
(D) Sugarcane

26. Which of the following states is the largest producer of wheat ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Haryana
(D) Madhya Pradesh

27. The leading jowar (Sorghum) producing state in India is—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Bihar

28. Which of the following is a cash crop ?
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Jowar
(D) Sugarcane

29. Which of the following is a fibre crop ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Jute
(C) Wheat
(D) Maize

30. Which of the following states is the leading producer of sugarcane in India ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Bihar

31. Which Indian state has the highest per hectare production of cotton ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Punjab

32. Which state is the largest producer of tea in India ?
(A) Assam
(B) West Bengal
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka

33. Which of the following is a basis to divide agriculture into different types ?
(A) Cropping system
(B) Water supply and moisture
(C) Availability of land
(D) All of these

34. In India, the local name of shifting cultivation is—
(A) Jhum
(B) Kumari
(C) Penda
(D) All of these

35. Which city of Madhya Pradesh, as per census of 2001, is most populated ?
(A) Jabalpur
(B) Mandsaur
(C) Bhopal
(D) Indore

36. What is the problem faced by Indian farmers ?
(A) Small and fragmented land holdings
(B) Lack of capital
(C) Faulty marketing system
(D) All of the above

37. Which of the following is not a merit of green revolution ?
(A) Increase in agricultural production
(B) Reduction in the import of food grains
(C) Prosperity of the farmers
(D) Regional imbalance

38. What is National Water Grid Plan ?
(A) To link the Himalayan rivers with peninsular rivers
(B) To link east and west flowing rivers of the peninsular
(C) To link the rivers of India with the rivers of Pakistan
(D) None of the above

39. Which of the following is called the ‘Cottonopolis’ of India ?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Agra
(C) Mumbai
(D) Ahmedabad

40. After crushing the sugarcane, the left over baggasse is used as :
(A) Fuel
(B) Mixed with jaggery (‘gur’)
(C) Mixed in sugar
(D) None of the above

41. Which of the following raw materials is needed for the manufacturing of cement ?
(A) Limestone
(B) Sea shells
(C) Slag from steel plant
(D) All of the above

42. Which of the following cement plants is located in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Satna
(B) Durg
(C) Narnaul
(D) None of these

43. Which of the following factors is responsible for regional disparities in India ?
(A) Regional variations in relief
(B) High incoherence of temperature in different parts of India
(C) Regional variations in the availability of minerals
(D) All of the above

44. Which of the following is not an area of the highest agricultural productivity ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Western Uttar Pradesh

45. Who used the method of ranking coefficient for the first time in India in order to calculate agricultural productivity ?
(A) Prof. Mohammed Shafi
(B) Prof. Jasbir Singh
(C) Prof. M.G. Kendall
(D) Prof. Dudley Stamp

46. Which of the following is a method to eradicate poverty ?
(A) More investment in productive activities
(B) Increased savings
(C) Population control
(D) All of the above

47. Which is the period of rapid growth of India’s population ?
(A) 1901–1921
(B) 1921–1951
(C) 1951–1981
(D) 1981–2001

48. Which of the following is an effect of globalization on India ?
(A) Increase in foreign trade
(B) Increase in the number of foreign banks
(C) Direct foreign investment
(D) All of the above

49. Which of the following is a result of ‘Green House Effect’ ?
(A) Rise in temperature
(B) Industrial development
(C) Population growth
(D) None of these

50. Which disease is not caused by drinking polluted water ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Diarrhoea
(C) Jaundice
(D) AIDS

51. Which of the following states of India has the highest sex ratio ?
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Nagaland

52. Which one of the following Indian cities has population more than 50 lakh, as per the census of 2001 ?
(A) Rajkot
(B) Ludhiana
(C) Jaipur
(D) Hyderabad

53. Which of the following states does not have common boundary with Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Bihar

54. Which of the following landforms is not found in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Betul Plateau
(B) Pulicat Lake
(C) Bharner Mountain Range
(D) Kaimur Hills

55. The ‘Bad land’ landform is found in—
(A) Thar desert
(B) Chambal valley
(C) Sundarban delta
(D) Gulf of Kachchh

56. Which state of India is the largest producer of diamond ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Rajasthan

57. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Assam—Magh Bihu
(B) Haryana—Tea Festival
(C) Punjab—Hola Mohalla
(D) Madhya Pradesh—Fair of Nagaji

58. Which state is the only producer of tin in India ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Assam
(D) Madhya Pradesh

59. The total number of districts in Madhya Pradesh is—
(A) 25
(B) 48
(C) 47
(D) 37

60. What is the name of handicrafts emporia centres of Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Koel
(B) Mayur
(C) Kingfisher
(D) Mriganayanee

61. Which ocean, according to Wegener, surrounded Pangaea on all sides ?
(A) Panthalassa
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean

62. Many island arcs and peripheral trenches of the Pacific Ocean are the result of—
(A) The convergence of two continental plates
(B) The convergence of a continental plate and an oceanic plate
(C) The convergence of two oceanic plates
(D) None of the above

63. Exfoliation is most active—
(A) in regions where frost occurs regularly
(B) in limestone areas
(C) at high altitudes
(D) in arid or semi-arid regions, which have a large diurnal range of temperature

64. Which of the following landforms is not formed by weathering ?
(A) Rift valley
(B) Crevasses
(C) Talus
(D) Yardang

65. Which of the following is not a process of river erosion ?
(A) Hydraulic action
(B) Deflation
(C) Corrosion
(D) Attrition

66. Which of the following landforms is formed by glacier ?
(A) Tarn
(B) Lagoon
(C) Lappies
(D) Doline

67. With what are the Inselberg and Hamada associated ?
(A) Glacial erosion
(B) Wind erosion
(C) River erosion
(D) Wind deposition

68. Which of the following is a Caldera lake ?
(A) Lake Chilka
(B) Lake Pulicat
(C) Lake Toba
(D) None of these

69. Which instrument is used for measuring the intensity of an earthquake ?
(A) Seismograph
(B) Hythergraph
(C) Altimeter
(D) None of these

70. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Alfred Wegener—Plate Tectonics
(B) Archdeacon pratt—Continental Drift Theory
(C) William Moris Davis—Geographical Cycle of Erosion
(D) Walter Penck—Theory of Isostasy

71. Which of the following is an example of volcanic mountains ?
(A) Rockies
(B) Fujiyoma
(C) Salt range
(D) Caucasus

72. The example of an intermontane plateau is—
(A) The Plateau of Bolivia
(B) The Plateau of Antrim
(C) The Deccan Plateau
(D) The Plateau of Pantagonia

73. Monadnocks are situated in—
(A) Mountain
(B) Fold mountain
(C) Peneplain
(D) Loess plain

74. That layer of the atmosphere, where ozone gas is found—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere

75. Radiant energy from the sun that strikes the earth is called—
(A) Solar constant
(B) Insolation
(C) Heat budget
(D) Terrestrial radiation

76. The maximum annual range of temperature occurs over—
(A) Poles
(B) Near the equator
(C) Coastal regions
(D) Asia and North America at latitude 60°N

77. Which of the following are horse latitudes ?
(A) 30°to 35°latitudes in both the hemispheres
(B) 10°North latitude
(C) 60°latitude
(D) None of the above

78. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) When the temperature of air increases, the pressure of air decreases
(B) When the temperature of air decreases, the pressure of air increases
(C) A rising thermometer shows a falling barometer
(D) When air rises, the pressure of air increases

79. Which pair is incorrect ?
(A) Fohn—Dry and warm wind
(B) Chinook —Snow eater
(C) Mistral —Winter season
(D) Bora —North America

80. Which of the following is not a cyclone ?
(A) Tornado
(B) Hurricane
(C) Typhoon
(D) Sirocco

81. Which one of the following is not erosional landform of wind ?
(A) Cirque
(B) Inselberg
(C) Mushroom rock
(D) Zeugen

82. Which type of rainfall occurs over north-west India during winter season ?
(A) Cyclonic rainfall
(B) Orographic rainfall
(C) Convectional rainfall
(D) Anticyclonic rainfall

83. In which of the spheres of the atmosphere temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°centigrade with a height of one thousand metres ?
(A) Mesosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Ozonosphere
(D) Troposphere

84. Ratio between water and land on the earth is —
(A) 78 : 22
(B) 71 : 29
(C) 80 : 20
(D) 20 : 80

85. The northern hemisphere is called as—
(A) The land hemisphere
(B) The water hemisphere
(C) Water planet
(D) None of these

86. The ocean’s greatest depth is—
(A) Aleutian Trench
(B) Japan Trench
(C) Mariana Trench
(D) Java Trench

87. The zone of highest salinity is—
(A) The tropical zone of the sea
(B) The temperate zone of the sea
(C) The polar zone of the sea
(D) None of the above

88. Which one of the following is a warm ocean current ?
(A) Kurushio current
(B) California current
(C) Okhotsk current
(D) Falkland current

89. Which one of the following is an example of coral island ?
(A) Ellice
(B) Barren
(C) Krakatao
(D) Sandwich

90. Which one of the following is an activity of the Eskimos and Lapps ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Plantation agriculture
(C) Hunting and fishing
(D) None of these

91. Bushman is associated with—
(A) Kalahari desert
(B) Congo basin
(C) Himalaya mountains
(D) Malwa plateau

92. Which one of the following is not a habitat of the Santhals ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Punjab

93. Which state of India has the highest percentage of scheduled tribe population ?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Nagaland
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Assam

94. Which continent has the highest growth of population ?
(A) Africa
(B) South America
(C) Europe
(D) Asia

95. Which is not a sparsely populated area ?
(A) Cold Polar Region
(B) Sahara
(C) South-Eastern Asia
(D) Kalahari

96. Which one of the following has maximum farm-houses ?
(A) India
(B) United States of America
(C) China
(D) Japan

97. Which one of the following is a mining city ?
(A) Kalgoorlie
(B) Oxford
(C) Singapore
(D) Islamabad

98. Which one of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Concentric Zone Theory—E.W. Burgess
(B) Sector Theory—Alfred Weber
(C) Multi-Nuclei Theory—Homer Hoyt
(D) Fused Growth Theory—Griffith Taylor

99. The largest producer of rice in the world is—
(A) India
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) China
(D) Bangladesh

100. Which one of the following geographical conditions is not favourable for wheat cultivation ?
(A) 10°celcius temperature at the time of sowing
(B) Loamy soils
(C) More than 250 cm annual rainfall
(D) Level land

101. Which of the following is also grown as a ‘Zaid’ crop ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Cotton
(C) Maize for fodder
(D) Jute

102. Tea can be grown on—
(A) Hill slopes
(B) Plains
(C) Swamps
(D) None of these

103. Which of the following is a plantation crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Barley
(D) Coffee

104. Which of the following is not a rubber producing country ?
(A) Thailand
(B) India
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) None of these

105. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to cotton production ?
(A) Cotton is grown in tropical areas
(B) Sri Lanka is the largest exporter of cotton
(C) Cotton is a dominant crop in areas of over 1000 cm annual rainfall
(D) Cotton can also be grown in Tundra region

106. Which state of India has the largest area under forests ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

107. Grand Bank is a major producer of—
(A) Rice
(B) Marine fisheries
(C) Iron ore
(D) Tea

108. Which of the following is a type of iron ore ?
(A) Anthracite
(B) Lignite
(C) Peat
(D) Limonite

109. Manganese is used for making—
(A) Iron and steel
(B) Paint
(C) China clay
(D) In all these

110. Which state of India is the largest producer of copper ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Assam

111. Bauxite is used for making—
(A) Coal
(B) Gold
(C) Aluminium
(D) None of these

112. Which continent of the world has the maximum known coal reserves ?
(A) North America
(B) South America
(C) Australia
(D) Africa

113. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Jharia coalfield—Jharkhand
(B) Girdih coalfield—West Bengal
(C) Korba coalfield—Madhya Pradesh
(D) Umaria coalfield—Chhattisgarh

114. In which rocks are the oil reserves mainly found in India ?
(A) Igneous
(B) Sedimentary
(C) Metamorphic
(D) None of these

115. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Lower Sileru—Andhra Pradesh
(B) Nagarjun Sagar—Karnataka
(C) Koyna—Maharashtra
(D) Pong—Punjab

116. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Jog—Waterfall
(B) Ankleshwar—Mineral oilfield
(C) Bokaro—Gold mine
(D) Paradwip—Iron and steel plant

117. Not related to textile industry is—
(A) Spinning
(B) Weaving
(C) Jute
(D) Pulp

118. Which is India’s first oil refinery ?
(A) Digboi
(B) Panipat
(C) Trombay
(D) Vishakhapatnam

119. Manchester is known for—
(A) Silk Industry
(B) Woollen Textile
(C) Cotton Textile
(D) None of these

120. Which is the most universal mode of transport ?
(A) Road Transport
(B) Rail Transport
(C) Ocean Transport
(D) None of these

Answers:
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (A) 41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (D) 51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (D) 61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (C) 71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (D) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D) 81. (A) 82. (A) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (A) 86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (C) 91. (A) 92. (D) 93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (C) 100. (C) 101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (A) 106. (B) 107. (B) 108. (D) 109. (D) 110. (B) 111. (C) 112. (A) 113. (A) 114. (B) 115. (B) 116. (*) In given pairs (C) and (D) pairs are incorrect. So this question is wrong. 117. (D) 118. (A) 119. (C) 120. (A)

Wednesday, May 16, 2012

Agromet Advisory Services - Farmers Empowerment

Growing uncertainties of weather and climate pose a major threat to food security of the country and thus warrant for farmers empowerment of informed decision in agricultural risk management. Besides the possible impacts of climate change also pose major challenges in agriculture sector in the country. The combination of long-term changes and the greater frequency of extreme weather events are also likely to have adverse impacts on the food production in the coming decades. India Meteorological Department has taken major initiative to implement innovative and state of art technologies which are essential to address the above mentioned issues of weather and climate on Indian agriculture and also to realize the present day needs of the farmers of the country and also to meet the demands of the poorer section of the country. India Meteorological Department (IMD) started Integrated Agro-Meteorological Advisory Service (IAAS) in the country for the benefits of farmers. Agro-meteorological service rendered by IMD, Ministry of Earth Sciences is an innovative step to contribute to weather information based crop/livestock management strategies and operations dedicated to enhancing crop production by providing real time crop and location specific agromet services with outreach to village level. This indeed has a potential to change the face of India in terms of food security and poverty alleviation.

The IAAS provides a very special kind of inputs to the farmer as advisory bulletin. It has made a tremendous difference to the agriculture production by taking the advantage of benevolent weather and minimizes the adverse impact of malevolent weather. IMD launched the scheme IAAS in the country in collaboration with different organisations/institutes/stakeholders from 1^st April 2007 for weather wise farm management. Under IAAS, a mechanism was developed to integrate weather forecast, climatic and agro-meteorological information to prepare agro-advisories which contribute significantly to enhance farm productivity and trying to solve the food security in India.

Structure of IAAS

This project is implemented through five tier structure to set up different components of the service spectrum. It includes meteorological (weather observing & forecasting), agricultural (identifying weather sensitive stress & preparing suitable advisory using weather forecast), extension (two way communication with user) and information dissemination (Media, Information Technology, Telecom) agencies.

Weather Forecast –Seven Parametres

From 1 June, 2008 quantitative district level weather forecast up to 5 days is issued. The product comprises of quantitative forecasts for 7 weather parameters viz., rainfall, maximum and minimum temperatures, wind speed and direction, relative humidity and cloudiness. In addition, weekly cumulative rainfall forecast is also provided. IMD, New Delhi generates these products using Multi Model Ensemble technique based on forecast products available from number models of India and other countries. The products were disseminated to Regional Meteorological Centres and Meteorological Centres of IMD located in different states. These products after value addition using synoptic interpretation of model output are communicated to 130 Agro Met Field Units (AMFUs) co-located with State Agriculture Universities (SAUs), institutes of Indian Council of Agriculture Research (ICAR), Indian Institute of Technology (IITs) etc., for preparation of district level agro-met advisories twice a week i.e. Tuesday and Friday.

AAS Bulletins at Different Level

The Agromet Advisory Bulletins are issued at district, state and national levels. The district level bulletins are issued by AMFUs and include crop specific advisories including field crops, horticultural crops and livestock. The State Level bulletin jointly prepared by State Meteorological Centre of IMD and AMFUs is a composite of district bulletins helping to identify the distressed districts of the state as well as plan the supply of appropriate farm inputs such as seeds, irrigation water, fertilizer, pesticides etc. It forms a significant input to the State level weekly Crop Weather Watch Group (CWWG) meeting and used by state government line function departments viz: Fertilizer industry, Pesticide industry, Irrigation Department, Seed Corporation, Transport and other organizations which provide inputs in agriculture. National Agromet Advisory Bulletins are prepared by National Agromet Advisory Service Centre, Division of Agriculture Meteorology, IMD, Pune, using inputs from various states. This bulletin helps identify stress on various crops for different regions of the country and suitably incorporate advisories.

Ministry of Agriculture is prime user of these bulletins, as important decisions are taken in weekly Crop Weather Watch Group meetings steered by Ministry of Agriculture at national level. The bulletins are also used by a large number of other agencies including fertilizer, pesticide industries. At present bulletins are being issued twice in a week i.e., Tuesday and Friday and reach 23 state and 560 district level centres.

District-specific medium-term forecast information and advisories help to maximize output and avert crop damage or loss. It also helps growers anticipate and plan for pesticide applications, irrigation scheduling, disease and pest outbreaks and many more weather related agriculture-specific operations. Such operations include cultivar selection, their dates of sowing/planting, dates of intercultural operations, dates of harvesting and also performing post harvest operations. Agromet advisories help increase profits by consistently delivering actionable weather information, analysis and decision support for farming situations such as: to manage pests through forecast of relative humidity, temperature and wind; manage irrigation through rainfall & temperature forecasts; protect crop from thermal stress through forecasting of extreme temperature etc.

A typical Agromet Advisory Bulletin enables farmers to reap benefits of benevolent weather and minimize or mitigate the impacts of adverse weather are:

· District specific weather forecast, in quantitative terms, for next 5 days for weather parameters like rainfall, cloud, maximum/minimum temperature, wind speed/direction and relative humidity, including forewarning of hazardous weather events (cyclone, hailstorm, heat/cold waves, drought and flood etc) likely to cause stress on standing crop and suggestions to protect the crop from them.

· Weather forecast based information on soil moisture status and guidance for application of irrigation, fertilizer and herbicides etc.

· Advisories on dates of sowing/planting and suitability of carrying out intercultural operations covering the entire crop spectrum from pre-sowing to post harvest to guide farmer in his day–to-day cultural operations.

· Weather forecast based forewarning system for major pests and diseases of principal crops and advises on plant protection measures.

· Propagation of techniques for manipulation of crop’s microclimate e.g. shading, mulching, other surface modification, shelter belt, frost protection etc. to protect crops under stressed conditions.

· Reducing contribution of agricultural production system to global warming and environment degradation through judicious management of land, water and farm inputs, particularly pesticides, herbicides and fertilizers.

· Advisory for livestock on health, shelter and nutrition.

The support on above is rendered through preparing district specific agrometeorological advisory bulletins which are tailored to meet the farmers’ need and are made relevant to his decision making processes. The suggested advisories generally alter actions in a way that improves outcomes as it contains advice on farm management actions aiming to take advantage of good weather and mitigate the stress on crop/livestock. The bulletins are encoded in a format and language which is easy to comprehend by the farmer. The agrometeorologists first interpret the immediate past weather and the forecast for next 5 days and translate it into layman’s terms so that the farmers can understand it. They use state-of-art technology such as crop weather models, climatic risk management tools, GIS generated agromet products etc., for framing the advisory bulletins. Also, interaction between the AMFUs and farmers to identify the weather sensitive decisions is promoted under the service through participatory approach. This step fosters a relationship between the IMD, AMFUs, farmers and other stakeholders so that they can identify or diagnose the gaps in weather information and services available from the IMD.