C-SAT Sample Test Paper- 2

Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability

1. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters AMRE using each letter only once in each word ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

2. How many such digits are there in the number 42519673 each of which is as far away from the beginning in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

3. In a certain code MODERN is written as 5% 38#@ and WIN is written as 6©@. How is RIDE written in that code ?
(a) #©38
(b) #@38
(c) #©83
(d) ©@38
(e) None of these

4. What should come next in the following number series ?
2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 7 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 9
(d) 7
(e) None of these

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(a) Sodium
(b) Chlorine
(c) Magnesium
(d) Nitrogen
(e) Glucose

6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BAROMETER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(a) Radish
(b) Carrot
(c) Garlic
(d) Gourd
(e) Ginger

8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(a) 39
(b) 69
(c) 57
(d) 129
(e) 117

9. In a certain code HEALING is written as BRFIKHOJ. How is BEDTIME written in that code ?
(a) EFCSJNF
(b) EFCSFNJ
(c) EFCUFNS
(d) CFESFNJ
(e) None of these

10. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eleventh letters of the word STAKEHOLDER, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
(a) T
(b) R
(c) E
(d) X
(e) Y

Directions (Q. 11-15) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (a) : If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
Give answer (b) : If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (c) : If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
Give answer (d) : if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
Give answer (e) : If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

11. What does ‘Pe’ mean in a code language ?
I. ‘Na Si La Lo’ means ‘you may go now’ and ‘Ne Si Na Pe’ means ‘he may go there’ in that code language.
II. ‘Ki Se Pe Bo’ means ‘come there and See’ and ‘Se Ni Bo Ki’ means ‘come here and see’ in that code language.

12. What is Keshav’s rank in a class of 50 ?
I. Amit, ranking 18th in the class from the top, is 7 ranks below Vivek, who is 5 Ranks above Keshav.
II. Saurav, the 10th from the bottom, is 20 ranks below Suresh, who is 5 ranks below Keshav.

13. How is Ram related to Nitin ?
I. Revati, Nitin’s Mother, is cousin of Sukesh, the uncle of Ram.
II. Pravin, Ram’s father-in-law, is the grandfather of Sachin, the nephew of Nitin.

14. Who among M, N, O, P and Q is the youngest ?
I. N, the 2nd youngest, is younger than Q, O and M.
II. O, the 2nd oldest, is older than N.

15. Who among P,Q, R, S and T is the shortest ?
I. R, though not the shortest, is shorter than only Q.
II. S, though not as tall as P, is not the shortest.

Directions (Q. 16-20) : In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

16. Statements : Some desks are mirrors. Some mirrors are combs. Some combs are pins.
Conclusions :
I. Some pins are desks.
II. Some combs are desks.
III. Some pins are mirrors.
IV. Some pins are either desks or mirrors.
(a) None follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only I follows
(d) Only IV follows
(e) Only III follows

17. Statements : All blades are hammers. All hammers are rods. All rods are buckets.
Conclusions :
I. Some buckets are hammers.
II. Some rods are blades.
III. All hammers are buckets.
IV. All blades are rods.
(a) Only I and II follow
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) Only I, II and III follow
(d) Only II, III and IV follow
(e) All follow

18. Statements : All trees are chairs. No chair is flower. Some flowers are bangles.
Conclusions :
I. No tree is bangle.
II. No chair is bangle.
III. Some flowers are trees.
IV. Some bangles are trees.
(a) None follows
(b) Only either I or IV follows
(c) Only either II or III follows
(d) Only I and II follow
(e) Only III and IV follow

19. Statements : All rocks are balls. Some balls are rings. All rings are stones.
Conclusions :
I. Some stones are rocks.
II. Some rings are rocks.
III. Some balls are rocks.
IV. No stone is rocks.
(a) Only I and III follow
(b) Only III and IV follows
(c) Only either I or IV and III follow
(d) Only either I or IV follows
(e) None of these

20. Statements : All books are papers. All pencils are papers. All tables are papers.
Conclusions :
I. Some books are pencils.
II. Some pencils are tables.
III. Some tables are books.
IV. Some papers are tables.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only III follows
(c) Only III follows (d) Only IV follows
(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 21-25) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :
M4PA3%R#EJ2$DF1UHB@9TWI8KN6©V7ZQ

21. If all the symbols in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the seventeenth from the left end ?
(a) 1
(b) F
(c) 9
(d) B
(e) None of these

22. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the twentieth from the right end of the above arrangement ?
(a) T
(b) %
(c) 2
(d) 6
(e) None of these

23. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by another consonant ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(a) R#J
(b) 9BW
(c) PM3
(d) 6VK
(e) 2DU

25. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

Directions (Q. 26-30) : In the following questions, the symbols @,©,%, $ and ¬ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :
‘P@Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P *Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P©Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P$Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P%Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

26. Statements : R @ V, V $J, J* K
Conclusions :
I. K % R
II. J @ R
III. K % V
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Only I and II are true
(d) Only III is true
(e) None of these

27. Statements : D % H, H @ V, V $ W
Conclusion :
I. H % W
II. D % V
III. D % W
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Only III is true
(d) All are true
(e) None of these

28. Statements : M $ T, T * J, J © N
Conclusions :
I. N % M
II. J % M
III. M $ N
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Only I and II are true
(d) All are true
(e) None of these

29. Statements : N $ R, R © D, D*K
Conclusions :
I. K % R
II. D % R
III. D @ R
(a) Only either II or III and I are true
(b) Only either II or III is true
(c) Only III is true
(d) All are true
(e) None of these

30. Statements : F © K, K % M, M ©T
Conclusion :
I. T*K II. F % M
III. T*F
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Only I and II are true
(d) Only II and III are true
(e) All are true

Directions ( Q. 31-35) : In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/ Symbols numbered 1,2,3 and 4 You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the digit/symbol code of each letter and the conditions those follow and mark your answer accordingly. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters mark answer (e) i.e. none of these
Letter : M K A D E T R J I W U B F H Q
Digit/symbol Code :
7 % $ 6 5 8 1 9 2 @ # © * 3 4
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as the code for the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, the codes for the first and the last letters are to be interchanged.
(iii) If the third letter is a vowel it is to be coded as ‘S’.

31. WHIMTD
(a) @3d786
(b) @32786
(c) 63273@
(d) @3278@
(d) None of these

32. WEMKUD
(a) @5d %#6
(b) @d7%#6
(c) 657%#@
(d) @57%#@
(e) None of these

34. KMDFHE
(a) %76*35
(b) 576*35
(c) 576*3%
(d) %76*3%
(e) None of these

35. QTRUJE
(a) 48d#95
(b) 481#95
(c) 581#94
(d) 581#95
(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 36-40) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. R is third to the right of Z, who is second to the right of P.S is not an immediate neighbour of Z and R.T is third to the left of S. Q is third to the right of W, who is not an immediate neighbour of S.

36. Which of the pairs of persons are the immediate neighbours of P ?
(a) VQ
(b) VW
(c) VS
(d) SR
(e) None of these

37. What is Q’s position with respect to Z ?
(a) Fourth to the right
(b) Fourth to the left
(c) Third to the right
(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Either (A) or (B)
(e) None of these

38. Who is second to the right of T ?
(a) Z
(b) Q
(c) W
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

39. In which of the following pairs is the second person sitting on the immediate left of the first person ?
(a) RT
(b) TW
(c) QR
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 41-45): In Making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between “strong” arguments and “weak” arguments. “Strong” arguments must be both important and directly related to the questions. “Weak” arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the questions.

Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a “Strong” arguments and which is a “weak” argument.

41. Should smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol by the actors be completely banned in the movies in India ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, this will significantly reduce the trend of smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol among the youth in India.
II. No, there should be no such ban on the creative pursuits of the filmmaker.
III. No, the films portray the society and hence such scenes should be an integral part of the movie if the story line demands so.
(a) None is strong
(b) Only I and II are strong
(c) Only II and III are strong
(d) Only I and III are strong
(e) All are strong

42. Should sale of vital human organs be made legal in India ?
Arguments :
I No, it goes against our culture.
II No, this will lead to unhealthy practices.
III Yes, this will bring an end to the illegal trading of human organs.
(a) None is strong
(b) Only I and II are strong
(c) Only III is strong
(d) Only II and III are strong
(e) All are strong

43. Should the conscription of citizens for defence services be made compulsory in India ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, this is the only way to tackle the serious shortage of manpower in defence services.
II. No, instead the compensation package be made comparable to other job sectors to attract people to join defence services.
III. Yes, many other countries have made this compulsory.
(a) Only I is strong
(b) Only II is strong
(c) Only I and II are strong
(d) Only either I or II is strong
(e) None of these

44. Should the salary and perquisites of public sector undertaking employees be made equivalent to those in the private sector ?
Arguments :
I Yes, this will help the public sector under takings to attract and retain competent workforce.
II No, public sector undertakings cannot afford to pay salaries to the level of private sector.
III Yes, otherwise the public sector undertakings will not be able to compete with the private sector organisations.
(a) None is strong
(b) Only III is strong
(c) Only I is strong
(d) Only II is strong
(e) Only I and III are strong

45. Should there be a complete ban on registration of new cars for a few months in the big cities in India.
Arguments :
I. Yes, this will significantly reduce the number of cars on the already overcrowded roads of the big cities in India.
II Yes, the existing car owners will be very happy as they will face less traffic snarls in peak hours.
III No, this is highly discriminatory against those who decide to buy cars now and hence should not be enforced.
(a) Only I strong
(b) Only and III are strong
(c) Only III is strong
(d) All are strong
(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 46-50) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : Word 32 73 verb 26 new desk 19
Step I : 73 word 32 verb 26 new desk 19
Step II : 73 desk word 32 verb 26 new desk 19
Step III : 73 desk 32 word verb 26 new 19
Step IV : 73 desk 32 new word verb 2619
Step V : 73 desk 32 new 26 word verb 19
Step VI : 73 desk 32 new 26 verb word 19
Step VII : 73 desk 32 new 26 verb 19 word and Step VII is the last step of the
above input. As per the rules followed in the above
steps, find out in each of the following questions
the appropriate step for the given input.

46. Step II of an input is : 51 brown 22 36 49 cloud sky red. How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
(e) None of these

47. Step III of an input is : 58 dine 43 18 tower silver mat 24,
(a) 58 dine 43 mat 24 silver 18 tower
(b) 58 dine 43 mat 24 18 tower silver
(c) 58 dine 43 mat 18 tower silver 24
(d) there will be no such step.
(e) None of these

48. Input : 85 23 96 case over for 42 win.
How many steps will be required to complete the re-arrangement ?
(a) Four
(b) Seven
(c) Five
(d) Six
(e) None of these

49. Step IV of an input is : 63 car 51 eyes 25 36 store lane. Which of the following is definitely the input ?
(a) eyes car 25 63 36 51 store lane
(b) eyes 25 car 63 51 36 store lane
(c) eyes car 51 63 36 Store lane
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

50. Input : field eyes 94 32 house rent 49 27 Which of the following steps will be the last but one ?
(a) VI
(b) V
(c) VII
(d) VIII
(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 51-55) : In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or further action in regard to the problem policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow (s) for pursuing.
Give answer (a) : If only I follows.
Give answer (b) : If only II follows.
Give answer (c) : If either I or II follows.
Give answer (d) : If neither I nor II follows.
Give answer (e) : If both I and II follow.

51. Statement : There has been a spurt of robbery and house breaking incidents in one locality during the past fortnight.
Courses of action :
I The local police station personnel should start patrolling the locality at regular intervals.
II The residents in the locality should be asked by the police authority not to leave their houses during the night.

52. Statement : Money has become more important than the game itself in the case of India cricket.
Courses of action :
I Govt. should put a cap on the earnings from different sources of the Indian cricket board.
II Govt. should cap on the earnings from different sources of Indian cricket players.

53. Statement : Very large numbers of people from northern part of the city are suffering from water-borne diseases.
Courses of action :
I The municipal authority should advise people living in the area not to use water supplied through pipeline for drinking purpose.
II The local hospitals should be put on high alert to tackle the emerging crisis situation.

54. Statement : The quality of foodgrains being distributed in some parts of the country through Public Distribution System is very poor and not fit for human consumption.
Courses of action :
I The entire stock of foodgrains should immediately be withdrawn from the distribution system.
II People should be advised to return the food grains purchased from the system and take their money back.

55. Statement : A large number of people gathered on the high way, blocking the traffic movement to protest the killing of five locals by a speeding vehicle.
Courses of action :
I The police should fire teargas shells to disperse the crowd.
II The police authority should calm down the sentiment of the crowd, assuring action against the culprit and deploy police personnel at the spot.

Directions (Q. 56-60) : In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operation of numbers progresses from left to right. Rules :
(i) If and odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be multiplied.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number, they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is a perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the second number,
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number, the second one is to be subtracted from the first one.

56. 58 17 5      85 5 n

If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row what is the resultant of the second raw?
(a) 225
(b) 32
(c) 49
(d) 4
(e) None of these

57. 24 64 15      m 11 15

If m is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(a) 165
(b) 75
(c) 20
(d) 3
(e) None of these

58. 7 21 3      d 7 33

If d is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row?
(a) 40
(b) 138
(c) 231
(d) 80
(e) None of these

59. 73 34 13      32 P 15

If P is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row?
(a) 713
(b) 50
(c) 20
(d) 525
(e) None of these

60. 14 5 9      24 w 88

If w is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row?
(a) 171
(b) 283
(c) 195
(d) 165
(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 61-65) : Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each in inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth of falsity.
Mark answer (a) : If the inference is “definitely true”, i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
Mark answer (b) : If the inference is “probably true’ though not definitely true” in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (c) : If the “data are inadequate”, i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
Mark answer (d) : If the inference is “probably false” though not “definitely false” in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (e) : If the inference is definitely false”, i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
In an era of globalisation we need to find appropriate tools to confront the challenges facing agriculture. Commodity futures market can play a major role in addressing some of these challenges. In order to improve agricultural productivity, we need to encourage private investment including that from individual farmers, and reasonable returns for agri produce is a prerequisite for this. The price appreciation in agri commodities has failed to match the increase in price of inputs or the price rise of other commodities, indicating deterioration terms of trade for agriculture. Our spot markets are fragmented and, being dominated by a large chain of intermediaries, can hardly ensure a fair return for the farmers. Spot transactions, being mostly offline, lack audit trail. Different prices for the same commodity in different parts of the country give rise to arbitrage opportunities for traders. Further, driven by the need for immediate cash, most farmers engage in distress sale after harvest when supply exceeds demand and price is at its lowest.

61. Private are largely benefited due to distress sale of agriculture produces.

62. Traders are largely benefited due to distress sale of agriculture produces.

63. Prices of agricultural produces are comparable throughout the country.

64. The prices of agricultural produce do not generate expected return at present.

65. Traders are at a disadvantage for lack of organised trade practices of agricultural produces.

Directions (Q. 66-70) : In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

Directions (71-75) : In each of the following questions a series begins with an unnumbered figure on the extreme left. One and only one of the five numbered figures in the series does not fit into the series. The two unnumbered figures, one each on the extreme left and the extreme right, fit into the series. You have to take as many aspects into account as possible of the figures in the series and find out the one and only one of the five numbered figures which does not fit into the series. The number of that figure is the answer.

Answers:- 1. c 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. e 6. d 7. d 8. e 9. b 10. e 11. b 12. c 13. c 14. a 15. e 16. a 17. e 18. b 19. c 20. d 21. c 22. a 23. b 24. e 25. d 26. d 27. b 28. c 29. e 30. e 31. a 32. e 33. c 34. b 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. b 39. * 40. a 41. d 42. a 43. e 44. e 45. c 46. b 47. a 48. c 49. d 50. e 51. a 52. b 53. b 54. e 55. b 56. a 57. b 58. c 59. d 60. e 61. b 62. a 63. e 64. a 65. e 66. c 67. d 68. a 69. b 70. a 71. d 72. b 73. c 74. a 75. e

List of Important Bills

List of Important Bills (Part-1)

1. Central Information Commission:-

• Central information commission is constituted by the central government through a gazette notification.
• The commission includes one chief information and not more than 10 information commission.
• All are appointed by the president.
• Oath of office is administered by the president of India according to the form set out in the first schedule.
• Central information commission and state information commission have power of civil court.

2. Election Commission celebrates diamond jubilee:-

• The president of India recently inaugurated the diamond jubilee celebration of the election commission of India.
• The commission was set up on Jan 25, 1950. While the rest of the constitution came into force on Jan 26, 1950.
• Article 324 that created the commission was one of those exceptional provisions given effect as early as on Nov 26, 1949.
• Until Oct 1989 there was just one chief election commission. In 1991 a law providing for the appointment of two election commissioners. This law was amended and renamed in 1993.
• The election commission enjoys complete autonomy and is insulated from any kind of executive interference.
• It also functions as a quasi-judicial body in matters of electoral disputes and other matters involving the conduct of elections.
• However the decisions of the body are liable for independent judicial reviews by courts acting on electoral petitions.

Principal functions of Election Commission of India:-

• Demarcation of consistencies
• Preparation of electoral rolls
• Recognition of political parties and allotment of symbols
• Scrutiny of nomination papers
• Conduct of polls
• Scrutiny of election expenses of candidates.
• The national health bill – 2009
• It seeks to provide health , health equity and justice for all Indians

3. National Health Bill- 2009

It seeks to provide health, health equity and justice for all Indians.

Its Important Features are:-

• Right to heath care:- the bill seeks to legalize the right to health care along with other issues associated with health rights.
• Emergency care:- no individual should be denied emergency treatment because of his inability to pay fees or due to the requirement for police clearance.
• Patient complaints:- bill seeks to make it mandatory for the hospitals to address patient complaints on 24x7 basis.
• Name of doctor involved in treatment:- every patient has the right to know the name of doctor/ nurse involved in his treatment.

4. National Arrears Grid:-

• Union law minister had announced that the national arrears grid and the special purpose vehicle would implement the action plan to bring down the arrears of cases pending in various courts.
• The action plans should focus on human resource development, infrastructure development and procedural reforms.
• It is decided that special judges to deal with all pending criminal cases where the term of sentences was less than 3 years.
• It favored creation of a national pool of judicial officers from retired judges to enable persons from the pool to be appointed as high court judges.

5. Gram Nyayalayas:-

• The Gram Nyayalayas act 2008 had been enacted to provide for the establishment of the gram nyayalayas at the grass root level for the purpose of providing access to justice to the citizens at their door steps.

Salient features:-

• It is aimed at providing inexpensive justice to people in rural areas at their door steps.
• It will have its court of judicial magistrate of the first class and its presiding officers ( Nyayadhikri) shall be appointed by the state government in consultation with the High Court.
• The Gram Nyayalaya shall be established for every panchyats at intermediate level in a district or where there is no panchayat at intermediate level in any state for a group of contiguous panchayats.
• Gram nyayalaya shall be a mobile court and shall exercise the powers of both criminal and civil courts.
• Officiating nyaydhikari will go to villages work there and dispose of the cases.

6. Law commission:-

• It is a non- statutory body.
• Constituted by the government from time to time originally constituted in 1955 and it is reconstituted every three years.

7. Judges ( inquiry) bill , 2006:-

• The judges ( inquiry ) bill 2006 established a national judicial council ( NJC) to conduct Inquiries into allegations of incapacity or misbehavior by high court and Supreme Court judges.
• The proposed NJC would consist of the chief justice of India, two Supreme Court judges and two high court chief justices to investigate high court judge (It has been change again in the new draft).
• The chief justice of India and four Supreme Court judges to investigate Supreme Court judges.
• The NJC shall investigate complaints submitted by any persons, or upon receiving a references from parliament based on a motion moved by 50 Rajya Sabha or 100 Lok Sabha m.p.
• If the allegations are proven, the NJC may impose minor measures or recommended the removal of judges. Removal of judges shall be through impeachment by parliament.

8. Biotechnology Regulating Authority of India (BRAI) bill:-

• This Bill would bring about wide ranging changes in the process of regulating research, transport, import, manufacture and use of G.M product in the country.

Controversy regarding the Bill:-

• According to section 81 of the bill the act will have an overriding effect over other state – level acts. Activists allege that this ignores the constitutional powers of states over agriculture and health
• This bill has no provisions for public participation, which is a violation of article 23.2 of the Cartagena Protocol on bio- safety to which India is a signatory.
• The bill also states that whoever without any evidence or scientific record misleads the public about the safety of organism and products shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than six months. But which may extend to one year and with fine which may extend to two lakh rupees or with both.
• The bill serves to over ride state specific concerns by making the proposed authority solely responsible for releasing and controlling genetically modified organisms (GMOs) through out the country and envisages only an advisory role for state.

9. The prohibitions of unfair practices in technical, medical educations institutions and universities bill:-

• It is drafted by the Human Resource development ministry to provide for a central law to curb malpractices.
• However in the T.M.A pai , case supreme court held that establishment of private unaided educational institutions was in the exercise of fundamental rights to occupations under article 19 (1) (g) of the constitution.

10. Communal violence bill:-

• It is communal violence (prevention, control and rehabilitation) bill.
• The bill empowers the centre to intervene to tackle communal violence without the concurrence of the state government , if it is believe that state is not doing enough to control the violence.
• The bill also empowers the centre to declare any area in any state communally disturbed, if it is convinced that the state government is not following its directions to control or to check communal violence.
• The bill gives the central government exclusive power to constitute a unified command to deal with communal violence

  List of Important Bills (Part-II)

  1. Reservation based on religion:-

• For the first time, the Supreme Court in an interim order allowed a separate quota for backward Muslims in Andhra Pradesh.

2. Gender equality in armed forces:-

• Delhi high court has ruled that equality must be exercised while granting of the permanent commission to the army personal that have worked in the army.

3. National environment protection authority (NEPA):-

• This authority would ensure monitoring and compliance of environment laws, besides taking over the licensing functions from the ministry of environment and forests.
• It modeled on the lines of the U.S. environment protections authority.
• NEPA would be a statutory body autonomous of the environment ministry.
• After transferring all its licensing functions to NEPA, the environment ministry would remain as a policy making body.
• NEPA is expected to be a professional body consisting of experts.
• With NEPA and the national green tribunal in place the polluter pays principle will be implemented which makes both private and public sector companies’ pay for degrading the environment.

4. The prohibition of unfair practices in technical, medical education institutions and universities bill 2010:-

• This bill seeks to make capitation fee a cognizable offence.
• The bill recommends a minimum of three years imprisonment and a fine of Rs 50 lakh for charging capitation fee. And putting out misleading advertisements or willfully giving wrong information in the prospectus.

5. Employee state insurance act (ESI):-

• The union cabinet has approved a proposal of the labor ministry to arm the employee’s state insurance act (ESI) 1948 to provide medical facilities to unorganized workers. private hospitals under the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna (RSBY) can implement the health insurance schemes.
• There are about 43 crore unorganized workers in the country. Which make up about 94 % of the total work force.

6. Copyright bill:-

• Union government introduced the copyright amendment bill, 2010. The bill is the most comprehensive attempt to amend the 1957 act.
• It will seek to give independent rights to lyricists, composers and singers as the authors of literary and musical works in films.
• If the bill enacted, authors especially lyricists will get royalties and other benefits from the commercial exploitation of their work.

7. 86th constitutional amendment act:-

• Fundamental right of children to elementary education under article 21, a.
• 86th constitutional amendment act 2002.
• Gopal Krishna Gokhle urged the imperial legislative assembly to confer on the Indian people the right to education.

8. RTE act 2009:-

• It provides for children’s right to free and compulsory admission, attendance and completion of elementary education.
• Section 3 (i) of the act says that every children between the age of 6 to 14 must be provided with free education in the nearest school till that child completes his/ her elementary education.
• The act lays down that the curriculum should provide for learning through activities, exploration and discovery.
• It mandates children’s right to an educational system that is free from fear, stress and anxiety.
• The act prohibit corporal punishment
• The responsibility to provide schools, infrastructure, trained teachers, curriculum and teaching learning material and mid day meal lies with the educational departments of the central and state government.
• Supreme Court upholds quota in local bodies:-
• Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of articles 243 D (6) and 243 T (6), providing for reservation of seats in any panchayat and municipalities in favors of backward class.

9. MPLAD:-

• The Supreme Court held that the member of parliament local area development schemes, under which every MP is allotted 2 crore a year for constituency development was constitutional.
• The court said that, the allegation of misuse of the funds by some MPs in itself may not be a ground for scrapping the schemes as checks and safeguards have been provided.
• The court supporting the MPLAD scheme said that the information furnished shows that the scheme has benefited the local community by meeting its various development needs.
• The MPLAD scheme was launched during 1994.
• The objective of the scheme is to enable MPs to recommended works of developmental nature with emphasis on the creation of durable community assets, based on locally felt needs to be taken up in their constituencies.
• When the schemes was launched the amount was 5 lakh per MP from 1999 the amount was increased to 2 crore.

10. National Litigation Policy (NLP):-

• With the huge back log of cases continuing to clog the wheels of justice Mr. Moily launched a new policy initiative to ensure that government departments and agencies become more “responsible “in filling and pursuing cases.
• Government is the biggest litigator in the courts of India.
• The NLP drafted by the office of attorney- general G.E Vahanvati, the policy provides a set of tools for its implementations, including a provision for appointment of well trained model officers with adequate legal background and expertise by each and every department and agency for a “pro-active “measurement of its cases and constitution of empowered committees to monitor the implementation of the policy.

11. The higher educational and research bill 2010:-

• Reforming higher educational The bill takes away regulatory power given to various councils.
• The govt. planning to making of an umbrella regulating body. In this context the NCHER (National Council Of Higher Education And Research) would be an encompassing one. Covering all areas of education
• The draft bill states that along with the P.M both the union human resources development minister and the union health minister would be a part of the selection committee that would recommended to the president.

12. Replacement of Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act:-

• Often under attack from the opposition parties who accuse the government of the day of misusing it, the C.B.I. has urged the govt. to replace DSPE. Act that governs its functioning with a new low.
• In this regard CBI has submitted the draft CBI act 2010 as per provisions of Art 246 of the constitution to the govt. which it seeks as a replacement for the DSPE Act.
• CBI said that it felt constrained by the states to investigate offences in their jurisdictions.
• Hindu marriage act:-
• Divorce to become easier
• Under the Hindu marriage act and the special marriage act the union cabinet cleared amendments for introduction of “irretrievable breakdown of marriage as an additional ground”.
• In this context, section 13-B of the Hindu marriage act and section 28 of the special marriage act provide for divorce by mutual consent as a ground for presenting a petition for dissolution of marriage.

13. Representation of the people (amendment bill) 2006:-

• The bill seeks to amend the representation of the people act 1950.
• The 1950 act lays down the conditions for registering as a voter. One of the conditions requires a citizen to be an “ordinarily resident “in a constituency.
• The bill expends the definition of “ordinarily resident” to include any person who is away from his residence temporary or otherwise for employment, education or any other purpose.
• Unlike in the U.S. Indian citizen living abroad are not subject to pay the tax, but would get right to vote
• Extending the right to vote to Indian citizen living abroad would also allow them to stand in election.

14. MNREGA to have new dispute resolution system:-

• Beneficiaries of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act may soon be able to move village court to complain against undue delays in getting work or non payment of wages among other things.
• The rural development ministry proposes to set such Gram Nyayalyas on village court exclusively for this proposes.
• Budgetary allocation for MNREGA in this 2010 financial year is 40, 100 crore.

15. Mines And Minerals (development and regulation) Bill:-

• The bill prepare on the basis of the policy directions set forth in the 2008 national mineral policy and the recommendation of the Hooda Committee.
• The centre is planning to pay 26% Share in mining profits to tribal people and to set up a regulatory only to check illegal mining.
• The authority would leave the power to inspect and detect, investigate and prosecute of illegal mining.
• The centre would also leave the power to terminate the lease. If state could not act.

16. Educational Tribunal Bill, 2010:-

• Seeking to mediate adjudication of disputes in the education sector. This bill establishes educational Tribunal at national and state level.
• The bill has introduced in Lok Shaba on May 3, 2010. Then the bill has referred to the standing committee on Humane Resource Development.
• The tribunal at national and state level to adjudicate disputes involving teachers and other employment of higher education and other stake holders such as Students, universities including foreign educational providers and statutory regulatory authorities .
• National educational Tribunal Shall consists of a chairperson and minimum eight members.
• State educational Tribunal shall consist of chairperson and two other members.

17. Trade makes (Amendment) Bill 2009:-

The bill will allow any person or an enterprise to seek registration or trade mark in any of 84 member countries of the Madrid protocol through a single application.

• A sum of Rs. 300 crore has been earmarked in the 11th Plan for this purpose

18. Public Interest Disclosure and Protection to person making the disclosure bill 2010:-

• The bill would protect whistle blowers and provide severe punishment to those who expose the identity of the person or try to victimize such people.
• The bill also provides for setting up a regular mechanism to encourage disclosure of information on corruption ,and misuse of power by public servants, which causes demonstrable losses to the govt.
• The bill brings employees of centered and state government, public sector firms, local authorities and societies among others under its ambit.
• Whistle blowers: A whistle blowers is a person who raise a concern about undergoing occurring in any organization or body of people

19. Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Bill 2010:-

• The bill seeks to regulate the acceptance and utilization of foreign Contribution of foreign hospitality by certain individuals or associations or corporations
• the bill would present powers which want to use foreign funds to divide country on religion basis
• The bill had sufficient provision to ensure that genuine NGO interested in development authorities did not suffer
• There was a provision in the bill where if any organization received funds over Rs. 10 lakh in an instances the bank concerned would immediately inform the govt. so that source of such fund would be track.

20. Salary Hike for M.P:-

• A bill proposed a salary hike for M.P from Rs 16,000 to 50,000 and doubling their any allowances to Rs 40,000 was tabled in the Lok Shabha in monsoon session.
• The daily allowances for members from Rs. 1,000 to Rs 2,000 and office expenses allowances for Rs. 20,000 to Rs 40,000.

21. Nehru National Solar Mission:-

• Govt. aims to add at least 1000 MW solar power by the end of 2013.
• In the second phase , after taking into account the experience of the initial years, capacity will be aggressively ramped up to create conditions for up scaled & competitive solar energy perpetration in the country.
• The J.R.R.M was set up with the objective of achieving generation of 20 000 MW of solar energy is three phase by 2022.

22. National innovation council:-

• Support to govt. for inclusive innovations.
• National innovation council will be headed by Sam Pitroda.
• Innovation decade – (2010 – 2020)
• The council will have a mandate to evolve an Indian model of innovation that focuses on inclusive growth and creating an appropriate eco-system convince to fostering inclusive innovation.

23. Nalanda University Bill 2010:-

• The union cabinet cleared the Nalanda University Bill 2010 passing the way for the establishment of Nalanda University at a cost of Rs. 1,005 Crore.
• The Bill has been drafted by the ministry of external affairs, following a consensus arrival at east Asia submit held in Thailand in October last year.
• The mentor groups chaired by Professor Amartys Sen.
• In 2006, Singapore, China, India, Japan and other nation announced a proposed plan to restore the ancient site at Nalanda university.

24. National Urban Health Programme:-

• (NUHM) to provide better health care facilities to urban slum
• The ambition Rs. 33,000 crore schemes are expected to bring within its preview domestic help, vegetable venders, Vulnerable population such as migrants, rag pickers & street children.
• The mission aimed to correct structural imbalance in the public health system

25. Heath System in Urban Area:-

• According to the 2001 census, almost 4.26 crore people lived in slums in 640 cities.
• Once in place, the 7 area NUHM will seek to reduce the infant mortality rate to 30 per 1,000 line births and material mortality rate to 100 per 1,00,000 line births by 2015 .
• The mission will have four components:
• (a) On reach services.
• (b) Primary urban health centers.
• (c) Referral services.
• (d) Emergency medical services
• While for the first 2 years the center and the state will carry the burden in the ratio of 85:15, from third year (2012-13) onwards. Urban local bodies will have to share 10% of the cost.

26. Protection of Women Against Sexual Harassment At Work Places Bill 2010:-

• The draft legislation envisages that every work place. Where organized or unorganized. Should have an internal complaint committee with members nominated by the employer.
• In absent of such a committee, the draft bill envisages a penalty provision, including de-registration of the institution or a fine of Rs. 5000, 0 for the first time offence.
• For the second offence, the employee will be liable to twice the punishments imposed earlier.
• The pending includes with drawl of license or de-registered.
• The internal compliant committee’s presiding offices should be women.
• The draft bill include a new clause, 2(a) which defines an aggrieved women, bringing student’s research scholars and patients with in the ambit of the proposed law.
• The draft bill has a provision that in case a women is not satisfied with the conclusion of the district magistrate or appeal to the court.
• According to the proposed bill, sexual harassment means “an unwelcome sexually or by implication which included physical contact and advances or demand or request for sexual favors, sexually colored remarks. Showing pornography, or any other unwelcome physical, verbal conduct of sexual nature.

27. New Mining Legislation:-

• The government is in the process of framing a new mining legislation for displayed
• A group of minister’s (Gom) for the purpose headed by Pranav Mukherjee has proposed that company should share 26% of their profit from mining with those who suffered.
• The issue of mining has raging controversy even since environment ministry rejected the earlier clearness given to Vedanta’s Rs. 70,000 crore bauxite mining project in Niyam giri hills orissa on the ground of violating green and tribal norms
• Niyam Giri hills are home to Dongria Kondh tribe.

C-SAT Sample Test Paper

Basic Numeric Skills & Data Interpretation

Direction (Q. 01-25) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

(a) 7.1
(b) 3.5
(c) 0.7
(d) 2.4
(e) None of these

(a) 3/52
(b) 5/51
(c) 3/62
(d) 5/68
(e) None of these

3. (9)³ x (6)³ ÷ (3)³ = ?
(a) 1012
(b) 948
(c) 972
(d) 984
(e) None of these

4. 3√14887= ?
(a) 49
(b) 73
(c) 59
(d) 53
(e) None of these

5. 738 + (?) + 674 - 961 = 52
(a) 258
(b) -399
(c) 348
(d) -403
(e) None of these

6. 7824 ÷? × 66 = 3168
(a) 172
(b) 196
(c) 163
(d) 154
(e) None of these

7. 36% of 450 – ? % 340 = 66.80
(a) 28
(b) 32
(c) 24
(d) 18
(e) None of these

8. 21^5.36 / 21^3.47= 21^(?)
(a) 8.83
(b) 1.54
(c) 9.32
(d) 1.89
(e) None of these

9. (444 × 44 × 4) ÷ ? = 111
(a) 352
(b) 748
(c) 704
(d) 396
(e) None of these

10. 9647 + 8521 + 6310 8817 = ?
(a) 33925
(b) 33295
(c) 32395
(d) 32395
(e) None of these

11. √7225 x 1 / 5 + (35)² = ?
(a) 1236
(b) 1248
(c) 132.83
(d) 134.56
(e) None of these

12. 14.15 + 3.8 × 7.4 = ?
(a) 40.36
(b) 42.36
(c) 132.83
(d) 134.56
(e) None of these

13. √? x √484 = 1034
(a) 2025
(b) 2209
(c) 2401
(d) 2304
(e) None of these

14. ( ? - 2763) ÷ 86 × 13 = 208
(a) 4152
(b) 4096
(c) 4134
(d) 4139
(e) None of these

15. 569 × 748 = ?
(a) 425432
(b) 424474
(c) 425043
(d) 426360
(e) None of these

16. 9 / 136 x ? + 456 =663
(a) 3536
(b) 3264
(c) 2856
(d) 3672
(e) None of these

17. √? ÷ 4 × 56 = 672
(a) 2116
(b) 2401
(c) 2601
(d) 2304
(e) None of these

18. 532 / 648 x 432 / 588
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e) None of these

19. (58)² – (39)² + (24)² = ?
(a) 2419
(b) 1267
(c) 3940
(d) 4309
(e) None of these

20. 3927 + 5526 ÷12.5 = ?
(a) 4369.24
(b) 756.24
(c) 4369.08
(d) 750.24
(e) None of these

21. 0.789 + ? × 2.5 = 4.269
(a) 1.932
(b) 1.50
(c) 2.392
(d) 2.50
(e) None of these

22. 18 x 14 - 6x8 / 488 ÷ 4 - 20 = ?
(a) 2
(b) 1/2
(c) 3/4
(d) 4
(e) None of these

24. 7857 + 6336 = ? - 5530
(a) 19723
(b) 73556
(c) 73655
(d) 73665
(e) None of these

25. 715632 - 631104 - 9874 - 999 = ?
(a) 73565
(b) 73556
(c) 73655
(d) 73665
(e) None of these
26. Amit, Sumit and Vinit divide an amount of Rs 2,800 amongst themselves in the ratio of 5:6:3 respectively. If an amount of Rs 200 is added to each of their shares, what will be the new ratio of their shares of the amount ?
(a) 8 : 9 : 6
(b) 6 : 7 : 4
(c) 7 : 8 : 5
(d) 4 : 5 : 2
(e) None of these

27. Find the average of the following sets of scores.
198, 309, 256, 488, 145, 326, 427
(a) 307
(b) 315
(c) 298
(d) 326
(e) None of these

28. What is 280% of 3940?
(a) 11032
(b) 10132
(c) 11320
(d) 11230
(e) None of these

29. The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the two digits of the same number is 27. The sum of the digits of the two-digit number is 11. What is the two-digit number ?
(a) 74
(b) 83
(c) 47
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

30. What approximate amount of compound interest can be obtained on an amount of Rs. 4,890 at the rate of 5% p.a. at the end of two years ?
(a) Rs. 4522
(b) Rs. 4893
(c) Rs. 515
(d) Rs. 5205
(e) Rs. 501

31. The product of two successive numbers is 6162. Which is the large number ?
(a) 78
(b) 77
(c) 81
(d) 79
(e) None of these

32. The average of four positive integers is 59. The highest integer is 83 and the lowest integer is 29. the difference between the remaining two integers is 28. Which of the following integers is the higher of the remaining two integers ?
(a) 48
(b) 76
(c) 81
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

33. If (73)² is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 198. What is 64% of that number ?
(a) 98
(b) 96
(c) 102
(d) 106
(e) None of these

34. The difference between 40% of a number and 28% of the same number is 198. What is 64% of that number ?
(a) 1122
(b) 1065
(c) 1056
(d) 1023
(e) None of these

35. The ratio of the length and the breadth of a rectangular plot is 7 : 6. The perimeter of the plot is 208 metres. What is the area of the rectangular plot ?
(a) 2696 sq m
(b) 2688 sq m
(c) 2592 sq m
(d) 2538 sq m
(e) None of these

36. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ?
15 29 57 113 ? 449
(a) 226
(b) 235
(c) 215
(d) 224
(e) None of these

37. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question ?
3876 ÷ 5448 × (29) 2 = ?
(a) 5046
(b) 4205
(c) 59448
(d) 6728
(e) None of these

38. Mr. Mehra invests an amount of Rs.18,000 to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 15% p.a. for 6 years. What total amount will Mr. Mehra get at the end of 6 years ?
(a) Rs 33,500
(b) Rs 35,000
(c) Rs 34,000
(d) Rs 34,200
(e) None of these

39. The present age of Mr. Sanyal is 3 time the present age of his son. Six years hence the ratio of their ages will be 5 : 2. What is the present age of Mr. Sanyal ?
(a) 50 years
(b) 48 years
(c) 54 years
(d) 60 years
(e) None of these

40. What is 968 times 837 ?
(a) 801216
(b) 811184
(c) 809379
(d) 811053
(e) None of these

41. In an examination it is required to get 36% of the aggregate mark to pass. A student gets 198 marks and is declared failed by 36 marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get ?
(a) 550
(b) 650
(c) 480
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

42. If x + y=15 and xy = 56, then what is the value of (x)² +(y)² ?
(a) 113
(b) 121
(c) 110
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

43. The total number of students study in a school is 6754. The ratio of the total number of girls to the total number of boys studying in the school is 5 : 6. What is the total number of boys studying in the school ?
(a) 3070
(b) 3592
(c) 3090
(d) 3684
(e) None of these

44. A canteen requires 105 kg of wheat for a week. How many Kg of wheat will it require for 58 days ?
(a) 406
(b) 870
(c) 708
(d) 536
(e) None of these

45. The cost of 3 digital cameras and 5 cell phones is Rs.35,290. What is the cost of 9 digital cameras and 15 cell phones ?
(a) Rs. 1,05,870
(b) Rs. 6,46,960
(c) Rs. 1,76,450
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

46. If an amount of Rs.28,956 is distributed equally amongst 16 persons, how much amount would each person get ?
(a) Rs. 1,809.50
(b) Rs. 1,890
(c) Rs. 1,890.75
(d) Rs.1,900
(e) None of these

47. In how many different ways can 6 children be seated on 6 seats ?
(a) 360
(b) 120
(c) 590
(d) 740
(e) None of these

48. The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers A,B, C, D and E is 47. What is the product of A and D ?
(a) 2107
(b) 1935
(c) 2021
(d) 2193
(e) None of these

49. In the following number series one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
17 22 32 45 67 92
(a) 67
(b) 32
(c) 22
(d) 45
(e) None of these

50. The circumference of a circular plot is 396 metres. What is the area of the circular plot?
(a) 9,856 sq m
(b) 18,634 sq m
(c) 12,474 sq m
(d) 9,446 sq m
(e) None of these

Answers: 1. e 2. a 3. c 4. d 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. d 9. 3 10. b 11. d 12. 5 13. b 14. d 15. e 16. e 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. c 21. e 22. a 23. b 24. a 25. c 26. b 27. a 28. a 29. d 30. e 31. d 32. b 33. c 34. c 35. b 36. e 37. c 38. d 39. c 40. e 41. b 42. a 43. d 44. b 45. a 46. e 47. e 48. d 49. d 50.

UPSC OFFICIAL SAMPLE PAPERS FOR CSAT 2011 PRELIMS

UPSC Declares Official Sample Papers For Prelims 2011 & CSAT

The syllabus and pattern of Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination (CS(P)) has undergone significant changes with effect from 2011. These changes have already been intimated to the public vide Press Note on 22nd October, 2010, which is available on UPSC website. The Commission had also indicated in the Press Note that a set of sample questions for both the papers would be put up on the UPSC website, in due course, for reference of the prospective candidates.

A set of 14 sample questions for Paper-I and Paper-II of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, on the revised syllabus and pattern, are given below. These questions are indicative of the type of questions that may be constructed and used by UPSC in Paper-I and Paper II of CS (P) examination, 2011. However, neither the content nor the structure/type of questions may be construed as being exhaustive or limiting the freedom of UPSC to set questions based on the syllabus prescribed for the examination.

It may be noted that as per the existing practice, both the question papers would be bilingual (English and Hindi), except for some questions specifically intended to test English Language Comprehension skills, which would be in English only. Some more sample questions may be put up subsequently. Hindi version of the sample questions would follow.

CS (P) Examination - Sample Paper
(Based on Revised Syllabus & Pattern Effective From CS (P) Examination, 2011)

PAPER-I

1. With reference to Simon Commission’s recommendations, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces.
(b) It proposed the setting up of inter-provincial council under the Home Department.
(c) It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre
(d) It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits.

2. A geographic area with an altitude of 400 metres has following characteristics:

it most likely be?
(a) Moist temperate coniferous forest
(b) Montane subtropical forest
(c) Temperate forest
(d) Tropical rain forest

3. Other than Jatropha curcas, why is Pongamia pinnata also considered a good option for the production of bio-diesel in India?
1. Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India.
2. The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid content of which nearly half of oleic acid.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plate does not. This is because:
(a) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose
(b) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves
(c) Potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water
(d) Potato is a fresh organic material whereas paper is a dead organic material

5. With reference to India, consider the following:
1. Nationalization of Banks
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks
3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches
Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the ‘financial inclusion” in India?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

6. Consider the following actions by the Government:
1. Cutting the tax rates
2. Increasing the government spending
3. Abolishing the subsidies
In the context of economic recession, which of the above actions can be considered a part of the “ fiscal stimulus” package?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

PAPER-II

Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Your answers should be drawn from the content of given passage only. The economy of contemporary India is a great paradox. It is a strange combination of outstanding achievements as well as grave failures. Since independence, India has achieved remarkable progress in overcoming its economic backwardness. From being a very poor country in the 1950s and a ‘basket case’ in the mid 1960s, it has emerged as the fourth largest economy in the world (in terms of purchasing power parity). Our economy has become one of the fastest growing economies in the world. Now the country is one of the leading players in the world knowledge economy with vast intellectual capital and booming software and information technology services. While our country has joined the league of the world’s top five fastest growing economies, we are in the bottom 20 among all countries in terms of the Human Development Index. While the country is celebrating its growth rate and technological wonders, it is witnessing social contradictions and the paradox and ironies of development. Thus, there are ‘two Indias’ in contemporary India.

1. Why is the Indian economy considered ‘a great paradox’?
(a) It is a leading player in information technology services with low levels of literacy.
(b) There is poverty amidst plenty in agricultural produce.
(c) It is one of the largest economies with low human development.
(d) It has scientific achievements with social contradictions.

2. Why is India being referred to as a leading player in the world knowledge economy?
(a) India’s knowledge base in science and technology is one of the world’s best.
(b) India has huge reserves of human intellectual capitals and information technology services.
(c) India is among the World’s five fastest growing economics and technology reserves.
(d) India has a huge reservoir of human capital and scientific knowledge export potential.

3. What does the author imply by the phrase ‘two Indias’ ?
(a) There is the India that has vast intellectual capital and the other that is largely illiterate.
(b)There is the India of burgeoning growth and the India of widespread want and misery.
(c) There is the India of progressive mindsets and the other who are socially conservative.
(d)There is an India of outstanding achievements combined with gigantic failures.

4. Consider the following statement and also the conclusions. Answer the question that follows:
Statement : Education is in the Concurrent List. The State government cannot bring reforms in education without the consent of Central Government.
Conclusion I : For bringing about quick reforms in education, it should be in the State List .
Conclusion II: States are not willing to bring about quick reforms in Education.

Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement.
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement.
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement

5. Five persons P, Q, R, S, T are sitting in a row. Q is between P and T. To find who among them is in the middle, which of the information given in the following statements is/are sufficient?
1. P is left of Q and right of S.
2. R is at the right end.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Either 1 or 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

6. Which one among 2 , 33 , 66 , 1212 is the smallest one?
(a) 2
(b) 33
(c) 66
(d) 1212

7. The following pie charts show that a man spends 10% on clothes, 20% on rent, 30% on food and rest on miscellaneous items in the month of January and spends 15% on clothes, 25% on rent, 35% on food and rest on miscellaneous items in the month of February.

Consider the following statements:
1. The money spent on food over rent in the month of January is same as the money spent on food over rent in the month of February.
2. The money spent on rent over clothes is same as money spent on food over rent in the month of January.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Note: The following question would be in English Language only to test English Language Comprehension.

8. Whenever I had occasion to indulge in these surreptitious feasts, dinner at home was out of question. My mother would naturally ask me to come and take my food and want to know the reason why I did not wish to eat. I would say to her, ‘I have no appetite today; there is something wrong with my digestion.’ It was not without compunction that I devised these pretexts. I knew I was lying, and lying to my mother. l also knew that, if my mother and father came to know of my having become a meateater, they would be deeply shocked. This knowledge was gnawing at my heart.

Why did the author devise some pretexts not without compunction ?
(a)He wanted to keep away from home some times.
(b) Surreptitious feasts thrilled him.
(c)Dinners outside were better than at home.
(d) He wanted to eat meat.

APPSC GROUP-II PREPARATION STRATAGY

Indian Space Programme

Indian Space Programme – the History and Achievements.

Programme—The primary objectives of Indian Space Programme are ‘‘Satellite Based Communications, Resources Survey and Meteorological Applications.’’

Research and development activities under the space programme are carried out in various centers/units of Deptt. of Space and ISRO. The major centers are-Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), Thiruvananthapuram; ISRO Satellite Centre (ISAC), Bangalore; SHAR Centre at Sriharikota (Andhra Pradesh); Space Applications Centre (SAC), Ahmedabad; Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) with its facilities at Bangalore, Thiruvananthapuram and Mahendragiri; ISRO Telemetry Tracking and Command Network (ISTRAC) with its network of ground stations and Development and Educational Communication Unit (DECU), Ahmedabad.

The headquarters of the Department of Space and ISRO are located in Bangalore.

Space Programme & Achievements
Aryabhatta—India’s first Satellite launched from Soviet Cosmodrom on April 19, 1975.
Bhaskar—India’s Second Satellite launched on June 7, 1979.
Rohini I—Launched for the first time from Indian soil in July 1980.
Rohini II—Launched on May 21, 1981 but it was burnt on June 8, 1981.
Apple—(First Communication Satellite) Launched on June 19, 1981 by European Space Agency from Kourou, French Guyana.
Bhaskar II—India’s second Earth Observation Satellite launched from Soviet Cosmodrom on November 21, 1981.
INSAT–1A—India’ First Multipurpose satellite launched on April 10, 1982 from Cape Canaveral in USA. It ended Functioning within 6 months of its launching.
Rohini–2—It was launched in April 1983 from Sriharikota (SHAR) by Indian made SLV-3 D. 2 Rocket. It shows India’s satisfactory progress in Space Research.


INSAT–1B—It was launched on 30th August, 1983 from Cape Canaveral (America) by American Shuttle Challenger.
A.S.L.V.—On March 24, 1987 India launched A.S.L.V. But it caught fire within three minutes and was destroyed.
I.R.S.–1A—This satellite India’s first Remote Sensing Satellite was launched on March 17, 1988.
I.R.S.–1-B—Second Indian Remote Sensing Satellite was launched on Aug. 29 and it became operative on 16th Sept. 1991.
A.S.L.V.–D2—A.S.L.V.-D2 was unsuccessfully launched from Sriharikota on July 13, 1988.
INSAT–1C—INSAT–1C was launched by Arian Rocket from French Guyana on July 22, 1988. It is partially working.
INSAT–1D—The last satellite of INSAT–1 series has been launched from Cape Canaveral on 12th June, 1990. It has started giving its services since 17th July, 1990.
A.S.L.V.–D-3—This was launched from Sriharikota on May 20, 1992. It has successfully placed into orbit a SROSS-III Satellite.
INSAT–2A—This was launched by Arian Rocket–4 from French Guyana on July 10, 1992.
INSAT-2B—This was launched by Arian Rocket from French Guyana on July 23, 1993.
PSLV-D1—It was unsuccessfully launched from Sriharikota on Sept. 20, 1993.
PSLV-D2—IRS-P2, 870 kg. Remote Sensing Satellite hurled into Polar Sun-Synchronous Orbit by the successful launch of Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-D2) from Sriharikota on October 15, 1994.
INSAT-2C—Launched into Orbit from Kourou (French Guyana) on Dec. 7, 1995.
IRS-1C—Successfully launched on Dec. 28, 1995.
IRS-P3—It was successfully launched on March 21, 1996.
INSAT-2D—Successfully launched into orbit from Kourou (French Guyana) on June 4, 1997.
IRS-1D—It was successfully launched on Sept. 29, 1997 from Sriharikota.
INSAT-2E—Successfully launched into Orbit from Kourou (French Guyana) on April 3, 1999.
IRS-P—Successfully launched from Rocket Launching Centre, Sriharikota on 26th May, 1999 PSLV–C2.
PSLV-C4—It was successfully launched from Sriharikota on May 26, 1999. It carried India’s IRSP4 (Ocean sat), South Korean Kit sat-3 and Germany’s Tubsat in space in their respective orbits.
INSAT-3B—It was successfully launched from European Rocket Launching Station at Kourou in French Guyana on March 22, 2000.
GSLV–D1—It was successfully launched from Sriharikota Range (SHAR), Andhra Pradesh on April 18, 2001. It carried India’s satellite GSAT-1 and put it in the earth’s orbit. Its purpose is commercial communication.
PSLV–C3—PSLV–C3 was launched on October 22, 2001 from ISRO’s SHAR Centre at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh carrying 3 satellites—ISRO’s Technology Experiment Satellite (TES), Germany’s BIRD (Bispectral and Infrared Remote Detection) and Belgium’s PROBA (Project for Onboard Autonomy).
INSAT-3C—It was successfully launched on January 24, 2002 by European Rocket Arian-4 from Kourou launching station of French Guyana.
PSLV–C4—India’s first exclusive meteorological satellite (METSAT) was successfully launched in Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) by PSLVC4 on September 12, 2002 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
INSAT-3A—India successfully launched into space its space satellite INSAT-3A on Ariane rocket from Kourou in French Guyana on April 10, 2003. It is primarily a meteorological satellite.
GSLV-D2—India successfully launched her GSLV-D2 carrying a communication satellite GSAT-2 from Sriharikota on May 8, 2003.
INSAT-3E—India’s communication satellite INSAT-3E was successfully launched into space from Kourou Space Centre on September 28, 2003.
Resource sat-1—India successfully launched its heaviest (1360 kg) and sophisticated remote sensing satellite, Resource sat-1 using the indigenously built polar satellite launch vehicle (PSLV) on October 17, 2003.
Rohini-200—On the 40th anniversary of launching Rohini rockets India’s ISRO successfully launched Rohini-200 sounding rocket on November 21, 2003.
Edusat—India launched her first educational satellite EDUSAT on September 20, 2004 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
CARTOSAT–1—India’s first mapping satellite CARTOSAT-1 was launched into space on May 5, 2005 with the help of the launching rocket-Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle–PSLV-CS. Another satellite–HAMSAT was also launched at the same time. Both satellites were successfully placed in their geostationary orbit.
INSAT-4A—The latest and heaviest communication satellite of Indian Space Research Organisations (ISRO), was successfully launched by the European Agency’s Ariane-5 G launch vehicle from Kourou (French Guyana) on December 22, 2005.
INSAT-4C—Launched on July 10, 2006 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota with the help of Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV-FO2), the 2,168 kg. satellite to boost Direct to Home Television Service and digital news gathering could not be a success owing to the failure of the launch vehicle. The mission was thus an unfortunate failure.
PSLV-C9—In its thirteenth flight conducted from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, SHAR, Sriharikota on April 28, 2008 ISRO’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle—PSLV-C9 successfully launched the 690 kg Indian remote, sensing satellite.
CARTOSAT-2A, the 83 kg Indian Mini Satellite (IMS-1) and eight nanosatellites for international customers.
Chandrayaan-I—India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-C11) on Oct. 22, 2008 successfully put Chandrayaan-I into its initial orbit marking the spacecraft’s long journey to the Moon. It was really a historic achievement on the part of India.
INSAT-4B—ISRO’s Satellite INSAT-4B successfully launched on March 12, 2007 by the European Arian-5 ECA launch vehicle from the Kourou island in French Guiana. The 3025 kg INSAT-4B is the second Satellite in the INSAT-4 series. INSAT-4B will further augment the INSAT capacity for Direct-To-Home (DTH) television services and other communication and TV services.

UPSC CPF GENERAL ABILITY 2009 SOLVED PAPER

1. Which one of the following statements about Nandan Nilekani is not correct?
(1) He is the co-founder of Infosys Technologies Limited
(2) He wrote a book, titled “Imagining India” in which he passionately called for governmental and cultural reforms
(3) He is Member of the Planning Commission of India
(4) He is given the rank of Cabinet Minister in July, 2009
Ans. (3)

2. Consider the following statements about former Australian cricketer Steve Waugh:
(a) He is the author of the book “True Colours: My life”
(b) He is deeply influenced by the deeds of Mother Teresa.
(c) He is working for the cause of the children afflicted by leprosy in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) b and c only
(2) a only
(3) a and c only
(4) a, b and c
Ans. (1)

3. Which one of the following is not a World Heritage Site?
(1) Kaziranga National Park
(2) Sundarbans National Park
(3) Kangchendzonga National Park
(4) Keoladeo National Park
Ans. (3)

4. Which one of the following types of forests covers the largest area in India?
(1) Tropical dry deciduous
(2) Tropical moist deciduous
(3) Tropical evergreen
(4) Himalayan moist temperate
Ans. (1)

5. In May 2008, the Supreme Court of India laid down six parameters to make the police effective, accountable and insulated from political interference and set up a monitoring committee to ensure that states implement police reforms. Which one of the following is not a directive of the apex court in this regard?
(1) Setting up of a state security commission in every state to ensure that the state government did not exercise unwarranted influence or pressure on the state police
(2) Selection of state’s director general of police would be from amongst the three senior most officers
(3) Fixing a minimum tenure of five years for police officers on operational posts unless they face disciplinary proceedings or were convicted in a criminal offence
(4) Setting up a separate investigation police force to ensure that criminal cases are prosecuted effectively
Ans. (3)

6. Contamination of mustard oil has led to several outbreaks of Epidemic Dropsy in India. Which one of the following contaminant is responsible for it?
(1) Automobile oil
(2) Linseed oil
(3) Argemone oil
(4) Rapeseed oil
Ans. (3)

7. A farmer sows beans in his fields after harvesting a crop of wheat. Which one of the following agricultural practice is he following?
(1) Multiple cropping
(2) Crop rotation
(3) Fallow field
(4) Mixed cropping
Ans. (2)

8. Aquatic animals breathe much faster than terrestrial animals because of:
(1) low amount of dissolved oxygen in water
(2) low amount of hemoglobin in their blood
(3) high metabolic rate of aquatic animals
(4) large amount of dissolved nitrogen in water
Ans. (3)

9. Which of the following is not true about Giant Panda?
(1) It is a logo of WWF (World Wide Fund for Nature)
(2) Giant Pandas are naturally found in Tibet and Southwest China
(3) Giant Pandas are worst invasive species of the world
(4) Giant Pandas feed on Bamboos
Ans. (2)

10. Which one of the following statements is not correct about “Flavr Savr” tomatoes?
(1) It is genetically engineered
(2) Its ripening process is slow
(3) The fruit cannot be left on the plant for a long period
(4) They have increased yield and better flavour
Ans. (4)

11. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Biosphere Reserves?
(1) They are protected areas meant for conservation of Biodiversity
(2) Each Biosphere reserve has three zones
(3) There is a network of Biosphere, reserves world ever
(4) They were first started by IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature and
Natural Resources)
Ans. (4)

12. Which of thee following chemicals is an artificial sweetener prescribed to diabetic persons?
(1) Aspartame
(2) Glucose
(3) Sucrose
(4) Maltose
Ans. (1)

13. Villagers in some parts of India use the water extract of the ash obtained by burning banana plant as a substitute of soda. Which one of the following is the major active component in the extract?
(1) Sodium Carbonate
(2) Potassium Carbonate
(3) Calcium Oxide
(4) Magnesium Oxide
Ans. (1)

14. Match List-I with. List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I List-II
(Process) (Contaminant)
A. Aeration followed by filtration 1. Removal of colour
B. Reverse Osmosis 2. Removal of microorganism
C. Filtration through activated carbon 3. Removal of iron

D. Treatment with UV light 4. Removal of excess salts

Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (3)

15. In some parts of India, consumption’ of underground water causes mottled teeth and bone damage. Which one of the following is responsible for this malady?
(1) Fluoride ion
(2) Chloride ion
(3) Oxide ion
(4) Carbonate ion
Ans. (1)

16. In Buddhist principle, the performance of Sila and the achievement of Samadhi and Prajna lead to Nirvana. What does this Sila stand for?
(1) Mental control
(2) Physical control
(3) Development of insight
(4) Strict penance
Ans. (1)

17. Agnimitra, the hero of Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitra belonged to:
(1) Sunga dynasty
(2) Kanva dynasty
(3) Satvahana dynasty
(4) Gupta dynasty
Ans. (1)

18. Ministry of Women and Child Development adopted the Mission statement of ‘Budgeting for Gender Equality’ in 2004-05. In this context which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?
(a) It calls for incorporating a gender perspective at all levels and stages of the budgetary process.
(b) It stands for providing safe shelter to displaced women.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (3)

19. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. In this context which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Hon’ble Chief Justice of Supreme Court is the Executive Chairman of the Authority
(2) It’s objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society, on the basis of equal opportunity
(3) it issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country
(4) To organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes
Ans. (1)

20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I List-II
(Commission) (Issue)
A. Dar Commission 1. Assassination of Indira Gandhi
B. Kalelkar Commission 2.Ragging in educational institutions
C. Thakkar Commission 3. Demand for Linguistic States
4. Backward Classes
Codes:
A B C
(1) 3 4 1
(2) 3 2 4
(3) 1 2 4
(4) 1 4 2
Ans. (1)

21. Which of the following provisions is/are not directly covered in the definition of Domestic violence under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
(1) Physical harm causing physical injury or pain to women
(2) Mental injury such as emotional abuse, insult, harassment, repeated threats, demand for dowry, sexual abuse etc.
(3) Non-sharing of house-hold work, non-caring attitude for children, unhealthy habits of living, late coming etc. (of the male partner)
(4) Deprivation of economic or financial resources
Ans. (3)

22. Which. of the following movement address both sociological and ecological issues?
(a) The Trade Union movements in postcolonial India
(b) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(c) Jai Prakash Narain’s movement for total revolution
(d) Chilka Bachao Andolan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) a and c only
(2) b and d only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) a, b, c and d
Ans. (2)

23. Which of the following is not a correct description of the ‘zero hour’?
(1) The time allotted after the Question Hour
(2) Question on issues of national importance or serious grievances of the people can be raised by members of either House
(3) Questions to he asked during zero hour are circulated one day in advance only
(4) The justification for its origin lies in allowing for democratic discussion beyond rules and procedures
Ans. (3)

24. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Rajaya Sabha can make recommendations on a money bill
(2) Rajya Sabha can amend a money bill
(3) Rajya Sabha can delay the passing of a money bill up to a maximum of 14 days
(4) Rajaya Sabha cannot reject a money bill
Ans. (2)

25. Which of the following statements are correct?
The attorney general of India
(a) must have the qualifications as that required by a judge of the supreme court
(b) enjoys the same privileges and immunities as the members of Parliament.
(c) has the right of audience in all courts of India.
(d) his salaries and expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b only
(3) c and d
(4) b and d
Ans. (1)

26. Who among the following Print Ministers of India never had to seek trust vote (vote of confidence) from the Lok Sabha?
(1) Indira Gandhi
(2) P. V. Narasimha Rao
(3) H. D. Devegowda
(4) Manmohan Singh
Ans. (1)

27. The Parliament is entitled to enact a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with:
(1) defense
(2) foreign affairs
(3) security of India
(4) All the above
Ans. (4)

28. Who among the following Prime Ministers of India has not presented the budget?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) Morarji Desai
(3) Indira Gandhi
(4) Rajeev Gandhi
Ans. (2)

29. Consider the following statements:
(a) When the inflation decreases, but still remains positive. it is deflation.
(b) Deflation reduces the real value of money over time.
(c) Historically not all episodes of deflation correspond with periods of poor economic
growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and c only
(3) c only
(4) b only
Ans. (3)

30. Which one of the following are advance grants made by the House of People in respect of the estimated expenditure for a part of the ensuing financial year, pending the regular passage of the budget?
(1) Supplementary grants
(2) Special grants
(3) Vote on credit
(4) Vote on account
Ans. (4)

31. Consider the following Statements with respect to Pulitzer Prizes:
(a) The Pulitzer Prize Gold Medal is awarded each year to the American newspaper that wins the Public Service category.
(b) The Pulitzer Prize Gold Medal is never awarded to an individual.
(c) Jhumpa Lahiri won the Pulitzer Prize in the year 2000 for her first book: a short
story collection called The Interpreter of Malacities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a, b and c
(2) a only
(3) b and c only
(4) a and c only
Ans. (1)

32. Which one of the following is correct with respect to Pawan Hans?
(1) It is a fighter aircraft operational with the Indian Air Force
(2) It is India’s one of the leading helicopter service provider
(3) It is a wind energy plant, located in Himachal Pradesh
(4) It is a mountain peak situated at the Kargil region
Ans. (2)

33. Consider the following statements about Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG):
(a) The NSG guidelines are implemented by each participating government in accordance with its national laws.
(b) The NSG guidelines facilitate the development of nuclear trade.
(c) South Africa is the only country from Africa in the NSG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b and c only
(3) a, b and c
(4) a and b only
Ans. (2)

34. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the historic Stilwell road’?
(a) It connects India and Myanmar through Arunachal Pradesh.,
(b) It was built by the Japanese during the World War II.
(c) The road lies in the lands of ‘three different countries China, Myanmar and India.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(1) a and b
(2) b only
(3) a and c
(4) b and c
Ans. (3)

35. Consider the following paragraph:
With origins shrouded in mystery, the dancers of this classical form of dance of India communicate inner emotions and themes through candences of body flexions, movements and kinetic suggestions. Three styles of this form of dance exist, originating from the three different regions of Seraikela (Jharkhand), Purulia (West Bengal), and Mayurbhanj (Orissa). Martial movements, strong rhythmic statements and dynamic use of space are characteristic of this dance form. The dance is an excellent culmination of enormous vitality and virility. As It is difficult to dance for long with a mask, the dance does not last more than 7-10 minutes.
The above paragraph may be attributed to which one of the following dance form?
(1) Jatra
(2) Chhau
(3) Garba
(4) Cheraw
Ans. (2)

36. Which one of the following is not a function of Reserve Bank of India?
(1) Banker to the government
(2) Keeping foreign exchange reserve
(3) Issuing of one rupee coin and note
(4) Regulating credit in the country
Ans. (3)

37. Consider the following paragraph about a famous autobiographical narrative:
It was first published in 19 when the author was, elected the first African-American President of the Harvard Law Review. The law jurna1. It tells the story of the life of the author up to his entry in the Harvard Law Review. The author’s parents separated when he was two years old. In that book he formed an image of his absent father from the stories told by his mother and her parents.
Who is the author of the memoir?
(1) Nelson Mandela
(2) Martin Luther King
(3) Benjamin Banneker
(4) Barak Hussain Obama
Ans. (4)

38. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of holding of the Grand Slam tennis tournaments every year?
(1) US Open—French Open— Australian Open—Wimbledon
(2) Australian Open—French Open—Wimbledon—US Open
(3) French Open—Australian Open—US Open—Wimbledon
(4) Wimbledon—French Open— US Open—Australian Open
Ans. (2)

39. Which one of the following statements about Dr. Manmohan Singh is not correct?’
(1) Dr. Manmohan Singh is the first Indian Prime Minister to return to power after
completing a full five-year term,
(2) He was the Union Minister of Finance during the tenure of then-Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao.
(3) He was the Governor of Reserve Bank of India and thereafter the Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission,
(4) From 1998 to 2004, he was the Leader of the Opposition in the Rajaya Sabha.
Ans. (1)

40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I List-II
(Chairperson) (Working Group on)
A. Prof. D. L. Seth 1. Empowerment of Scheduled Castes
B. Prof. S. K. Thorat 2. Empowerment of Minorities
C. Shri. S. Sankaran 3. Empowerment of the other backward classes
4. Empowerment of Scheduled Tribes
Codes:
A B C
(1) 4 3 2
(2) 1 4 3
(3) 3 1 4
(4) 3 2 4
Ans. (3)

41. Consider the following statements about Employees’ State Insurance (ESI) Act, 1948:
(a) The Act is applicable to non seasonal factories using power and employing 20 or more persons.
(b) The ESI Scheme has already been implemented in different areas in all the State/Union Territories of India.
(c) ESI Scheme being contributory in nature, all the employees in th factories or establishments to which the Act applies shall be insured.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(1) a and b only
(2) a and c only
(3) b and c only
(4) a, b and c
Ans. (3)

42. From the paragraph given below identify the temple referred to:
Situated on the serene surrounding on the bank of river Mahanadi, this temple is one of the wonders of the medieval period and draws at1ention of several devotees, tourists and researchers from all around the world. The temple does not stand upright and is tilted towards one side. Another attraction of the temple of Kudo fish for which special offerings are made.
(1) Muktesvara temple
(2) Huma temple
(3) Cuttack chandi temple
(4) Lingaraj temple
Ans. (2)

43. Consider the following statements with respect to recent developments in infrastructure sector in India:
(a) India Infrastructure Finance Company Limited was Set up as a banking company for providing long-term loans for financing infrastructure projects.
(b) 100 per cent Foreign Direct Investment under automatic route is permitted for all infrastructure projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (3)

44. Which of the following statements about ‘Ujjawala’, a comprehensive scheme for the prevention of trafficking, rescue, and rehabilitation of women and child victims is not correct?
(1) It consists of certain mechanisms for the reintegration nd repatriation of victims including cross border victims
(2) This scheme is being implemented by various non governmental organizations to provide direct aid and benefit to victims of trafficking
(3) The scheme has four components viz, Prevention, Rescue, Rehabilitation, and Repatriation
(4) The scheme is designed to liberate victims of commercial sexual exploitation
Ans. (3)

45. Consider the following paragraph On Indian painting:
Women are mainly engaged in the creation of these paintings. These painting’s do not depict mythological characters or images of deities, but depict social life. Images of human being’s and animals along with scenes from daily life are created in a loose rhythmic pattern. Painted white on mud walls, they are pretty close to prehistoric cave paintings in execution and usually depict scenes of human figures engaged in activities like hunting, dancing. sowing and harvesting, Stylistically, they can be recognized by the fact that they .are painted on an austere mud base using one color, white, with occasional dots In red and yellow. This colour is obtained from grounding rice into white powder. The paragraph given above characterizes which one of the following folk and art
form of India?
(1) Tanjore art
(2) Madhubani painting
(3) Warli folk painting
(4) Pattachitra painting
Ans. (2)

Directions: Each of the next five items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes: -
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

46. Assertion (A): Import of Chinese toys was banned by the Government of India.
Reason (R): The plastic material used to make the toys are not biodegradable.
Ans. (1)

47. Assertion (A): .A person suffering from myopia uses a concave lens.
Reason (R): A concave lens diverges a beam of light incident on it.
Ans. (1)

48. Assertion (A): The “Green Belt” represents a planning concept for controlling the physical expansion of large cities.
Reason(R): “Green Belt’ is an integral component of a city.
Ans. (1)

49. Assertion (A): In areas of intensive subsistence agriculture, animal husbandry plays an insignificant role.
Reason (R): Throughout the region, the farmers are handicapped in raising cattle due to lack of scientific methods of breeding.
Ans. (3)

50. Assertion (A): Nitrogen gas is used to provide inert atmosphere in chemical reaction. Reason (R): Nitrogen gas has a very little chemical reactivity at ordinary temperature.
Ans. (1)

UPSC CPF Reasoning and Quantitative aptitude Exam Paper

1. The number of times the hands of a watch are at right angle between 4 pm to 10 pm is:

(1) 6

(2) 9

(3) 10

(4) 11

Ans. (4)

2. If Saturday falls four days after today which is 6th January, on which day did the first of December of the previous year fall?

(1) Tuesday

(2) Friday

(3) Sunday

(4) Monday

Ans. (4)

3. ‘R’ walks 1 km. to east and then he turns to south and walks 5 km. Again he turns to east and walks 2 km. After this he turns to north and walks 9 km. How far is he from his starting point?

(1) 3 km.

(2) 4 km.

(3) 5 km.

(4) 7 km.

Ans. (3)

4. If WOMEN is coded as 12345 and SERVANT is coded as 6789450, then VOTERS will be coded as:

(1) 920786

(2) 902876

(3) 978206

(4) 972086

Ans. (1)

5. Which will be the next term in the following?

KPA, LQB, MRC, NSD……

(1) OET

(2) OTE

(3) TOE

(4) EOT

Ans. (2)

6. The missing number in the following table is:

1	7	9
2	14	?
3	105	117

(1) 12

(2) 16

(3) 26

(4) 20

Ans. (4)

7. The following blocks are of the same material. Which is the heaviest one?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) All equal

Ans. (3)

8. From the following Venn diagram identify the number of persons who are either good speakers or post graduates or doctors.

GS ­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­– Good Speakers

P- Post Graduates

D- Doctors

(1) 6

(2) 7

(3) 15

(4) 122

Ans. (1)

9. A person moves along a circular path by a distance equal to half the circumference in a given time. The ratio of his average speed to his average velocity is:

(1) 0.5

(2) 0.5?

(3) 0.75?

(4) 1.0

Ans. (2)

10.

A square is drawn inside the circle as shown in the figure above. If the area of the shaded portion to 32/7 units then the radius of the circle is:

(1) 2 units

(2) 2 units

(3) 3 units

(4) 4 units

Ans. (2)

11. The following figure shows the displacement time (x – t) graph of a body in motion. The ratio of the speed in first second and that in next two seconds is:

(1) 1:2

(2) 1:3

(3) 3:1

(4) 2:1

Ans. (4)

12. The below Venn diagram shows a city population which read three popular daily newspapers Hindustan Times (HT), The Times of India (TI) and Navbharat Times (NT):

If a person is randomly selected from the city population and it is found that he reads at least one of the three newspapers then the person belongs to which part of the. population?

(1) g

(2) a + b + c

(3) P-h

(4) P-g

Ans. (3)

13. Kamala got married 5 years ago.

Today her age is 1 1/4 times her age at the time of marriage. Her sons age is1/10 times her present age. What is her son’s age?

(1) 2 years

(2) 3 years

(3) 4 years

(4) 5 years

Ans. (2)
14. Consider the following:

1. Every square is a rectangle.

2. Every rectangle is a parallelogram.

3. Every parallelogram is not necessarily a square.

Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn on the basis of the above statements?

(1) All parallelograms are either squares or rectangles

(2) A non-parallelogram figures cannot be either a square or a rectangle

(3) All rectangles are either squares or parallelograms

(4) Squares and rectangles are the only parallelograms.

Ans. (2)

15. Distribution of work hours in a factory is shown in the below given table:

Number of Workers Number of hours worked

20 45-50

15 40-44

25 35-39

16 30-34

04 0-29

What is the percentage of workers worked for 40 or more hours?

(1) 40

(2) 25

(3) 33.33

(4) 43.75

Ans. (4)

16.

From the above graph, who out of the four persons A, B, C and D, saves the least percentage of his monthly income?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

Ans. (3)

17.

In the above diagram square represents boys, circle represents the tall persons, triangle represents tennis players, and rectangle represents the swimmers. Which one of the following numbers .represents tall boys who are swimmers, but don’t play tennis?

(1) 4

(2) 3

(3) 6

(4) 5

Ans. (3)

18.

The carpet area of a room with dimensions shown in the above diagram is:

(1) 10 m²

(2) 12 m²

(3) 13 m²

(4) 14 m²

Ans. (3)

19.

In the figure given above BAC = 90°, EA =2 and AC =6. What is the value of BE?

(1) 2

(2) 4

(3) 6

(4) 10

Ans. (3)

20. 8 oranges cost as much as 5 apples, 5 apples as much as 3 mangoes, 4 mangoes as much as 8 pineapples. If 3 pineapples cost Rs. 36, then an orange’s cost is:

(1) Rs. 9

(2) Rs. 12

(3) Rs. 6

(4) Rs. 15

Ans. (1)

21. If a + b is defined as a ^b + b ^a, then consider:

I. 2 + x = 100

II. 4 + x = 45

III. 3 + x = 145

IV. 6 + x = 100

For which of the above is x smallest?

(1) 1

(2) Il

(3) 111

(4) IV

Ans. (4)

22. In a test a candidate attempted only 15 questions and secured full marks in all of them. If he obtained 60% marks in the test and all the questions in the test carried equal marks, the number of questions in the test is:

(1) 20

(2) 25

(3) 27

(4) 30

Ans. (2)

23. The grandfather’s age is 4 years more than nine times the age of the grandson. The father’s age of 40 years is 2 years less than six times the age of his son. The age of the grandfather is:

(1) 77 years

(2) 70 years

(3) 67 years

(4) 63 years

Ans. (3)

24. If 4 = 10^2m and 9 = 10²ⁿ, then 0.15 equals to:

(1) 10 ^2m—2n

(2) 10 ^{m + n -1}

(3) 10 ^{n-m + 1}

(4) 10 ^n-m-1

Ans. (4)

25. Among the following four diagrams, which one illustrates the relationships among citizens, voters, and males?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Ans. (3)

26. The mean age of combined group of men and women is 25 years. If the mean age of group of men is 26 and that of group of women is 21, then percentage of men and women in the group respectively is :

(1) 60, 40

(2) 80, 20

(3) 30, 70

(4) 50, 50

Ans. (2)

27. Which two figures out of the following four have the same area (with same units)?

(1) l and 3

(2) l and 2

(3) 2 and 4

(4) 1 and 4

Ans. (4)

28. Three circles are concentric as in the diagram given below. If a fourth innermost circle is drawn, what will be the number to be inscribed there?

(1) 8

(2) 7

(3) 3

(4) 1

Ans. (2)

29. The width of a rectangle is 4x which is only 25% of its length. What are the area and the perimeter of the rectangle respectively?

(1) 16 ^x2 sq unit and 16x unit

(2) 20 ^x2 sq unit and 40x unit

(3) 32 ^x2 sq unit and 64x unit

(4) 64 ^x2 sq unit and 40x unit

Ans. (4)

30. The following diagram shows a triangle with each of its sides produced both ways:

What is the sum of degree measures of the angles numbered?

(1) 720

(2) 540

(3) 1080

(4) 900

Ans. (1)

31. ‘A’ completes a work in 10 days, while ‘B’ and ‘C’ complete it in 12 and 15 days respectively. In how many days can A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ together complete the work?

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 6

Ans. (2)

APPSC GROUP-1 PRELIMINARY 2010 MARKS LIST OF ALL ATTENDED CANDIDATES

APPSC GROUP-1 PRELIMINARY 2010 MARKS LIST OF ALL ATTENDED CANDIDATES CLICK HERE