SOME IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON LOKSABHA

Question 1.	No. of MPs in Fifteenth Lok Sabha
Answer.	544 (as on 21.12.2009)
Question 2.	No. of MPs in each party
Answer.	List enclosed (Annexure I)
Question 3.	No. of male MPs
Answer.	485
Question 4.	No. of woman MPs
Answer.	59
Question 5.	Oldest MP
Answer.	Das, Shri Ram Sundar – 88 (9.1.1921)
Question 6.	Youngest MP
Answer.	Sayeed, Shri Hamdullah – 27 (11.4.1982)

About Lok Sabha and its History

Question 7. When was the Lok Sabha (the House of the People) first constituted?

Answer.        The Lok Sabha (House of the People) was duly constituted for the first time on 17 April 1952 after the first General Elections held from 25 October 1951 to 21 February  1952.

Question 8. When was the first Session of the Lok Sabha held?

Answer.        The first Session of the First Lok Sabha commenced on 13 May 1952.

Question 9. Why is the Lok Sabha called the popular chamber?

Answer.        The Lok Sabha is composed of representatives of the people chosen by direct election on the basis of adult suffrage.  That is why it is called the popular chamber.

Question 10. How many General Elections to the Lok Sabha have been held till date?

Answer.        As many as fifteen General Elections^[1] to the Lok Sabha  have been held till date.  The first General Elections were held from 25 October 1951 to 21 February 1952; the second from 24 February to 14 March 1957; the third from 19 to 25 February   1962;  the fourth from 17 to 21 February 1967; the fifth from 1 to 10 March 1971; the sixth from 16 to 20  March 1977; the seventh from 3 to 6  January 1980; the eighth from 24 to 28 December 1984; the ninth from 22 to 26 November 1989; the tenth from 20  May  to 15 June 1991; the eleventh from 27 April to 30 May 1996; the twelfth from 16 to 23 February 1998; the thirteenth  from 5 September to 6 October 1999; the fourteenth  from 20 April to 10 May 2004; and the fifteenth General Elections from 16 April to 13 May 2009.

Question 11.Who was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha?

Answer.        Shri G.V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha (15 May 1952- 27 February 1956).

Question 12.Who was the first Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha?

Answer.        Shri M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar was the first Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha (30 May 1952-7 March 1956).

 

Questions on the Composition of Lok Sabha

Question 13.What is the strength of the Lok Sabha as prescribed in the Constitution?

Answer.        The Lok Sabha, as per the Constitution, consists of not more than five hundred and thirty members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the States, not more than twenty members to represent the Union Territories [Article 81] and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the President, if he/she is of the opinion that the Anglo-Indian Community is not adequately represented in the Lok Sabha [Article 331].  The limit on the maximum number of members chosen directly from territorial constituencies in States may be exceeded if such an increase is incidental to the reorganisation of States by an Act of Parliament.

Question 14.What is the life of the Lok Sabha?

Answer.        Unless sooner dissolved by the President, the Lok Sabha continues for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer, as the expiration of the period of five years operates as a dissolution of the House.  However, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, this period may be extended by Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time and not exceeding in any case beyond a period of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate. 

Question 15. What is the quorum to constitute a sitting of the Lok Sabha?

Answer.        The quorum to constitute a sitting of the House is one-tenth of the total number of members of the House under article 100(3) of the Constitution.

Question 16. Which is the party  having the largest number of members in the Fifteenth Lok Sabha? 

Answer.        The Indian National Congress  is the  party  having the largest number of members (206) in the Fifteenth Lok Sabha followed by the Bharatiya Janata Party (116). (as on 21.12.2009)

 

Questions on the Officers of Lok Sabha

Question 17. Who is the Presiding Officer of the Lok Sabha?

Answer.        The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are the Presiding Officers of the Lok Sabha.

Question 18. What is the term of Office of the Speaker?

Answer.        The Speaker holds office from the date of his/her election till  the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after the dissolution of the one to which he/she was elected.

Question 19. Who presides over the Lok Sabha when the Speaker is absent from the sitting of the House?

Answer.        The Deputy Speaker presides over the Lok Sabha when the Speaker is absent from the sitting of the House.

Question 20. Who presides over the Lok Sabha when both the Speaker's and the Deputy Speaker's offices fall vacant?

Answer.        When the Offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant, the duties of the Office of the Speaker are performed by such member of  the Lok Sabha as the President may appoint for the purpose. The person so appointed is known as the Speaker pro tem.

Question 21. Who presides over the House in the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker?

Answer.        The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha provide that at the commencement of the House or from time to time, as the case may be, the Speaker shall nominate from amongst the members a Panel of not more than ten Chairmen, any one of whom may preside over the House in the absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker when so requested by the Speaker or, in his/her absence, by the Deputy Speaker.  A Chairman so nominated, holds office until a new Panel of Chairmen is nominated, unless he/she resigns earlier from the Panel or is appointed a Minister or elected as Deputy Speaker.  Generally, a Chairman from the Panel holds Office for one year but the same person may be renominated from time to time.

Question 22. Who is the present Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

Answer.        Smt. Meira Kumar.

Question 23. Who is the  present Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

Answer         Shri Kariya Munda.

Question 24. Who is the Leader of the House in the Fifteenth Lok Sabha?

Answer.        Shri  Pranab Mukherjee.

Question 25. Who is the Leader of  the Opposition in the Lok Sabha?

Answer.        Smt. Sushma Swaraj.

Question 26. Who is the Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha?

Answer.        Shri T. K. Viswanathan.

 

Questions on members of Lok Sabha

Question 27. How are the members of the Lok Sabha elected?

Answer.        The members of the Lok Sabha are elected through General Elections, held on the basis of  universal adult suffrage.  Parliament, from time to time, by law makes provision with respect to all matters relating to, or in connection with, elections to the Lok Sabha, including the preparation of electoral rolls, the delimitation of constituencies and all other matters necessary for securing the due constitution of the Lok Sabha.  When the seat of a member elected to the House becomes vacant or is declared vacant, or his/her election is declared void, the same is filled through bye-election.  

Question 28.What are the qualifications to become a member of the Lok Sabha?

Answer.        To become a member of the Lok Sabha, a person should be a citizen of India, not less than 25 years of age and possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament [Art. 84]

Question 29. Who are the nominated members of the Fifteenth Lok Sabha?

Answer.        In the Fifteenth Lok Sabha, two members, i.e. Smt. Ingrid Mcleod and Shri Charles Dias are the nominated members.

Question 30. Who is the longest serving member in the Fifteenth Lok Sabha?

Answer.        Shri Basudeb Acharia and Shri Manikrao Hodlya Gavit are the longest serving members in the Lok Sabha.

Question 31. Which member of  the Lok Sabha has become the Speaker of the House in    his very  first term?

Answer.        The members of the Lok Sabha who became the Speaker of the House in their first term itself are:

Sl.No	Name of the Speaker	Period	Lok Sabha
1.	Shri Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar	15.5.1952 to 27.2.1956	First
2.	Shri M.Ananthasayanam Ayyangar	8.3.1956 to 10.5.1957	First *
3.	Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy	17.3.1967 to 19.7.1969	Fourth
4.	Dr. Gurdial Singh Dhillon	8.8.1969 to 19.3.1971	Fourth **
5.	Shri Kawdoor Sadananda Hegde	21.7.1977 to 21.1.1980	Sixth
6.	Dr. Bal Ram Jakhar	22.1.1980 to 15.1.1985	Seventh
7.	Shri Manohar Joshi	10.5.2002 to 2.6.2004	Thirteenth

*        Shri M.A. Ayyangar became the Speaker in the first Lok Sabha due to the sudden demise of the then Speaker, Shri G.V. Mavalankar

**      Following the resignation of the then Speaker Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy to contest the Presidential elections, Dr.G.S. Dhillon was unanimously elected as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha on 8 August 1969. 

 

Questions on Role and Functions of Lok Sabha

Question 32. What are the powers of Lok Sabha relating to Money Bills?

Answer.        A Bill is deemed to be a 'Money Bill' if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters: (a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax; (b) the regulation of the borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India,  or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India; (c) the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund; (d) the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India; (e) the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the increasing of the amount of any such expenditure; (f) the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union  or of a State; or (g) any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f) [Art.110]. 

                     A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.  The Rajya Sabha cannot make amendments in a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and transmitted to it.  It can, however, recommend amendments in a Money Bill.  It is open to the Lok Sabha to accept or reject any or all of the recommendations of  the Rajya Sabha with regard to a Money Bill.  If the Lok Sabha accepts any of the recommendations of the  Rajya Sabha, the Money Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses with amendments recommended by the Rajya Sabha and accepted by the Lok Sabha and if the Lok Sabha does not accept any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha, the Money Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the  Lok Sabha without any of the amendments recommended by the  Rajya Sabha.  If a Money Bill  passed by  the Lok Sabha and transmitted to the Rajya Sabha  is not returned to the Lok Sabha within the said period of fourteen days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses at the expiration of the said period in the form in which it was passed by the Lok Sabha. 

Question 33.What is the legislative relationship between the  Lok Sabha and the  Rajya Sabha?

Answer.        In legislative matters, both the Houses enjoy almost equal powers except in the case of Money Bills.   The main function of both the Houses is to pass laws.  Every Bill has to be passed by both the Houses and assented to by the President before it becomes law.  In case of Money Bills, the Lok Sabha has overriding powers. 

Question 34. Is any deadlock between the two Houses possible?

Answer.        Yes. In the case of Bills other than Money Bills and Constitution Amendment Bills, a disagreement between the two Houses may arise when a Bill passed by one House is rejected by the other House; or the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the Bill; or more than six months have elapsed from the date of receipt  of the Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it.

Question 35. What is the mechanism for resolving such a deadlock between the two Houses?

Answer.        A joint sitting of both Houses   is convened by the President for this purpose. [Article 108]

Question 36. How many joint sittings of the Houses have been convened so far?

Answer.        So far, joint sittings of the two Houses have taken place  on three occasions.  The first joint sitting was held on 6 May 1961 following a disagreement between the two Houses over certain amendments to the Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1959.  This was followed by another sitting on 9 May 1961 when the Bill, as amended, was finally passed.  The second joint sitting was held on 16 May 1978, following the rejection by the Rajya Sabha of the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1977 and the Bill was passed.  The third joint sitting was held on 26 March 2002 when the motion to consider the  Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002, seeking to replace the Prevention of Terrorism Ordinance (POTO) as passed by the Lok Sabha was rejected by the Rajya Sabha.  At this sitting held for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002, the Bill was passed.

Question 37. Who presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses?

Answer.        The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses. [Article 118(4)]

Question 38. Does the Speaker have the right to vote?

Answer.          The Speaker has a casting vote in the event of a tie.  It is customary for the Presiding Officer to exercise the casting vote in such a manner as to maintain the status quo.

Question 39. How many Sessions of the Lok Sabha are held in a year?

Answer.        Normally three Sessions of the Lok Sabha are held in a year, viz.,

·         Budget Session                       -  February - May

·         Autumn or Monsoon Session     -  July - August 

·         Winter Session                       -  November - December

Question 40.What is meant by Adjournment, Prorogation and Dissolution of the Lok Sabha?

Answer.        ‘Adjournment’ is a postponement of the sitting or proceedings of the House from one time to another specified for the reassembling of the House.  During the course of a Session, the Lok Sabha may be adjourned from day to day or for more than a day.  It may also be adjourned    sine die which means the termination of a sitting of the House without any definite date being fixed for its next sitting.

‘Prorogation’ means the termination of a Session of the House by an order made by the  President under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution.  The Prorogation of the House may take place any time, even while the House is sitting.  However, usually, prorogation follows the adjournment of the sitting of the House sine die.

‘Dissolution’ of the House means the end of the life of the Lok Sabha either by an order made by the  President under article 85 (2) (b) of the Constitution or on the expiration of the period of five years from the date appointed for its first meeting. Dissolution puts an end to the representative character of the individuals who at the time compose the Lok Sabha.

On adjournment of the Lok Sabha or its adjournment sine die, the pending business does not lapse.  Bills pending before either House or Select/Joint Committee, Motions, Resolutions, and amendments which have already been moved and pending in the House, and business pending before a Parliamentary Committee do not lapse on prorogation whereas all business pending before the House or any of its Committee lapse on dissolution.  Prorogation terminates a Session and does not constitute an interruption in the continuity of life of the Lok Sabha which is brought to an end only by dissolution.

Question 41. What are the methods of voting in the Lok Sabha?

Answer.        The procedure regarding Voting and Divisions in the House is governed by article 100(1) of the Constitution and Rules 367, 367A, 367AA and 367B of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.  The various methods adopted for voting in the Lok Sabha are:

                   (i)        Voice Vote:  It is a simple method for deciding a question put by the Chair on a motion made by  a member.  Under this method, the question before the House is determined by the `Ayes' or the `Noes', as the case may be. 

(ii)         Division:  There are three methods of holding a Division, i.e.  (a) by operating the Automatic Vote Recording Equipment; (b) by distributing `Ayes' and `Noes' slips in the House; and (c) by members going into the Lobbies.  The Speaker directs the members for ‘Ayes’ to go to the right  Lobby and those for ‘Noes’ to the left Lobby where their votes are recorded.  However, the method of recording of votes in the Lobbies has become obsolete ever since the installation of the Automatic Vote Recording Machine. 

(iii)        Secret Ballot:  During an 'open' voting period, the individual results are shown by the three characters 'A', 'N' and 'O' on the Individual Result Display Panel. Secret  voting, if any, is on similar lines except that the Light Emitting Diode (LED) on the Individual Result Display Panel shows ‘P’ sign in amber light to show that the vote has been recorded.

 (iv)         Recording of votes by distribution of slips:  The method of recording of votes by members on `Aye' and `No' slips is generally resorted to in the eventuality of (i) sudden failure of the working of the Automatic Vote Recording Equipment; and (ii) at the commencement of the new Lok Sabha, before the seats/division numbers have been allotted to members. 

(v)           Physical count of Members in their places instead of a formal division:  If in the opinion of the Chair, a Division is unnecessarily claimed, he/she may ask the members who are for `Aye' and those for `No', respectively, to rise in their places and on a count being taken, he/she may declare the determination of the House.  In such a case, the particulars  of voting of the members are not recorded.

(vi)         Casting Vote:  If in a Division the number of `Ayes' and `Noes' is equal, the question is decided by the casting vote of the Chair.  Under the Constitution, the Speaker or the person acting as such cannot vote in a Division; he/she has only a casting vote which he/she must exercise in the case of equality of votes.

Question 42. What is meant by the Question Hour?

Answer.        Generally, the first hour of every sitting of  the House, devoted to asking and answering questions, is called the `Question Hour'.

Question 43. What are the various types of Questions?

Answer.        There are Starred Questions, Unstarred Questions, Short Notice Questions and Questions to Private Members.  A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House, which is distinguished by an  asterik.  To a starred question, members can put supplementaries, answers to which are given by the Minister on the floor of the House.

Unstarred  Question is one to which  a written answer is desired by the member and is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by the Minister.

A Short Notice Question is a question relating to a matter of public importance asked for oral answer by a member with notice shorter than ten clear days.  If the Speaker is of the opinion that the question  is of an urgent nature, the Minister concerned is asked if he/she is in a position to reply to the question at a shorter notice, and if so, on which date.  If the Minister concerned agrees to  reply, such a question is answered on a day to be indicated by him/her immediately after the questions which appeared on the list of questions for oral answer are disposed of.

A question may also be addressed to a Private Member provided the subject matter of the question relates  to some Bill, Resolution or other matter connected with the business of the House for which that member is responsible.  The procedure in regard to such questions is the same as that followed in the case of questions addressed to a Minister with such variations as the Speaker may consider necessary or convenient.  Supplementary questions are not generally permitted on such questions.  On being asked, clarifications may, however, be permitted.

Question 44. What is the maximum number of Questions admitted for a particular day? 

Answer.        The maximum number of Questions to be placed on the list of Questions for oral answers (Starred Question) on a particular day is 20, while the maximum number of questions to be placed on the list of Unstarred Question is 230.  However, the number may exceed by a maximum of 25 Questions pertaining to State/States under President’s Rule. 

Question 45. Is there any restriction regarding the number of notices that each member may give with regard to Questions?

Answer.       Under the Rules, there is no restriction on the number of notices of Starred and Unstarred Questions which a member can give.  But not more than five admitted questions, both Starred and Unstarred combined, by one member are placed on the list of questions for any one day.  Out of these 5 questions, not more than one question distinguished by the member with asterisk* as Starred is placed on the list of questions for oral answer.  This limit of one question for oral answer does not include any short notice question of the member which may have been admitted for answer on that day.  Also, a member can have more than one Starred question in the list if another question from any other day is transferred to the list on transfer or postponement.

Question 46. Who decides the admissibility of Questions?

Answer.        Admissibility of questions is governed by Rules, Directions by the Speaker as also precedents.  The Speaker, Lok Sabha, decides whether a question or a part thereof, is or is not admissible under the Rules.  He/she may disallow any question, or a part thereof, when in his/her opinion, it is an abuse of the right of questioning or is calculated to obstruct or prejudicially affect the procedure of the House or is in contravention of the Rules.  The right to ask a question is governed by certain conditions like it should be pointed, specific and confined to one issue only.  It should not contain arguments, inferences, ironical expressions, imputations, epithets or defamatory statements.

Question 47. How many types of Committees are there in the Lok Sabha?

Answer         By nature, Parliamentary Committees are of two kinds:  Ad hoc Committees and Standing Committees. 

Ad hoc Committees are constituted by the House or by the Presiding Officers, singly or jointly, for a specific purpose and cease to exist when they finish the task assigned to them and submit a report.  The usual   Ad hoc committees are the Select/Joint Committees on Bills and others like the Railway Convention Committee, set up to review the rate of dividend payable by Railways to the General Revenues, and those constituted  to enquire into and report on specific subjects. 

Standing Committees are those Committees which are either elected by the House or nominated by the Presiding Officer(s) (i.e., the Speaker in the case of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman in the case of the Rajya Sabha) periodically and are permanent in nature.  The Standing Committees of the Lok Sabha are: the Business Advisory Committee, Committee of Privileges, Committee on Absence of Members from the Sittings of the House, Committee on Government Assurances,  Committee on Papers Laid on the Table, Petitions Committee, Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions,  Committee on Subordinate Legislation, Estimates Committee, General Purposes Committee, House Committee, and Rules Committee.

Some of the Standing Committees of Lok Sabha are Joint Committees as members of both the Houses of Parliament are nominated/elected to them.   Such Committees include: Committee on Empowerment of Women, Committee on Public Undertakings, Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, Joint Committee on Offices of  Profit, Joint Committee on Salaries and Allowances of Members of Parliament, Library Committee, and Public Accounts Committee.

Besides, there are Departmentally related Standing Committees (DRSCs). 

Question 48.What are Departmentally-related Standing Committee (DRSCs)?

Answer.         The DRSC System, introduced in April 1993, brings all the        Ministries /Departments of the Government of India under their purview.

                     There are 24 such Committees, each consisting of not more than 31 members, out of which 21 members are nominated by the Speaker, Lok Sabha, and 10 members are nominated by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha. Of the 24 DRSCs, 16 Committees function under the administrative control of the Speaker, Lok Sabha, and 8 Committees under the administrative control of the Chairman, Rajya Sabha.

Question 49.What are the functions of the DRSCs?

Answer.       With reference to the Ministries/Departments under their purview, the functions of the Departmentally Related Standing Committees are: (a) consideration of Demands for Grants; (b) examination of Bills referred to them by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha, or the Speaker, Lok Sabha, as the case may be; (c) consideration of Annual Reports; and (d) consideration of national, basic, long-term policy documents presented to the House and referred to the Committee by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha, or the Speaker, Lok Sabha, as the case may be.  These Committees do not generally consider matters related to the day-to-day administration of the Ministries/Departments concerned and matters which are under consideration by other Parliamentary Committees.

Question 50.Which are the Departmentally related Standing Committees  attached to the Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha?

Answer.        The sixteen Departmentally related Standing Committees functioning under the administrative control of the Speaker, Lok Sabha, are: Committee on Agriculture; Committee on Chemicals and Fertilizers; Committee on Coal and Steel; Committee on Defence; Committee on Energy; Committee on External Affairs; Committee on Finance; Committee on Food, Consumer Affairs and Public Distribution; Committee on Information Technology; Committee on Labour; Committee on Petroleum and Natural Gas; Committee on Railways; Committee on Rural Development;  Committee on Social Justice and Empowerment; Committee on Urban Development; and Committee on Water Resources.

                     The eight DRSCs functioning under the administrative control of the Chairman, Rajya Sabha, are: Committee on Commerce; Committee on Health & Family Welfare; Committee on Home Affairs; Committee on Human Resource Development; Committee on Industry; Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law & Justice; Committee on Science & Technology, and Environment & Forests; and Committee on Transport, Tourism & Culture.

Question 51. What are Parliamentary Forums and what are their objectives?

Answer.     Parliamentary Forums have been constituted with the objective of equipping members with information and knowledge on specific issues of national concern and in assisting them to adopt a result-oriented approach towards related issues.  These Forums provide an opportunity to members to come together and discuss a particular issue and its wider ramifications.

Question 52. How many Parliamentary Forums have been constituted so far?

Answer.        The first Parliamentary Forum – on Water Conservation and Management – was constituted by the Speaker, Lok Sabha, on 12 August 2005.  Subsequently, four more Parliamentary Forums were constituted, namely the Parliamentary Forum on Youth, which has four sub-Forums, viz. on Sports and Youth Development, on Health, on Education, and on Employment;  Parliamentary Forum on Children; Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health; and Parliamentary Forum on Global Warming and Climate Change.  

Question 53. What is the structure of the Parliamentary Forums?

Answer.         Each Parliamentary Forum consists of not more than 31 members, excluding the Speaker of Lok Sabha, who is the ex officio President, and the Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha, the Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha, the Ministers-in-charge of the Ministries concerned with the subject and the Chairman of the Departmentally Related Standing Committee concerned who are the ex officio Vice-Presidents.  Each Forum has 21 members from the Lok Sabha and 10 members from the Rajya Sabha.

 

Questions relating to Legislation

Question 54. What is a  Bill?

Answer.        A Bill is the draft of a legislative proposal brought before the House for its approval.

Question 55. What are the different types of Bills?

Answer.        Bills initiated by Ministers are called Government Bills and those introduced by members who are not Ministers are known as Private Members' Bills. Depending on their contents, Bills may further be classified broadly into (a)  Original Bills (Bills embodying new proposals, ideas or policies); (b) Amending Bills (Bills which seek to modify, amend or revise the existing Acts); (c) Consolidating Bills (Bills which seek to consolidate existing laws on a particular subject;  (d) Expiring Laws (Continuance) Bills (Bills to continue an expiring Act); (e) Repealing Bills (Bills seeking to repeal existing Acts); (f) Bills to replace Ordinances; (g) Constitution (Amendment) Bills; and (h) Money and Financial Bills.

Question 56. Who decides whether a Bill is an ordinary Bill or a Money Bill?

Answer.        In case any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker, Lok Sabha, thereon, is final.  When a Bill is held by the Speaker to be a Money Bill, he/she endorses a certificate thereon signed by him/her to that effect that it is a Money Bill before the bill is sent to the Rajya Sabha or presented to the President for assent.

Question 57. What is the difference between a Bill and an Act?

Answer         A Bill is a draft legislative proposal before the House.  It becomes an Act only when passed by both the Houses of Parliament and assented to by the President.

Question 58. What are the various steps involved in the passage of a Bill?

Answer.        A Bill while being considered has to undergo three stages in each House of Parliament. The first stage consists of the introduction of the Bill which is done on a motion moved by either a Minister or a member.

During the second stage, any of the following motions can be moved: that the Bill be taken into consideration; that it be referred to a Select Committee of the House; that it be referred to a Joint Committee of the two Houses; or that it be circulated for the purpose of eliciting opinion thereon. Thereafter, the Bill is taken up for clause-by-clause consideration as introduced or as reported by the Select/Joint Committee.

The third stage is confined to the discussion on the motion that the Bill be passed and the Bill is passed/rejected either by voting or voice vote (or returned to the Lok Sabha by the Rajya Sabha in the case of a Money Bill).

Question 59. What is Budget?

Answer.        Budget is the `Annual Financial Statement'  or the Statement of the Estimated Receipts and Expenditure of the Government of India in respect of each financial year, presented to the Lok Sabha on such day as the President may direct.  A copy of the Budget is laid in the Rajya Sabha soon after its presentation in the Lok Sabha.  The preparation and presentation of the Budget for the approval of the Legislature is a constitutional obligation on the part of the Government, both at the Centre and in the States.

Question 60. When is the Budget Session of Parliament held?

Answer.        The Budget Session of Parliament is normally held during February to May of the year.  During this period, the  Budget comes before the Parliament for its deliberation, voting and approval; the Departmentally related Standing Committees consider the Demands for Grants of Ministries/Departments and report on the same to the Houses of Parliament.

Question 61. Who presents the Budget in the House?

Answer.        Two types of Budgets are usually presented in the House namely, the General Budget and the Railway Budget. The General Budget is presented by the Minister of Finance and the Railway Budget by the Minister of Railways.

 

 Procedural Devices for raising matters of public interest

Question 62. What is a Calling Attention ?

Answer.        Under this procedural device, a member may, with the prior permission of the Speaker, call the attention of a Minister to any matter of urgent  public importance and the Minister may make a brief statement or ask for time to make a statement later.  There can be no debate on such a statement at the time it is made.  But, brief clarifications can be sought from the Minister by the member who has initiated the Calling Attention and other members who are called by the Speaker.   Only those matters which are primarily the concern of the Union Government can be raised through a Calling Attention notice.  The Calling Attention  procedure is an Indian innovation which combines asking a question with supplementaries and making brief comments;  the Government also gets adequate opportunity to state its case.  The Calling Attention matter is not subject to the vote of the House. 

Question 63. What is a Motion?

Answer.        The term `motion' in parliamentary parlance means any formal proposal  made  to the House by a member for the purpose of  eliciting a decision of the House.  It is phrased in such a way that, if adopted, it will purport to express the judgement or will of the House.  Any matter of importance can be the subject matter of a motion.  The mover of a motion frames it in a form in which he/she wishes it ultimately to be passed by the House and on which a vote of the House can conveniently be taken.

Question 64. What are the different types of Motion?

Answer.       Motions may be classified into three broad categories, namely, substantive motions, substitute motions and subsidiary motions. 

                     A substantive motion is a self-contained, independent proposal made in reference to a subject which the mover wishes to bring forward.  All Resolutions,  Motions for election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker, and Motion of Thanks on the Address by the President, etc. are examples of substantive  motions.  

                     A substitute motion, as its name suggests, is moved in substitution of the original motion for taking into consideration  a policy or situation or statement or any other matter.   Amendments to substitute motions are not permissible. 

                     Subsidiary motions depend upon or relate to other motions or follow up on some proceedings in the House.  By itself, it has no meaning and is not capable of stating the decision of the House without reference to the original motion or the proceedings of the House.

Question 65. What is an Adjournment Motion?

Answer.         Adjournment Motion is the procedure for adjournment of the business of the House for the purpose of discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance, which can be moved with the consent of the Speaker.  The Adjournment Motion, if admitted, leads to setting aside of the normal business of the House for discussing the matter mentioned in the motion.  To be in order, an adjournment motion must raise a matter of sufficient public importance to warrant interruption of normal business of the House and the question of public importance is decided on merit in each individual case.  The purpose of an Adjournment Motion is to take the Government to task for a recent act of omission or commission having serious consequences.  Its adoption is regarded as a sort of censure of the Government.

Question 66. What is a Motion of No-confidence?

Answer.        The Government must always enjoy majority support in the popular House to remain in power.  If need be, it has to demonstrate its strength on the floor of the House by moving a Motion of Confidence and winning the confidence of the House.  In view of the express constitutional provision regarding collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha, a motion expressing want of confidence in an individual Minister is out of order; under the Rules, only a motion expressing want of confidence in the Council of Ministers as a body is admissible.  Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha lays down the procedure for moving a Motion of No-Confidence in the Council of Ministers.  The usual format of such a motion is that "this House expresses its want of confidence in the Council of Ministers". A Motion of No-confidence need not set out any grounds on which it is based.  Even when grounds are mentioned in the notice and read out in the House, they do not form part of the No-confidence Motion.

Question 67. What is a No-Day-Yet-Named Motion?

Answer         If the Speaker admits notice of a motion and no date is fixed for its discussion, it is called a ‘No-Day-yet-Named Motion’ and a copy of the admitted motion is forwarded to the Minister concerned with the subject matter of the motion.

                     Admitted notices of such motions may be placed before the Business Advisory Committee for selecting the motions for discussion in the House according to the urgency and importance of the subject-matter thereof, and allotting time for the same.

Question 68. What is a Half-an-Hour Discussion?

Answer.          The procedure regarding Half-an-hour discussion is regulated by Rule 55 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha and Direction 19 of the Directions by the Speaker.  Under this, a member may give notice to raise a discussion on a matter of sufficient public importance which has been the subject of a recent question, Starred, Unstarred or Short Notice Question, and the answer to which needs further elucidation on a matter of fact.  A notice is also required to be accompanied by an explanatory note stating the reasons for raising discussion and should also be signed.  Only one notice of Half-an-hour discussion is put down for a sitting and no formal motion is moved in the House nor does voting take place.  The member who has given notice makes a short statement and the members who have previously intimated the Speaker and have secured one of the four places in the ballot are permitted to put a question each for the purpose of further elucidating any matter of fact.  Thereafter, the Minister concerned replies briefly.  Half-an-hour discussions are held on such days as may be recommended by the Business Advisory Committee and approved by the House.

Question 69. What is meant by “Discussion under Rule 193”?

Answer.     Discussion under Rule 193 does not involve a formal motion before the House.  Hence no voting can take place after discussion on matters under this rule.  The member who gives notice may make a short statement and such of the members as have previously intimated to the Speaker, may be permitted to take part in the discussion.  The member who raises the discussion has no right of reply.  At the end of the discussion, the Minister concerned gives a brief reply.

Question 70. What is a Short Duration Discussion?

Answer.       In order to provide opportunities to members to discuss matters of urgent public importance, a convention was established in March 1953 which was incorporated later into the Rules of Procedure and conduct of Business in Lok Sabha under Rule 193 as Short Duration Discussion.  Under this Rule, members can raise discussion for short durations without a formal motion or vote thereon.

Question 71. What is meant by matters under Rule 377?

                      Matters, which are not points of order can be raised by way of Special Mentions under Rule 377.  This procedural device, framed in 1954, provides opportunity to the members to raise matters of general public interest.  At present, the number of matters that can be raised by members under Rule 377 on a single day is 20.

Question 72. What is ‘Zero Hour’?

Answer.        The time immediately following the Question Hour  and laying of papers and before any listed business is taken up in the House has come to be popularly known as the `Zero Hour'.  As it starts around 12 noon,  this period is euphemistically termed as `Zero Hour'.  For raising matters during the so-called ‘Zero Hour’ in Lok Sabha, members give notice before 10 a.m. everyday to the Speaker stating clearly the subject which they consider to be important and wish to raise in the House.  It is, of course, for the Speaker to allow or not allow raising of such matters in the House.  The term `Zero Hour' is not formally recognised in our parliamentary procedure.  

Question 73. How many matters are allowed to be raised under ‘Zero Hour’?

Answer.      At present, twenty matters per day as per their priority in the ballot are allowed to be raised during ‘Zero Hour’.  The order in which the matters will be raised is decided by the Speaker at his/her discretion.  In the first phase, 5 matters of urgent national and international importance, as decided by the Chair, are taken up after Question Hour and laying of papers, etc.  In the second phase, the remaining admitted matters of urgent public importance are taken up after 6.00 P.M. or at the end of the regular business of the House.

Question 74. What is a Resolution?

Answer         A Resolution is a formal expression of the sense, will or action of the Legislative Body.  Resolutions may be broadly divided into three categories:

·         Resolutions which are expression of opinion by the House – since the purpose of such a Resolution is merely to obtain an expression of opinion of the House, the Government is not bound to give effect to the opinions expressed in these Resolutions.

·         Resolutions which have statutory effect – the notice of a Statutory Resolution is given in pursuance of a provision in the Constitution or an Act of Parliament.  Such a Resolution, if adopted, is binding on the Government and has the force of law.

·         Resolutions which the House passes in the matter of control over its own proceedings.  It has the force of law and its validity cannot be challenged in any court of law.  The House, by such a Resolution, evolves, sometimes, its own procedure to meet a situation not specifically provided for in the Rules.

Question 75. What is a Point of Order?

Answer:         A Point of Order relates to the interpretation or enforcement of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the House or convention or such articles of the Constitution as regulate the business of the House and raises a question which is within the cognizance of the Speaker.

A Point of Order may be raised only in relation to the business before the House at the moment, provided that the Speaker may permit a member to raise a Point of Order during the interval between the termination of one item of business and the commencement of another if it relates to maintenance of order in, or arrangement of business before, the House.  A member may formulate a Point of Order and the Speaker shall decide whether the point raised is a Point of Order and if so give his/her decision thereon, which is final.

Question 76. Does the Speaker have the power to adjourn the House or suspend the sitting?

Answer:         Under Rule 375, in the case of a grave disorder arising in the House, the Speaker may, if he/she thinks it necessary to do so, adjourn the House or suspend any sitting for a time to be named by him/her.

Question 77. When does the President address the Parliament?

Answer.        The  Constitution provides for an Address by the President to either House or  both  Houses   assembled together [Article 86(1)].  The Constitution  also makes incumbent upon the President to address both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first Session after  each General Election to the Lok Sabha and at the commencement of the first Session each year and inform Parliament of the causes of its summons. [Article 87(1)]. The matters referred to in the  Address by the President to the Houses are discussed on a  Motion of Thanks moved by a member and seconded by another member.

Question 78. Can members raise questions on the Address by the President?

 Answer.        No member can raise questions on the Address by the President. Any action on the part of a member which mars the occasion   or creates disturbance is punishable by the House to which that    member belongs. Discussion on matters referred to in the Address takes place on a Motion of Thanks moved by a member and seconded by another member.  The scope of discussion on the Address is very wide and the functioning of the entire administration is open for discussion; the limitations inter alia are that members should not refer to matters which are not the direct responsibility of the Government of India, and the name of the President should not be brought in during the debate since the Government, and not the President, is responsible for the contents of the Address. 

 

 Parliamentary Privileges/Immunities, Salaries and Emoluments

Question 79. What are parliamentary privileges?

Answer         The term `parliamentary privilege' refers to certain rights and immunities enjoyed by each House of Parliament and Committees of each House collectively, and by members  of each House individually,  without which they cannot discharge their functions efficiently and effectively.   The object of parliamentary privileges is to safeguard the freedom, the authority and the dignity of Parliament.  The powers, privileges and immunities of either House of Parliament and of its Committees and members have been laid down in article 105 of the Constitution. The House has the power to punish any person who commits a contempt of the House or a  breach of  any of its privileges.

Question 80. Are the parliamentary privileges codified in India?

Answer.        No law has so far been enacted by Parliament in pursuance of article 105(3) of the Constitution to define the powers, privileges and immunities available to each House and its members and the Committees thereof.   In the absence of any such law, the powers, privileges and immunities of the Houses of Parliament, and of the members and the Committees thereof, shall be those of that House and of its members and Committees immediately before the coming into force of section 15 of the Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978.

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES NOTIFICATION 2012

India's top most exam, Civil Services Examination, is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) every year to select the best candidates into the top level administration of India. The dates of the Civil Services Examination-2012 have been announced  by the UPSC. 

IMPORTANT DATES:

• Date of Notification:-- 4th February, 2012
• Last Date for Applying:-- 5th March, 2012
• Date of Civil Services Preliminary Test, 2012:-- 20th May 2012; 1 Day
• Date of Civil Services Mains Test, 2012:-- From 5th October 2012; 21 Days

Notification-Civil Services Examination 2012

INDIAN HISTORY PRACTICE MCQs

1. The first battle of the American War of Independence took place in the year
(a) 1776, 4 July
(b) 1778, 14 August
(c) 1776, 28 July
(d) 1789, 14 July
Ans. (a)
2. The main effect of the American War of Independence was
(a) establishment of a republic
(b) democracy
(c) socialism
(d) capitalism
Ans. (a)
3. The French society was divided into
(a) one group
(b) two groups
(c)Three groups
(d) four groups
Ans. (c)
4. The French Queen, Marie Antonitte, was termed as
(a) empty headed
(b) hot headed
(c) high headed
(d) dumb headed
Ans. (a)
5. The French King Louis XVI ruled according to
(a) socialistic ideas
(b) divine right theory
(c) orthodox method
(d) oligarchy rules
Ans. (b)
6. 18th century has been correctly called the
(a) age of rationalism
(b) age of reason
(c) age of positive thinking
(d) age of experimentation
Ans. (b)
7. The French royal prison—the (Bastille) was attacked in
(a) 12 July, 1789
(b) 13 July, 1789
(c) 14 July, 1789
(d) 16 July, 1790
Ans. (c)
8. Austria, Russia and Prussia formed an alliance called
(a) the revolutionary alliance
(b) triple alliance
(c) holy alliance
(d) triple entente
Ans. (c)
9. Louis XVI and Marie Antonitte were executed alongwith their children in
(a) l793
(b) 1794
(c) 1795
(d) 1799
Ans. (a)
10. The most important effect of the French Revolution was the birth of the
(a) republic in France
(b) socialism
(c) democracy
(d) capitalism
Ans. (a)
11. Napoleon introduced a new set of laws called
(a) Napoleonic code
(b) French laws
(c) Europeon laws
(d) Prussian laws
Ans. (a)
12. Bismarck was called the man who gave Germany the policy of
(a) blood & iron
(b) holy wars
(c) holy alliance
(d) triple alliance
Ans. (a)
13. Sardinia was the strongest state of
(a) Germany
(b) France
(c) Italy
(d) Holland
Ans. (c)
14. Italy was unified with the occupation of the city of Rome in
(a) 1868
(b) 1869
(c) 1870
(d) 1872
Ans. (c)
15. Karl Marx was the first man to introduce
(a) scientific socialism
(b) marxian socialism
(c) democracy
(d) capitalism
Ans. (a)
16. The church was very corrupt and supported
(a) the monarchy
(b) socialism
(c) revolutionaries
(d) kingship
Ans. (a)
17. The great French socialist Babeuf was executed in the year
(a) 1797
(b) 1798
(c) 1799
(d) 1796
Ans. (a)
18. The communist manifesto appeared in the year
(a) 1849
(b) 1848
(c) 1850
(d) 1852
Ans. (b)
19. Prussia was the strongest state of Germany before the unification was dominated by the
(a) monarchs
(b) landlords (Junkers)
(c) lords
(d) industrialists
Ans. (b)
20. “An address to the working class” was drafted by
(a) Karl Peters
(b) Babeuf
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Stalin
Ans. (c)
21. The first international introduced
(a) socialism
(b) communalism
(c) democracy
(d) dictatorship
Ans. (a)
22. The Paris Commune fought for
(a) workers rights
(b) landlords rights
(c) industrialists rights
(d) people rights
Ans. (a)
23. The Paris Commune took place in the year
(a) 28 March, 1871
(b) 28 March, 1872
(c) 28 March, 1873
(d) 28 March, 1874
Ans. (a)
24. The second international was the 100 years celebration of the
(a) American War of Independence
(b) French Revolution
(c) Italian Unification
(d) German Unification
Ans. (b)
25. The Second International declared 1st May as
(a) workers day
(b) liberation day
(c) socialist day
(d) capitalist day
Ans. (a)

INDIAN HISTORY PRACTICE MCQs

1. After the Mauryas the most important kingdom in the Deccan and Central India was
that of the:
(a) Vakatakas
(b) Cholas
(c) Satavahanas
(d) Pallavas
Answer. (c)
2. Pushyamitra Shunga:
(a) Defended the Magadhan empire against the Bactrian Greeks
(b) Is said to have performed Asvamedha sacrifice
(c) Was persecutor of Buddhism according to the Divyavadana
(d) Did all the above
Answer. (c)
3. The first to establish trade contacts with the Roman empire were:
(a) Indo Greeks
(b) Kushanas
(c) Tamils
(d) Sakas
Answer. (c)
4. Sakas were finally overthrown by:
(a) Kanishka
(b) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(c) Devapala
(d) Gautamiputra Satakarni
Answer. (d)
5. With which of the following periods do we
associate the ‘microlith’ implements?
(a) Paleolithic
(b) Mesolithic
(c) Neolithic
(d) Chalcolithic
ANSWER. (b)
6. Which one of the following kings controlled the famous silk-route of Central Asia?
(a) Harsha
(b) Chandragupta-II
(c) Ashoka
(d) Kanishka
Answer. (d)
7. Which of the following statements regarding the Indus
Valley Civilization is not true ?
(a) The excavations at Harappa are attributed to R.B. Daya Ram Sahni
(b) The Assembly Hall was discovered at Mohenjo-daro
(c) The open courtyard was the basic feature of house planning
(d) The Indus Valley people were not acquainted with the art of spinning and
weaving
ANSWER. (d)
8. Saka era was founded by:
(a) Ashoka
(b) Harsha
(c) Kanishka
(d) Vikramaditya
Answer. (c)
9. The main cause of the tribal wars among the early Aryan settlers, the most famous of
Which is mentioned in Rigveda as “Battle of Ten Kings”, was:
(a) Cattle and land disputes
(b) Foreign invasions
(c) Showing supremacy
(d) Intrigues of the leaders
ANSWER. (a)
10. Jainism was divided into two sects known as:
(a) Kapalika and Kalamukha
(b) Mahayana and Hinayana
(c) Ajivika and Nyaya Vaisesika
(d) Svetambara and Digambara
ANSWER. (d)
11. The first major inscription in classical Sanskrit is that of:
(a) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(b) Kanishka I
(c) Rudradaman
(d) Samudragupta
Answer. (c)
12. The Fourth Buddhist Council was held by:
(a) Ashoka
(b) Kanishka
(c) Chandragupta
(d) Harashavardhana
ANSWER. (b)
13. With reference to Delhi Sultanate who of the following created the ‘Diwan-i-Amir’ Koh
(Department of agriculture)?
(a) Alauddin Khalji
(b) Firu Shah Tughluq
(c) Muhammad bin Tugluq
(d) Shamsu d-din lltutmish
Answer. (c)
14. Which one of the following places was famous as a seat of Mahayana learning?
(a) Nalanda
(b) Taxila
(c) Varanasi
(d) Sarnath
ANSWER. (a)
15. India’s earliest contact with Islam came through:
(a) Arab invasion of Sind in 7th century
(b) Turkish invasions in 11th century
(c) Sufi saints
(d) Arab merchants on Malabar coast
Answer. (d)
16. Which of the following religions got spread in different parts of Asia?
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Hinduism
(d) None of these
ANSWER. (a)
17. Porus was defeated by Alexander at the Battle of …….
(a) Buxar
(b) Heart
(c) Kabul
(d) Hydaspes
ANSWER. (d)
18. Between which of the following was the ancient town of Takshasila located?
(a) Indus and Jehelum
(b) Jhelum and Chenab
(c) Chenab and Ravi
(d) Ravi and Beas
ANSWER. (a)
19. Chronologically arrange the accomplishments of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
1. Quarachil Expedition
2. Token currency
3. Transfer of capital
4. Revenue reforms
(a) 3, 2, 1, 4
(b) 1, 4, 3, 2
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer. (a)
20. The name by which Ashoka is generally referred to in his inscriptions is:
(a) Priyadarsi
(b) Dharmadeva
(c) Chakravarti
(d) Dhamiakirti
ANSWER. (a)

INDIAN HISTORY MCQs

1. Consider the following statements:
1. Satavahana rulers persecuted the Buddhists.
2. Pushyamitra Sunga patronised the Buddhists.
3. Shashanka cut off the Bodhi tree at Bodha Gaya.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer. (d)
2. Who among the following was called as ‘Father of Indian Renaissance’?
(a) B. G. Tilak
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Answer. (d)
3. Which of the following statements is incorrect
regarding pre-historic art ?
(a) Paleolithic and Mesolithic people practised painting.
(b) Pre-historic art appears at several places, but Bhimbetka
is the most striking site with 500 painted rock shelters.
(c) Many birds, animals and human beings are painted.
(d) The paintings depict the religious beliefs of the people.
ANSWER. (d)
4. The only ruler of India who ruled over territories in Central Asia beyond the Pamirs was:
(a) Kanishka
(b) Ashoka
(c) Samudragupta
(d) Harsha
Answer. (a)
5. With which period do we associate the ‘Megaliths’ ?
(a) Neolithic
(b) Chalcolithic
(c) Mesolithic
(d) Pleistocene
ANSWER. (a)
6. Which was the first newspaper to be published in India?
(a) Bombay Samachar
(b) Bengal Gazette
(c) Bengal Chronicle
(d) The Hindu
Answer. (b)
7. Vikrama era started from:
(a) 57 B.C.
(b) 78 A.D.
(c) 57 A.D.
(d) 78 B.C.
Answer. (a)
8. Consider the following statements :
1. Lime mortar was never used at
Mohenjo-daro in the construction of
dwellings.
2. At Dholavira, stone was never used in the
Construction of dwellings.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER. (d)
9. The King Kanishka held a great Buddhist Council under whose presidentship?
(a) Asvaghosha
(b) Sanghraksha
(c) Nagasena
(d) Vasumitra
Answer. (d)
10. Under which one of the following system of assessment, the British Government collected
revenue directly from the farmers?
(a) Zamindari
(c) Annawari
(b) Ryotwari
(d) Desaiwari
Answer. (b)
11. Who of the following deciphered the Brahmi script?
(a) William Jones
(b) James Princep
(c) John Marshall
(d) EJH Mackay
Answer. (b)
12. With reference to the Revolt of 1857, who of the following laid siege to Jhansi in March
1858?
(a) Major General Wyndham
(b) Major General Havelock
(c) Sir Colin Campbell
(d) Sir Hugh Rose
Answer. (d)
13. From the scattered skeletal remains of the Harappans found at different sites,
the most appropriate conclusion to be drawn would be that there was :
(a) Mass execution
(b) Casual burial of human bodies
(c) Some kind of military assault
(d) Great epidemic
ANSWER. (d)
14. Which one of the following was not an Indus Valley Civilization site?
(a) Lothal
(b) Patliputra
(c) Rangpur
(d) Suktagendor
ANSWER. (b)
15. Which one of the following statements about Mohenjo-daro is correct ?
(a) The houses were made of cut and polished stone
(b) Axes, chisels, knives and fish-hook were all made of iron
(c) The floor of the Great was made of burnt brick
(d) Gold ornaments were unknown to the inhabitants
ANSWER. (c)
16. The achievements of Samudragupta are described in the:
(a) Hathigumpha inscription
(b) Allahabad pillar inscription
(c) Girnar inscription
(d) Sarnath inscription
Answer. (b)
17. Which of the following statements is false with regard to the social conditions in the
Gupta period?
(a) Public and personal morality had reached a very low point
(b) The caste system was liberalised
(c) The living standard of the common people was simple but the town life was glamorous
and sophisticated
(d) The system of devadasis was in vogue during this period
Answer. (a)
18. The first writer to use Urdu as the medium of poetic expression was:
(a) Amir Khusrau
(b) Mirza Ghalib
(c) Bahadur Shah Zafar
(d) Faiz
Answer. (a)
19. Who is known as the ‘Grand Old Man of India’?
(a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(b) C. Rajgopalachari
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Dadabhai Naoroj
Answer. (d)
20. Upanishads, also known as the Vedantas, are in number.
(a) 96
(b) 105
(c) 108
(d) 112
ANSWER. (c)

WORLD GEOGRAPHY MCQs

1.Which country fails in all three natural regions Hot desert, Mediterranean and Cool
temperate type of climate ?
(a) Chile
(b) Israel
(c) Lebanon
(d)None of the above
ANSWER (A)
2.Which vegetation is called natural cattle country ?
(a) Savanna
(b) Downs
(c) Selva
(d) Prairies
ANSWER (B)
3.Which one of the following deserts is famous for its deposits of nitrates ?
(a) Atacama
(b) Kalahari
(c) Gobi
(d)Sahara
ANSWER (A)
4. Tropical deciduous or monsoonal forests occur in :
(a) Siberia, Alaska, USA, Canada
(b) New Zealand, Spain, Portugal, France
(c) Netherlands, Russia, Norway, UK
(d) Burma, India, Thailand, Brazil
ANSWER (D)
5.Postaz are temperate grassland in :
(a) Australia
(b) South Africa
(c)Hungary
(d) Egypt
ANSWER (C)
6. Deciduous trees are those :
(a) that grow up straight
(b) that grow plenty in dry places
(c) that never bear fruits
(d) that shed their leaves during a certain
season ‘
ANSWER (D)
7. Which of the following natural regions is not found in the Torrid Zone ?
(a) Equatorial forests
(b) Monsoon regions
(c) Temperate deserts
(d) Tropical grasslands
ANSWER (C)
8. Match the following :
Mineral Producing Area
A. Iron ore 1.Arkansas
B. Copper 2. Cuba
C. Aluminium 3. Kazakhstan
D. Nickel 4 . Krivoy Rog.
A B C D
(a) 1243
(b) 1342
(c) 4213
(d) 4312
ANSWER (D)
9. Long treeless grassy palms are characteristics of
(a) Campos
(b) Llanos
(c) Pampas
(d) Prairies
ANSWER (C)
10. The Mediterranean lands are often called the Worlds:
(a) grazing lands
(b) forest lands
(c) orchard lands
(d) paddy lands
ANSWER (C)
11. Which of the following regions gets no rainfall throughout the year ?
(a) The Equatorial Region
(b) The Tundra Region
(c) The Himalayan Region
(d) The Mediterranean Region
ANSWER (B)
12.Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Tundra region-Lichens and Mosses
(b) Mediterranean region- Groundnut andPotato
(c)China Type region-Tea and Sugarbeet
(d)West-European region–Corn and
Wheat
ANSWER (A)
13.Summer rains in Australia broadly decreases From
(a) east to west
(b) west to east
(c) north to south
(d) south to north
ANSWER (C)
14. The hot desert of the world are generally Found near:
(a) the equator
(b) the doldrums
(c) the horse latitude
(d) the Tundras
ANSWER (C)
15 Match the following :
A. Mantle 1. Heavy rocks of lithosphere
B. Sima 2. Layer below earth’s crust
C. Sial 3. Light rocks of lithosphere
D. Bill 4. Small peninsula
A B C D
(a )3142
(b) 4321
(c) 2134
(d) 1234
ANSWER (C)
16. ln which type of rocks are coal and petroleum found?
(a) Granite
(b) igneous
(c) Metamorphic
(D) Sedimentary
ANSWER (D)
17.Molten rock below the surface of the earth is called :
(a) Basalt
(b) Laccolith
(c) Lava
(d) Magma
ANSWER (D)
18. What is weathering ‘?
(a) Removal of earth’s material by riveraction `
(b) Removal of earth’s material by wind action
(C) Breaking up and disintegration of rocks
(d)Hardening up of rocks due to weather Conditions
ANSWER (C)
19. Which of the following predominantly acts as the agent of chemical erosion of soil ?
(a) Glacier
(b) Seawave
(c) Underground water
(d) Wind
ANSWER (C)
20. Which of the following represents a process of chemical weathering ?
(a) Thermal expansion a1 contraction
(b) Mass exfoliation
(c) Hydration and Hydrolysis
(c) Frost action and crystal growth
ANSWER (C)

HISTORY MCQs

1. The Post-Gupta social structure in North India was marked by the —
(A) Growing importance of women
(B) Lessening of untouchability
(C) Proliferation of castes
(D) Revival of slavery
Ans. (C)
2. The Jaunpuri or the Sharqi style of architecture developed during the reign of—
(A) Mubarak Shah Sharqi
(B) Shamsuddin Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(C) Mahmud Shah Sharqi
(D) Hussain Shah Sharqi
Ans. (B)
3. Uposatha was practiced —
(A) By widows of the Brahmnical religion through periodic fasting
(B) By Buddhist monks in an assembly
(C) By the Kapalikas as symbolic renunciation of pleasure in external objects
(D) By the Tantrilcs as part of their worship of shakti
Ans. (B)
4. The Polygars were—
(A) House-traders from Afghanistan during the Mughal period
(B) A famous caste of Bankers of Marwars
(C) Chiefs subordinate to the nayakas the Vijaynagar kingdoms
(D) Agents of the European companies for purchase of silk and Muslin in Bengal
Ans. (C)
5. Among the four dynasties listed below which ones minted coins made of lead?
1. Mauryas
2. Satavahanas
3. Western Kshatrapas
4. Guptas
(A) 1, 2
(B) 1, 2, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4
(D) 3, 4
Ans. (C)
6. The office of the Wakil-us saltanate was held during the first four years of Akbar’s reign by—
(A) Tardi Beg
(B) Bairam Khan
(C) Munim Khan
(D) Shamsuddin Atka
Ans. (B)
7. The theory of Sulh-i-Kul was propounded by—
(A) Nizamuddin Aulia
(B) Akbar
(C) Zainu Abidin
(D) Shaikh Nasiruddin chiragh
Ans. (B)
8. The greatest painter of birds at Jahangir’s Court was—
(A) Khwaja Abdus Samad
(B) Syed Au Tabrizi
(C) Basawan
(D) Mansur
Ans. (D)
9. According to the periplus sea voyages to India were taken in the mouth of Epiphi or —
(A) October
(B) Ju1y
(C) June
(D) December
Ans. (D)
10. Coconut cultivation in India was known from the period of the —
(A) Mauryas
(B) Satavahanas and Kshatrapas
(C) Guptas
(D) Pahallava and Western ranges
Ans. (D)
11. Which of the following terms mentioned in early sources denoted land measure?
1. Nivartana
2. Kulyavapa
3. Dronavapa
4. Rathya
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below —
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 1, 2, 3
(D) 3, 4
Ans. (C)
12. Who among the following is credited with the authorship Maju-al-Bahrain?
(A) Akbar
(B) Dara Shikoh
(C) Jahangir
(D) Humayun
Ans. (B)
13. Akbar’s buildings at Fatehpur Sikri are famous for—
(A) Synthesis of trabeate and accurate styles
(B) Construction of the first bulbous dome in India
(C) The use of marble on an extensive scale
(D) Frequent employment of pietra dura
Ans. (A)
14. Which of the following were considered untouchable in early India?
1. Charamakara
2. Svarnakara
3. Paraiyar
4. Rathakara
Select the correct answer given below —
(A) 1, 2
(B) 1, 3
(C) 1, 4
(D) 3, 4
Ans. (C)
15. Ibrahim Khan Gardi was an important military officers of—
(A) Haider Ali
(B) Ahamadshah Durrani
(C) Peshwa Balaji Baji Rao
(D) Raja Suraj Mal
Ans. (C)
16. Which one of the following was known as Manigramam?
(A) The quarters for jewellers
(B) The principal seat of the worship of Yaska manibhadra
(C) An association of traders
(D) Villages granted tax free to brahmanas in the Chola kingdom
Ans. (C)
7. Which one of the following pairs are not correctly matched?
(A) Jaunpur: Atala Mosque
(B) Maiwa: Jahaz Mahal
(C) Ajmer: Quwwat-ul-Islam
(D) A Gulburga: Jama Masjid
Ans. (C)
18. Official stamping of weights and measures and their periodical inspection are prescribed by —
(A) Manu
(B) Narada
(C) Brihaspati
(D) Parasara
Ans. (A)
19. Which one of the following pairs of persons and events is correctly matched?
(A) Bukka I: Conquest of Madurai
(B) Rama Ray: Battle of Raichur
(C) Krishnadeva Battle of Rakkas Ray Tangadi
(D) Tirumala Ray: Transfer of capital to Vallore
Ans. (A)
20. Which one of the following denoted a series of coins?
(A) Gajasataka
(B) Gadhiya
(C) Hiranaydama
(D) Katisama
Ans. (B)
21. Which one of the following was a Portuguese coin that was in circulation in the western coastal areas of the Vijynagar kingdom?
(A) Dinar
(B) Guzado
(C) Florin
(D) Ducat
Ans. (B)
22. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Kshauma : Textile
(B) Pada : Coin denomination
(C) Adhaka : Architectural fragment
(D) Drona : Measure of rainfall
Ans. (D)
23. Sir dia Sar na dia is associated with—
(A) Guru Teg Bahadur
(B) Guru Govind Singh
(C) Guru Harkishan
(D) Guru Arjundeva
Ans. (A)
24. Which of the following terms were used to refer to rural land holders in Eastern India during the Gupta period?
(1) Agraharin
(2) Kutumbin
(3) Mahaltara
(4) Bhogika
(A) 1, 2
(B) 3, 4
(C) 1, 4
(D) 2, 3
Ans. (D)
25. The valangai (right hand) and idangai (left hand) divison of South Indian Society is first noticed in the —
(A) Sangam period
(B) Pahallava period
(C) Chola period
(D) Nayka period
Ans. (B)

INDIA YEAR BOOK 2011

DOWNLOAD FREE INDIA YEAR BOOK 2011

Solved General Studies Paper -I of Civils Main Exam 2011

General Studies Paper – I

1. Answer any three of the following in about 250 words each:         20x3=60

(a) ‘Essentially all that is contained in part IV- A of the Constitution is just a codification of tasks integral to Indian way of life.’ Critically examine the statement.

Answer:

Article 51A of the part IV-A of the Indian Constitution lists the fundamental duties of the citizens which were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act. Fundamental duties are restrictions on the citizens, but they are not enforceable in a court of law. They act more like a lighthouse to guide citizens’ conduct and bring it in conformity with the Indian way of life. They include abiding the constitution and respecting its ideals and institutions such as the National Flag and the National Anthem. Fundamental Duties also include cherishing and following the noble ideals that inspired our freedom struggle, upholding the sovereignty and integrity of the nation, rendering national services, promoting harmony and brotherhood, renouncing practices derogatory to the dignity of women, safeguarding public property, developing scientific temper etc.

Incidents like destruction of public property by violent mobs and protestors, delivering of hate speeches to cause disharmony and rift among communities, mounting corruption, declining child sex ratio, reports of practices like sati which still is continuing in some parts of the country point towards the fact that the republic has not succeeded completely in instilling the values contained in part IV-A, in the hearts and minds of the Indian citizens.

These values should be taught from the early childhood through a free, fair, secular, and non-discriminatory education system. The society also needs role models from all walks of life such as politics, business, administration, judiciary, academia etc.  so that national identity becomes paramount and the values are most cherished.


(b) ‘The exercise of executive clemency is not a privilege but is based on several principles, and discretion has to be exercised in public consideration.’ Analyse this statement in the context of judicial powers of the President of India.

Answer:

Article 72 of the Indian Constitution empowers the president to pardon, remit, commute, respite and reprieves a person of any offence. Supreme Court has held that pardoning power of the President is subject to judicial review and it should not be handled dishonestly in the public interest.

The question of executive clemency has come into focus due to the recent decision of the President’s rejecting the mercy plea of those, convicted in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case and Tamil Nadu assembly’s passage of a resolution over it. The Afzal Guru case has also not yet been resolved which also is giving political colour to the whole issue.

Supreme Court in its 1989 judgement laid down several principles or ‘do’s’ and ‘don’ts’ with respect to the executive clemency. The apex court observed that the delay in making a decision on the death penalty leads to adverse psychological impact on the convicted and it amounts to the court’s inhuman and brutal treatment. Thus inordinate delay can form the basis for clemency. It also observed that the nature of crime needs to be taken into consideration before granting executive clemency. The conduct of the convicted cannot form the basis for granting clemency and the time calculated should be from the date the final verdict was given on the case if it needs to form the ground for clemency.

Constitution should be amended to provide the time limits within which mercy petition are to be decided. Importantly, the political parties should restrain from politicising the power of the President which is supposed to be used in the public consideration.


(c) Discuss the extent, causes, and implications of ‘nutrition transition’ said to be underway in India.

Answer:
Nutrition Transition can be referred to as the increased consumption of unhealthy foods compounded with increased prevalence of overweight in middle-to-low-income countries. It has serious implications in terms of public health outcomes, risk factors, economic growth and international nutrition policy.

Extent: As developing societies like India industrialise and urbanise, and as standards of living continue to rise, weight gain and obesity are beginning to pose a growing threat to the health of the citizens. Repeated episodes of malnutrition, followed by nutritional rehabilitation, are known to alter body composition and increase the risk of obesity. Food balance data from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) show that the change in energy intake in Asian countries has been small, but there have been large changes in consumption of animal products, sugars and fats in countries like India. There is a progressive increase in the intake of protein, and probably fats. The increase in the intake of protein and fats is due to the phenomenal increase in the consumption of milk and milk products and an increase in the intake of animal products. On the other hand consumption of pulses and legumes has fallen drastically in India.

Causes: In India, the demographic and epidemiological transition, the forces of internal migration and urbanisation, the changes in food consumption patterns and low physical activity patterns to an epidemic of obesity and other NCDs (Non-communicable Diseases). There is also a  decrease in the energy expenditure in occupational activities, increased urbanisation, universal use of motor cars, mechanisation of most manual jobs outside the occupational sphere and increasing leisure time have aggravated this trend in India.

Implications: There is a large increase in the non-communicable diseases (NCDs) in the developing countries specially the countries under transition like India. Approximately 40% of the deaths in the developing countries take place due to NCDs.

(d) Bring out the salient features of the PCPNDT Act, 1994, and the implication of its amendment in 2003.

Answer:
Pre Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Technique Act, 1994 was enacted to arrest the declining sex ration. It is a subject of discussion now because; an all-time low child sex ratio of 914 was reported in the 2011 provisional census data.

The main purpose of enacting the act is to ban the use of sex selection techniques before or after conception and prevent the misuse of prenatal diagnostic technique for sex selective absorption.

Offences under this act include conducting or helping in the conduct of prenatal diagnostic technique in the unregistered units, sex selection on a man or woman, conducting PND test for any purpose other than the one mentioned in the act, sale, distribution, supply, renting etc. of any ultra sound machine or any other equipment capable of detecting sex of the foetus.

The act was amended in 2003 to improve the regulation of the technology used in sex selection.

Implications of PCPNDT Act, 1994 amendment:

1. Amendment of the act mainly covered bringing the technique of pre conception sex selection within the ambit of the act

2. Bringing ultrasound within its ambit

3. Empowering the central supervisory board, constitution of state level supervisory board

4. Provision for more stringent punishments

5. Empowering appropriate authorities with the power of civil court for search, seizure and sealing the machines and equipments of the violators

6. Regulating the sale of the ultrasound machines only to registered bodies

2. Answer one of the following in about 250 words:        20x1=20

(a) Trace the salient sequences of events in popular revolt that took place in February 1946 in the then Royal Indian Navy and bring out its significance in the freedom struggle. Do you agree with the views that the sailors who took part in this revolt were some of the unsung heroes of the freedom struggle?

Answer:

Royal Indian Navy revolt of February 1946 took place in the background of Quit India Movement and Second World War. This was a very turbulent phase in India’s freedom struggle. The popular revolt shook the very foundation of British Raj and made it abundantly clear that their time in India was numbered.
In November 1945 some students from Forward Block, Students Federation of India and Islamia College participated in a protest march over the INA trials. They tied together League, Congress and red flag, as a symbol of anti imperialist unity.

In February 1946, Muslim League students took a protest march in which some Congress students also participated against the seven year sentence to INA prisoner Rashid Ali.

In February 1946, naval ratings of HMIS Talwar went on strike to protest against racial discrimination, unpalatable food, INA trials, and abuse by superior officers. This was followed by city people joining in through mass strikes, hartals, meetings, attacks on police stations, railway station etc. Other parts of the country also expressed support in the form of strikes by Royal Indian Forces in Calcutta, Puna and Bombay.

The upsurge showed that the fearless action by the masses, revolt in armed forces had psychological affect on masses and it also prompted British to extend some concessions but above all it marked the end of British rule in India.

Sailors who took part in the struggle were the unsung heroes as they did not get the level of publicity as that of the INA trials and in the pages of history; they remain anonymous and unknown.

(b) Evaluate the influence of three important women’s organisations of the early twentieth century in India on country’s society and politics. To what extent do you think were the social objectives of these organisations constrained by their political objectives?

Answer:

Bharat Stree Mahamandal, All India Women’s Conference and Women’s India Association were some of the important women’s associations of the early twentieth century. Bharat Stree Mahamandal was the first women's organisation in India founded by Sarala Devi Chaudhurani in Allahabad in 1910. One of the primary goals of the organisation was to promote female education which was not well developed at that time. The organisation opened several offices in Lahore, Allahabad, Delhi, Karachi, Amritsar etc. to improve the condition of women all over India.

All India Women’s Conference was founded in 1927 by Margret cousins having Sarojni Naidu, Lady Dorab Tata as its founding members. It worked towards women’s education, abolition of purdah system, legislative reform, abolition of child marriage, harijan welfare, family planning, and rural reconstruction. These women’s organisations worked for a society based on principles of social justice, integrity, equal rights and opportunities.  They wanted security for every human being; the essentials of life not determined by accidental births but by planned social distribution.

Their efforts led to several legislative reforms in Sharda Act (1929), Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act (1937), Factory Act (1947), Hindu Marriage and Divorce Act etc. AIWC efforts also led to setting up of The All India Women’s Education Fund
Association, and Lady Irwin College of Home Science.

Social and educational reforms effort by the women’s associations helped in preparing the Indian women to participate in the freedom struggle. With Mahatma Gandhi women availed an opportunity to get into the scene of freedom struggle.

3. Answer any one of the following in about 250 words:    20x1=20

(a) Critically examine the design of National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) scheme. Do you think it has a better chance of
success than the Swarna Jayanti Swarojgar Yojna(SGSY) in achieving its objectives?

Answer:

NRLM is the rechristened version of Swarna Jayanti Swarojgar Yojna (SGSY). It is a Ministry of Rural Development programme. It aims to reduce poverty by enabling the poor household to access gainful self employment and skilled wage employment opportunity resulting in a sustainable livelihood.

NRLM is based on three pillars

1. Enhancing and expanding the existing livelihood options of the poor

2. Building skills for the job market

3. Nurturing self employed and entrepreneurs

NRLM plans to give special focus on the poorest households who are currently dependent on the MGNREGA. The design of
NRLM is more likely to succeed because its implementation is in a mission mode which enables it shift from the present allocation based approach to demand based approach. This enables the states to formulate their own livelihood based on poverty reduction action plans. It also focuses on targets, outcomes, and time bound strategy. The monitoring would be done against the targets of the poverty outcomes. NRLM will have continuous capacity building, imparting of requisite skills and creating linkages with livelihood opportunities for the poor, including those emerging from the organised sector.

NRLM funds will be directly released to the state level agencies and DRDA based on the detailed district wise annual action plan.  It will involve the Self Help Group in the implementation which increases the likelihood of its success. National Skill Development Council will also coordinate in the skill development part in the implementation of NRLM. In order to ensure institutional arrangement for skill development for self employment and wage employment, dedicated training institute for rural BPL youth i.e Rural Self Employment Training Institutes (RSETIs) are being set up with the aim of having at least one such institution in each district in India. These RSETIs will be set up with the partnership of banks. This will help in achieving the objectives of NRLM.

(b) Highlight the structure, objectives and role of the Advertising Standard Council of India. In what way has the August 2006
government notification made it more effective?

Answer:

The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI), established in 1985, is committed to the cause of Self-Regulation in Advertising, ensuring the protection of the interests of consumers. The ASCI was formed with the support of all four sectors connected with Advertising, viz. Advertisers, Ad Agencies, Media (including Broadcasters and the Press) and others like PR Agencies, Market Research Companies etc. Its main objective is to promote responsible advertising; thus enhancing the public's confidence in Advertising. ASCI thus aims to achieve its own overarching goal i.e., to maintain and enhance the public's confidence in advertising.

The Board of Governors (16 members) ensures equitable representation of Advertisers, Agencies, Media and other Advertising Services, the individual member firms being leaders in their respective industries or services. The Consumer Complaints Council (CCC) (21 members) has 12 Non-Advertising professionals representing civil society, who are eminent and recognised opinion leaders in their respective disciplines such as Medical, Legal, Industrial Design, Engineering, Chemical Technology, Human Resources and Consumer Interest Groups; 9 are advertising practitioners from our member firms.

ASCI is represented in all committees working on advertising content in every Ministry of the Government of India. ASCI’s Code for Self-Regulation in Advertising is now part of ad code under Cable TV Act’s Rules. Violation of ASCI’s Code is now treated as a violation of the government’s rules. ASCI’s membership of The European Advertising Standards Alliance (EASA) ensures that it gets valuable advice, learning and even influence at the international level.
The Consumer Complaints Council is ASCI's heart and soul. It is the dedicated work put in by this group of highly respected people that has given tremendous impetus to the work of ASCI and the movement of self-regulation in the advertising.

In August 2006, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting issued a notification deeming it necessary for all TV commercials in India to abide by the ASCI code. This effort of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting has made the advertising self-regulatory movement in India stronger and more effective.


4. Comment on any five of the following in about 150 words each.    12x5=60

(a) Salient recommendations of the RBI-appointed Damodaran committee on customer service in Banks.

Answer:

The Damodaran Committee on bank customer services has recommended active involvement of the boards of banks to guarantee customer satisfaction. The committee held that customer service and grievance redress should be included as a mandatory parameter in the performance appraisal report of all employees.

The committee has suggested that an agenda on the level of implementation of the Bank's Code of Commitments to Customers and an overview on the grievance redress mechanism in the bank should be placed before the bank every quarter before the Customer Service Committee.

The committee suggets that every board should ensure they have comprehensive policies for customer acceptance, care and severance. The banks should show sensitivity for small customers by ensuring that the pricing (bank charges) does not act as a deterrent for the small person to do banking transactions.

Emphasising on 'customer centricity', the committee recommended that bank boards should evolve human resources policies which should recruit for attitude and train for skills.

(b) Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS).

Answer:

It is a scheme by the Central Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. Its funding pattern is up to 90 percent; it is funded by the Central Ministry. The Grant in Aid is released on the basis of recommendations received from the State Government, UTs through State Multi-Disciplinary grant-in-aid committee concerned or any other agency designated by the Ministry. Beneficiary could be an individual, a family, a community, women and Children.

The voluntary organisations are assisted in running rehabilitation centres for leprosy cured persons and also for manpower
development in the field of mental retardation and cerebral palsy. They are also assisted in establishment and development of special schools for major disability areas, viz. Orthopaedic, speech, hearing, visual and mental disability. The NGOs are extended assistance for setting up projects of vocational training to facilitate the disabled persons to be as independent as possible by acquiring basic skills. The Ministry, under the Scheme supports both recurring and non-recurring expenditure of projects by NGOs up to 90 percent.

(c) Evolution of ‘Green Benches’ in our higher judiciary.

Answer:

The Supreme Court of India interpreted Article 21 which guarantees the fundamental right to life and personal liberty, to include the right to a wholesome environment and held that a litigant may assert his or her right to a healthy environment against the State by a writ petition to the Supreme Court or a High Court. Public interest litigation has been used by the higher judiciary to ensure environment protection and safeguard public interest.

Till 1980, not much contribution was made by the courts in preserving the environment. One of the earliest cases which came to the Supreme Court of India was Municipal Council, Ratlam, vs Vardhichand AIR 1980 SC 1622. Thereafter, series of cases were filed before the Supreme Court and there was a dynamic change in the whole approach of the courts in matters concerning environment.
India has now become the third country in the world to start a National Green Tribunal (NGT) which is a judicial body exclusively meant to judge environmental cases. The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same. The predecessor to the NGT, the erstwhile National Environment Appellate Authority has been superseded by the NGT.

(d) Distinction between ‘Department Related Parliament Standing committees’ and ‘Parliamentary Forum’.

Answer:

Departmental Standing Committees were created in 1993 to exercise control over the executive; particularly financial control. There are now 2 such committees having 31 members each; 21 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. Members from the Lok Sabha are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, while members from the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the Rajya Sabha Chairman. A minister cannot be nominated as a member of the committee. These committees consider the demand for grants of the concerned ministry. They submit the reports based on which the discussion on budget takes place.

Parliamentary Forums on the other hand are ad hoc in nature and are constituted for specific issues to make the Members of the Parliament aware of the seriousness of the particular situation and to enable them to adopt a result-oriented approach towards these issues. The Parliamentary fora do not interfere in or encroach upon the jurisdiction of the concerned Departmentally Related Standing Committees or the Ministry/Department concerned. Members of these fora are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, as the case may be.

(e) Benefits and potential drawbacks of ‘cash transfers’ to Below Poverty Line Households.

Answer:

Cash transfer has come into discussion due to the leakages in several government schemes like the Public Distribution System. It has been successful in Latin American countries. Cash transfer has some benefits in terms of better targeting of public subsidy, reducing diversion, preventing corruption, and eliminating wastages in transportation and storage of goods like food grains. It also gives flexibility to the citizens in terms of buying the public goods and services. Cash transfer is also suitable for migrating population that moves in search of work.

Cash transfer on the other hand can only succeed if an appropriate IT infrastructure exits, through which cash can be transferred directly to the account of the beneficiary which becomes a challenge in the poor financial inclusion. Cash can be more prone to diversion if proper safeguards are not taken. Moreover cash transfer can work if the public delivery system is in place for e.g. how giving cash for health services will make any difference if there are no hospitals, medicines and doctors in the villages. Factoring inflation into cash transfer is always been a challenge.

(f) New initiatives during the 11th Five Year Plan in the National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB).

Answer:

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) endorsed and approved a budget of INR 12,500 million for the XI five-year (2007-12) plan period. The enhanced funding and financial allocation to the tune of nearly two-thirds of the previous plan period is indicative of the high political commitment accorded to blindness control activities in the India. With the federal nature of the Indian Constitution, the States are largely independent in matters relating to health delivery. The Central Government’s responsibility consists mainly of policy making, planning, funding, guiding, assisting, evaluating and coordinating the work of state health ministries so that health services cover every part of the country and no state lags behind for want of these services. The NPCB is striving to enhance the capacity of health institutions, health personnel and the community at all levels to address issues under the programme. In the approved XI five-year plan period, schemes with existing/enhanced financial allocation are being implemented along with new initiatives to reduce blindness.

5. Examine any three of the following in about 150 words each.        12x3=36

(a) The impact of climate change on water resources in India.

Answer:

The impact of climate change on water resources in India is evident through erratic monsoon, more frequent floods and droughts, stronger cyclones and rivers changing their course frequently. The severity is also due to the prevailing more than 7000km of coastline.

The changed rainfall pattern has adversely affected ground water recharge, wetlands both coastal and terrestrial.  Climate change has resulted in melting of Himalayan glaciers. It has the potential of making the Himalayan Rivers swell first and then turning them into seasonal rivers, threatening the source of freshwater. It can also lead to salt water intrusion and threatening aquaculture and coastal agriculture. 

The impact has been severe also because, India is still an agricultural country with its large population being dependant on weather related livelihood through agriculture, forestry, pisciculture etc.

(b) Measures taken by the Indian government to combat piracy in the Indian Ocean.

Answer:
Indian government has used INS Talwar to foil several bids by pirates near the Gulf of Aden. Indian government is coordinating the anti piracy measures at the international level with China, European countries and with the Gulf countries.
Indian government has placed surveillance radars in countries like Maldives and Srilanka to secure the sea lanes in the Indian Ocean. It has signed agreements with Madagascar, Seychelles and Mauritius for anti piracy measures. Government has also taken measures in strengthening the coastal security by equipping and reforming the coast guards. However, incidents like unmanned vessel drifting in the ocean and reaching the coast of Mumbai have highlighted the holes in our coastal security which needs to be plugged.

Supreme Court has recently asked the Central Government to formulate separate piracy law for trying the pirates and to take care of the compensation to the victim’s family. Currently piracy is being dealt under the provisions of Indian Penal Code.
 
(c) The significance of counter-urbanisation in the improvement of metropolitan cities in India.

Answer:

Counter-urbanisation is a demographic and social process where people move from large urban areas or into rural areas, thereby leapfrogging the rural-urban fringe. It might mean daily commuting, but could also require lifestyle changes and the increased use of ICT (home working or teleworking). It is the process of migration of people from major urban areas to smaller urban settlements and rural areas.  Counter-urbanisation affects the layout of rural settlements. Modern housing estates locate of the edge of small settlements. Industrial units are sited on main roads leading into the settlement.

Counter urbanisation will reduce pressure on the metropolitan cities and its basic amenities like drinking water supply, sewage facilities, continuous supply of electricity, education facilities, etc as people move out due to following

(i) Increase in car ownership enabling their movement, growth in information technology (E-mail, faxes and video conferencing) meaning more people can work from home

(ii) Urban areas are becoming increasing unpleasant place to live. This is the result of pollution, crime and traffic congestion.

(iii) More people tend to move when they retire.

(iv) New business parks being developed on the edge of cities (on Greenfield sites) meaning people no longer have to travel to the city centre. People now prefer to live on the outskirts of the city to be near where they work.

(d) Problems specific to the denotified and nomadic tribes in India.

Answer:
Post Independence the Criminal Tribe Act 1871 was replaced; and criminal tribe nomenclature was replaced with denotified tribe (DNTs) which is still considered derogatory. They have been discriminated; British government included some of the tribes like Gonds, Ho and Santhals under this categorisation as they had rebelled against the British Raj.

A major challenge in the intervention comes due dispersed nature of the tribes and having a nomadic culture surviving on shifting cultivation. This results in health and educational services a challenging task to deliver. It also makes the implementation of nutritional initiative like addressing iodine deficiency a challenging task. Preservation of their culture, script, practices also get hampered due to the same reason. Two different opinions arise with regard to the reservation for the DNTs to raise their social and economic conditions. One view supports providing reservation within existing group of SCs, STs and OBCs while the other view supports creating a new group for the reservation of DNTs.

6. In the context of the freedom struggle, write short notes (not exceeding 50 words each) on the following:    5x3=15

(a) 'Benoy-Badal-Dinesh' martyrdom.

Answer:

On 8 December 1930, Benoy along with Dinesh chandra Gupta and Badal Gupta, dressed in European costume, entered the Writers' Building and shot dead Simpson, the Inspector General of Prisons, who was infamous for the brutal oppression on the prisoners. This inspired further revolutionary activities in Bengal. After Independence Dalhousie square was named B.B.D Bagh-after Benoy-Badal-Dinesh. 

(b) Bharat Naujavan sabha

Answer:

Bharat Naujavan Sabha was an association of Indian youths which was established at a convention held in April 1928 at the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. The aims of the Sabha were to create a youth wing of peasants and workers with a view to usher in revolution in the country and overthrow the British rule. Bhagat Singh was its secretary and principle organiser.

(c) 'Babbar Akali' movement

Answer:

The Babbar Akali movement, which emerged in the wake of the Akali Movement, and was an underground terrorist movement established in the Jalandhar Doab in 1921. Members fought pitched battles with police and committed acts of violence.

7. Comment on the following in not more than 50 words each:             5x6=30

(a) Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme in India.

Answer:

Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme by by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) means initiating intensive, annual monitoring of tigers at the tiger reserve level, across 41 protected areas in India. This programme is to estimate numbers of both tigers and their prey. This programme is planned to be commenced from November 2011.

(b) Why the Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of Consumer Price Index from this year?

Answer:

The Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of CPI with its base year of 2010 for rural, urban areas and for the nation as a whole. It will give a comprehensive picture of inflation at the national level for retail prices. Government also proposes to use it for giving dearness allowance for government employee in the seventh pay commission.

(c) Composition and functions of the National Executive Committee of the National Disaster Management Authority.

Answer:

The National Executive Committee (NEC) of the National Disaster Management Authority comprises the Union Home Secretary as the Chairperson, and the Secretaries to the GOI in the Ministries/Departments of Agriculture, Atomic Energy, Defence, Drinking Water Supply, Environment and Forests, Finance (Expenditure), Health, Power, Rural Development, Science and Technology, Space, Telecommunications, Urban Development, Water Resources and the Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff of the Chiefs of Staff Committee as members.

(d) The Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 and why it has been in news recently?

Answer:

Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 provides that the property of corrupt persons can be attached even when the probe is under way, if the authorised officer concludes that the acquisition of the property was the result of the offence committed by the accused. Bihar implemented it and some officials came under this Act. Its constitutional validity was questioned in Supreme Court which refused to stay this act.

(e) The Telecommunications Ministry’s proposed Spectrum Management Commission.

Answer:
Spectrum Management Commission is a new entity to manage and regulate spectrum allocation. The Commission will subsume Wireless Planning Coordination wing of the Department of Telecom and will get wider powers including dispute settlement, pricing and regulations related to spectrum. While the DoT will continue to be the licensor, all issues pertaining to spectrum allocation will be brought under Spectrum Management Commission.

(f) The Community-Led Total Sanitation (CLTS) approach to sanitation.

Answer:
CLTS is an innovative methodology for mobilising communities to completely eliminate open defecation (OD). Communities are facilitated to conduct their own appraisal and analysis of open defecation (OD) and take their own action to become ODF (open defecation free). CLTS focuses on the behavioural change needed to ensure real and sustainable improvements. It invests in community mobilisation instead of hardware, and shifting the focus from toilet construction for individual households to the creation of ’open defecation-free’ villages.

8. Attempt the following in not more than 50 words each.        5x4=20

(a) Distinguish either between the ‘Moatsu’ and ‘Yemshe’ festivals of Nagaland or the ‘Losar’ and ‘Khan’ festivals of Arunachal Pradesh.

Answer:

Moatsu Festival is celebrated in Nagaland by the Ao tribe. It is observed every year in the first week of May. During this Nagaland festival, a number of rituals are performed. After sowing the seeds, the Aos observe Moatsu Mong.

The Pochury Tribe celebrates their greatest festival, Yemshe in the month of October every year. During the Yemshe festival, the arrival of the new harvest is celebrated with full fun & fair. The Losar Festival also called as the New Year Festival and it is the most important festival celebrated in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh. Losar is celebrated by the Monpas that forms the major portion of population in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh.
In the Khan festival of Arunachal Pradesh, the social and cultural beliefs of the local tribes can be witnessed. Regardless the different casts and creed, the local tribes unite in the Khan celebration.

(b) Write a sentence each of any five of the following traditional theater forms:

(i) Bhand Pather: It is the traditional theatre form of Kashmir, which is a unique combination of dance, music and acting. Satire, wit and parody are preferred for inducing laughter.

(ii) Swang:
It is a popular folk dance-drama or folk theatre form in Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh. Swang incorporates suitable theatrics and mimicry (or nakal) accompanied by song and dialogue. Swang theatre is
traditionally restricted to men, who also play the female roles.

(iii) Maach:
It is a traditional Hindi theatre form of Madhya Pradesh. It shares the secular nature and characteristics of other north Indian genres like Nautanki and Khyal. Based on religious, historical, romantic, or social themes, it was invented and developed by prominent artists like Guru Gopalji, Guru Balmukund, Kaluram Ustad, and Radhakrishan Ustad.

(iv) Bhaona:
It is a unique festival of Vaishnava theatrical performance in Assam. The performance is marked by a continuous shifting between the classical and the folk, the mundane and the spiritual, providing thousands of spectators a rare aesthetic experience.

(v) Mudiyettu:
It is ritualistic dance drama performed after the harvest of summer crops in Kerala. In 2010, Mudiyettu was included in the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage Lists.

(vi) Dashavatar:
Dashavatar is the most developed theatre form of the Konkan and Goa regions. The performers personify the ten incarnations of Lord Vishnu-the god of preservation and creativity.

(c) What are the major different styles of unglazed pottery making in India?

Answer:

There are three different styles in unglazed pottery making in India. They are - the paper-thin, scrafito and highly polished. Black pottery is another famous form of unglazed pottery in Indian villages and it resembles the Harappan pottery style. In the paper thin pottery, the biscuit coloured pottery is decorated with incised patterns.

(d) List the classical dance forms of India as per the Sangeet Natak Akademy.

Answer:
Sangeet Natak Akademi currently confers classical status on nine Indian dance styles which are Bharatnatyam, Kathak, Gaudiya Nritya, Kathakali, Mohiniyattam, Oddisi, kuchipudi, Sattriya, and Manipuri.

9. Comment on following in not more than 50 words each:        5x5=25

(a) Nisarga-Runa technology of BARC.

Answer:

The Nisarga-Runa technology developed at BARC converts biodegradable solid waste into useful manure and methane. It can be deployed for the dual objectives of waste management as well as for livelihood creation among the urban underprivileged. The 'Nisargruna' technology adopts biphasic reactor system wherein the first reactor is operated under aerobic and thermophilic conditions. As a result of the first feature, the universal problem of odour from waste processing biogas plants is eliminated and the second feature leads to a faster process. Unlike conventional single phase digesters, which take 30-40 days, a 'Nisargruna' plant can digest organic solid waste between 18-22 days.

(b) The first aid that you can safely administer to a person standing next to you at the bus stop who suddenly faints.

Answer:

I would first take the person away from the crowd to an open and safe area. Then I would sprinkle some water on his/her face to bring him/her back to consciousness. If the person does not gain consciousness then mouth to mouth respiration and administering CPR can be considered as the next step. His/her family members or friends should be immediately informed about his/her ill health by a phone call from the contact details from the mobile phone or the purse of the person and can gather information on the person’s medical condition and then accordingly he/she can be taken for medical supervision.

(c) The Kaveri K-10 aero-engine.

Answer:

Kaveri K-10 engine is being developed to be used in the Light Combat Aircraft, Tejas. It is being developed in collaboration of French firm, Snecma.  It will have less weight and more reheat thrust to meet the requirements of the Indian Army.

(d) Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) technology

Answer:
Molecular breast imaging (MBI) is three times more effective than mammograms, and far less costly than other nuclear-medicine imaging. Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) uses a dedicated dual-head gamma camera and 99mTc-sestamibi in women having dense breast patterns and additional risk factors for breast cancer.

(e) E-governance initiatives by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)

Answer:

UPSC has taken the initiative for getting the forms of several examinations like civil services filled online. It also displays the status of the application form for every candidate on its website. UPSC publishes the syllabus and tentative schedules of various UPSC conducted examinations on its website helping students to plan in advance. UPSC also publishes the various court orders and notifications on the web site and information regarding the RTI petitions on its website.

10. Who are the following and why have they been in the news recently? (each answer should not exceed 20 words): 2x7=14

(a) Lieutenant Navdeep Singh

Answer:

Lieutenant Navdeep Singh laid down his life fighting terrorists during an anti-infiltration operation along LOC in Gurez Sector of north Kashmir.

(b) Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar

Answer:

He was an exponent of Dagar vani Dhrupad, which is one of the most pristine and richest forms of Indian classical music. He represented the 19th generation of Dagar Tradition.

(c) Lobsang Sangay
Answer:

He is the Tibetan Prime Minister in exile. He is a Harvard graduate and a political successor of Dalai Lama.

(d) P.R. Sreejesh

Answer:

P.R. Sreejesh is Hockey Goalkeeper in the Indian Hockey team. He is from Kerela.

(e) Nileema Mishra

Answer:

She is one of the Magsaysay Award winners for 2011.. She is a lender to the poorest in Maharashtra. She was recognised for her purpose-driven zeal to work tirelessly with villagers in Maharashtra.

(f) V.Tejeswini Bai

Answer:

Tejeswini is a Kabbadi player from Karnataka who has represented India from 2005 to 2010 and captained Indian team for four years.

(g) Aishwarya Narkar

Answer:

Aishwarya Narkar is a Marathi actress who also works in the Hindi TV serials. She has received National Film Award from the
President of India.

Assam Public Service Commission’s Combined Competitive (Pre) Exam 2009

GENERAL STUDIES

 (EXAM HELD ON: 11.12.2011)

1. Habeas corpus writ is associated with
(A) anticipatory bail
(B) quashing the order of Un administrative authority
(C) an order of freedom of speech
(D) production of person before the court
Ans: (D)
2. Drip irrigation is mostly practised in India especially for
(A) tea and coffee
(B) rice
(C) wheat
(D) vegetables (Rabi crops)
Ans: (D)
3. Grey Revolution is associated with
(A) production of cement
(B) commercial production of eggs
(C) productions of sweets
(D) steel production
Ans: (A)
4. The mass of an iron piece when gets rusted
(A) may increase or decrease depending upon temperature
(B) decreases
(C) increases
(D) remain same
Ans: (B)
5. The purest form of gold is
(A) 18 carat
(B) 22 carat
(C) 24 carat
(D) 28 carat
Ans: (C)
6. The National Flood Control Programme (NFCP) for flood control in India was launched in the year
(A) 1951
(B) 1954
(C) 1947
(D) 1960
Ans: (B)
7. The Integrated Wasteland Development Programme (IWDP) is sponsored by
(A) NABARD
(B) Government of India
(C) Asian Development Bank
(D) UNO
Ans: (B)
8. In which Indian State is the hill station Kodaikanal situated?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Rajasthan
Ans: (C)
9. Which is the longest river in Asia?
(A) River Surama
(B) River Ob
(C) River Ganga
(D) River Brahmaputra
Ans: (B)
10. What is the percentage of oxygen in the earth's crust?
(A) 92
(B) 50
(C) 61
(D) 45
Ans: (D)
11. Name the country which is known as the 'Land of Morning Calm'.
(A) Japan
(B) Korea
(C) Indonesia
(D) Canada
Ans: (B)
12. What is the precise time taken by the earth for one rotation?
(A) 24 hr
(B) 24 hr 30 min
(C) 23 hr 56 min 4.09 sec
(D) 24 hr 5 min 5.02 sec
Ans: (C)
13. The total area of Assam is
(A) 80645 km2
(B) 78438 km2
(C) 79012 km2
(D) 77901 km2
Ans: (B)
14. The largest continent in the world is
(A) Europe
(B) North America
(C) Asia
(D) Africa
Ans: (C)
15. Assam State enjoys
(A) tropical climate
(B) hot climate
(C) warm climate
(D) cold climate
Ans: (A)
16. Terai zone is situated at Assam's
(A) North zone
(B) East zone
(C) South zone
(D) West zone
Ans: (B)
17. The National Park of Assam where the rare white-winged duck (Deohanh) is found is
(A) Nameri
(B) Dibru Saikhowa
(C) Manas
(D) Orang
Ans: (A)
18. What is the name of the new island emrging out of the Bay of Bengal?
(A) Sonali
(B) Dhan Khuli
(C) Purbasa
(D) Uttara
Ans: (C)
19. Which of the following is related to international trade?
(A) EXIM
(B) IIP
(C) FPO
(D) TQM
Ans: (A)
20. Of the total geographical area of Assam the total area under forest is
(A) 33 p.c
(B) 22 p.c
(C) 28 p.c
(D) 19 p.c
Ans: (B)
21. World's largest producer of gold is
(A) Saudi Arabia
(B) USA
(C) South Africa
(D) Canada
Ans:
22. When was Mizoram converted into a Union Territory?
(A) 1969
(B) 1972
(C) 1949
(D) 1951
Ans: (B)
23. Which is the world's longest railway line?
(A) Trans-Siberian line
(B) Texas Railway line
(C) Trans-Austin line
(D) Trans-American line
Ans: (A)
24. For a healthy adult Indian, the Body Mass Index (BMI) Should be in the range of
(A) 11.51 - 18
(B) 18.5 - 24.9
(C) 25-30
(D) None of the Above
Ans: (B)
25. Black hole is an object to be found
(A) at the bottom of oceans
(B) in the sky
(C) inside a current –carrying conductor
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
26. Minimum velocity required by a body to escape earth’s gravitation (escape velocity) is
(A) 9.5 km/s
(B) 11.2 km/s
(C) 13 km/s
(D) 24.25 km/s
Ans: (B)
27. Which one of the following is not an operating system of computers?
(A) Sun 05
(B) BSD
(C) GNEXT/Linux
(D) Windows NT
Ans: (A)
28. Which is the largest moon in the solar system?
(A) Ganymede
(B) Titan
(C) Lo
(D) Callisto
Ans: (A)
29. Pacemaker is implanted in heart when one of the following is defective
(A) SA node
(B) AV node
(C) Purkinje fibre
(D) Bundle of His
Ans: (A)
30. When a person is undergoing prolonged fasting, his/her urine will contain abnormal quantity of
(A) fat
(B) ketone
(C) amino acid
(D) glucose
Ans: (B)
31. Science of improving human race is
(A) eugenics
(B) epigenesis
(C) epistasis
(D) euthenics
Ans: (A)
32. A photon will have less energy, if its
(A) amplitude is higher
(B) frequency is higher
(C) wavelength is longer
(D) wavelength is shorter
Ans: (C)
33. Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) is mainly a mixture of
(A) propane and butane
(B) butane and isobutane
(C) propane and isobutane
(D) propane and tetralin
Ans: (A)
34. One of the elements of direct democracy is
(A) refrendum
(B) equality
(C) free and fair election
(D) universal adult franchise
Ans: (A)
35. 'Purna Swaraj' resolution of the Congress was adopted on
(A) 26th January, 1930
(B) 26th January, 1931
(C) 26th January, 1929
(D) 26th January, 1932
Ans: (A)
36. Article 80 of the Indian Constitution deals with the formation of the
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Legislative Council
(D) District Council
Ans: (A)
37. The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India on the basis of the recommendation of
(A) S.V. Singh Committee
(B) Swaran Singh Committee
(C) C. Hanumantha Rao Committee
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
38. In the formal sense, Panchayati Raj was established in Assam in the year
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans:
39. The Planning Commission in India was established by
(A) an act of the Parliament
(B) the Constitution of India
(C) resolution of the Central Government
(D) presidential order
Ans: (C)
40. Which of the following methods is not provided by the Citizenship Act, 1955 to acquire Indian citizenship?
(A) By birth
(B) By descent
(C) By registration
(D) By exercising right to vote
Ans: (D)
41. Which of the following types of budgeting is followed in India?
(A) Plural budgeting
(B) Cash budgeting
(C) performance budgeting
(D) Surplus budgeting
Ans: (C)
42. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is related to the independence of the Union Public Service Commission?
(A) Article 323
(B) Article 324
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 326
Ans: (A)
43. Which of the following Schedules to the Constitution of India relates to languages?
(A) 7th Schedule
(B) 8th Schedule
(C) 9th Schedule
(D) 10th Schedule
Ans: (B)
44. The French philosopher Rousseau belonged to the
(A) eighteenth century
(B) sixteenth century
(C) fifteenth century
(D) seventeenth century
Ans: (A)
45. Which of the following can initiate the process of impeachment of the President of India?
(A) Any House of the Parliament
(B) The Lok Sabha alone
(C) The Rajya Sabha alone
(D) The Supreme Court of India
Ans: (A)
46. Which of the following is not a part of the financial management?
(A) Preparation of the budget
(B) Approval of the budget by the Cabinet
(C) Execution and rendering of accounts
(D) Audit and accounts of public expenditure
Ans: (C)
47. Under the Assam Panchayat Act, 1994, the quorum for the meeting of the Gram panchayat is
(A) one-half of the total number of members
(B) one-half of the total number of members present
(C) one-third of the total number of members
(D) one-third of the total number of members present
Ans: (C)
48. Who initiated the Home Rule Movement in India?
(A) Chittaranjan Das
(B) Lajpat Rai
(C) Annie Besant
(D) Maulana Azad
Ans: (C)
49. The Indus Valley Cilvilization belongs to the
(A) Palaeolithic Age
(B) Mesolithic Age
(C) Neolithic Age
(D) Chalcolithic Age
Ans: (D)
50. Who among the following was the first to visit India?
(A) Huen Tsang
(B) I-Tsing
(C) Fa-Hien
(D) Megasthenes
Ans: (D)
51. Ahalya Bai was distinguished
(A) Maratha leader
(B) Rajput leader
(C) Sikh leader
(D) Mughal leader
Ans: (A)
52. During which period did the East India Company begin to build up its territorial power in India?
(A) Beginning of the 18th century
(B) Last quarter of the 17th century
(C) Middle of the 18th century
(D) First quarter of the 19th century
Ans: (C)
53. What is the date of the Third Battle of Panipat?
(A) AD 1551
(B) AD 1661
(C) AD 1761
(D) AD 1861
Ans: (C)
54. Which Act transferred power from the Company to the Crown in India?
(A) Act of 1861
(B) Act of 1892
(C) Act of 1858
(D) Act of 1853
Ans: (C)
55. The first railway line in India was laid in
(A) 1852
(B) 1853
(C) 1857
(D) 1885
Ans: (B)
56. The slogan 'Inquilab Zindabad' was given by
(A) Chandrashekhar Azad
(B) Muhammad Iqbal
(C) Bhagat Singh
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: (B)
57. Which of the following events can be ascribed to the year 1919?
(A) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(B) Partition of Bengal
(C) Permanent Settlement of Bengal
(D) Subsidiary Alliance
Ans: (A)
58. In 1826, the Treaty of Yandaboo was sigried by which the British practically occupied Assam from the Burmese, In which year was Burma annexed by the British?
(A) 1837
(B) 1826
(C) 1864
(D) 1891
Ans:
59. Who wrote 'Vande Matram'?
(A) Muhammad Iqbal
(B) Sarat Chandra Chatterjee
(C) Bankim Chandra Chaterjee
(D) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Ans: (C)
60. The earliest historical dynasty of Assam was that of the
(A) Palas
(B) Varmans
(C) Narakas
(D) Salastambhas
Ans: (B)
61. The first tea company established in Assam was
(A) Jorhat Tea Company
(B) Assam Company
(C) Assam-Bengal Tea Company
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
62. The Indian National Congress was founded during the viceroyalty of
(A) Lord Canning
(B) Lord Dufferin
(C) Lord Amherst
(D) Lord Curzon
Ans: (B)
63. 'Do or Die' was the slogan during
(A) the Swadeshi Movement
(B) the Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) the Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) the Quit India Movement
Ans: (D)
64. Which of the following Land Settlement Systems was followed in Assam?
(A) Ryotwari
(B) Zamindari
(C) Mahalwari
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
65. A. O. Hume was a
(A) scientist
(B) social worker
(C) civil servant
(D) military commander
Ans: (C)

66. The capital of British India was shifted to Delhi in the year
(A) 1908
(B) 1911
(C) 1937
(D) 1947
Ans: (B)
67. Indian National Army was headed by
(A) Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
(B) General Cariappa
(C) A. G. Khan
(D) M. N. Roy
Ans: (A)
68. The Swadeshi Movement started during
(A) Anti Bengal Partition Movement
(B) Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
69. If the deepest parts of the ocean are about 10 kilometers and the radius of the earth is about 6400 kilometers, then the depth of the ocean would represent what percentage of the earth's radius?
(A) Less than 1%
(B) About 5%
(C) About 10%
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
70. How are latitude and Iongitilde lines drawn on a globe of the earth?
(A) Latitude lines are parallel and longitude lines meet at the equator
(B) Longitude lines are parallel and latitude lines meet at the equator                   
(C) Latitude lines arc parallel and longitude linea meet at the poles
(D) longitude lines are parallel and latitude lines meet at the poles
Ans: (C)
71. Which radioactive isotope is most useful for nuclear power generation?
(A) Uranium-238
(B) Uranium-235                           
(C) Carbon-14
(D) Rubidium-87
Ans: (A)
72. The third most abundant gas in the atmosphere is
(A) argon
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) helium
(D) hydrogen
Ans: (A)
73. Where is the headquarters of WTO?
(A) New York
(B) Geneva
(C) Rome
(D) Paris
Ans: (B)
74. Who authored the book, India from Midnight to Millennium?
(A) Khushwant Singh
(B) Mira Nair
(C) Sashi Tharoor
(D) Arun Jaitley
Ans: (C)
75. The first regular census in India was carried out in the year
(A) 1861
(B) 1881
(C) 1901
(D) 1911
Ans: (B)
76. Who was the first Secretary-General of UNO?
(A) Dag Harnrnarakjcld
(B) U Thant
(C) Trygve Lie
(D) Javier Perez de Cuellar
Ans: (C)
77. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research is Located at
(A) Trombay
(B) Kalpakkam
(C) Tarapore
(D) Jaduguda
Ans: (B)
78. The Bhakra Dam is located in
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (A)
79. Which planet takes more time to complete one rotation on its axis than to complete one revolution around the sun?
(A) Mercury
(B) Venus
(C) Mars
(D) Jupiter
Ans:
80. Who chairs the Planning Commission in India?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Vice-President of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
81. Sanjukta Panigrahi was the popular exponent of which Indian clasaical dance form?
(A) Kathak
(B) Kathllkali
(C) Bharat Natyam
(D) Odissi
Ans: (D)
82. Swine flu is caused by
(A) bacteria
(B) virus
(C) protozoa
(D) fungi
Ans: (B)
83. How many members are there in the Rajya Sabha from Assam?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 6
Ans: (A)
84. The States which have common boundaries with Bangladesh are
(A) Bihar, West Bengal, Tripura, Assam
(B) Manipur, Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya, West Bengal
(C) West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mijoram
(D) Manlpur, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura
Ans: (C)
85. The average gradient of the Brahamaputra within Assam is
(A) 18 cm/km
(B) 20 cm/km
(C) 13 cm/km
(D) 10 cm/km

Ans:
86. Find the odd pair out,
(A) Dheer beel : Dhubri district
(B) Khamrenga beel : kamrup (M)
(C) Tamranga beel : Bongaigaon district
(D) Mer beel : Jorhat district

Ans:
87. Clouded leopard and capped langur are important animals of
(A) Manas National Park
(B) Nameri Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary
(D) Boronodi Wildlife Sanctuary

Ans:
88. The slogan of the Commonwealth Games-2010 held in New Delhi was
(A) Get out and play
(B) Come here and play
(C) Come out and play
(D) Jiyo Utho Badho
Ans: (C)
89. The per capita income of Assam been calculated to be as
(A) Rs. 14,500
(B) Rs. 11,600
(C) Rs. 10,200
(D) Rs. 8,300

Ans:
90. The National Highway 1 connects
(A) New Delhi and Mumbai
(B) Kolkata and Amritsar
(C) Jammu and New Delhi
(D) Srinagar and Thiruvananthapuram

Ans:
91. Which one of the following States is not touched by Tropic of Cancer?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Mizoram
(C) Bihar
(D) Chhattisgarh
Ans: (D)
92. The famous fort sonar killa is located at
(A) Jaipur
(B) Jaisalmer
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Bikaner
Ans: (B)
93. Which one of the following is not a tributary to the Indus?
(A) Beas
(B) Chambal
(C) Chenab
(D) Ravi
Ans: (B)
94. Sardar Sarobar Dam is constructed on river
(A) Sutlej
(B) Saraswati
(C) Narmada
(D) Godavari
Ans: (C)
95. Bermuda Triangle is located in
(A) Caribbean Sea
(B) Gulf of Mexico
(C) Gulf of Guinea
(D) Persian Gulf
Ans: (A)
96. Waterloo is located in
(A) Belgium
(B) France
(C) England
(D) Switzerland
Ans: (A)
97. The vast grassland of Australia is known as
(A) Prairie
(B) Steppe
(C) Veld
(D) Down
Ans: (D)
98. Which Strait divides Europe from Africa?
(A) Bosporus
(B) Bering
(C) Dover
(D) Gibraltar
Ans: (D)
99. Who Was awarded the Man of the Series in Cricket World Cup, 2011?
(A) M. S. Dhoni
(B) Tilakratne Dilshan
(C) Yuvraj Singh
(D) Kurnara Sangakara
Ans: (C)
100. First Indian to win the gold medal in men's singles tennis at the Asian Games was
(A) Leander Paes
(B) Rohan Bopanna
(C) Somdev Dev varman
(D) Mahesh Bhupathi
Ans: (C)