APPSC PORTAL: Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam Papers 2008

Friday, October 22, 2010

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam Papers 2008

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam Papers 2008

Law

(Held on 9-3-2008)

1. "Jurisprudence is the Philosophy of positive law." It is said by—

(A) Austin

(B) Paton

(D) Dias

Ans : (A)

2. "Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of the essential principles of law." Who said it ?

(A) Allen

(B) Bentham

(D) Dias

Ans : (A)

3. The subject of Hart-Fuller debate in ‘Harvard Law Review’ is—

(A) Law and Society

(B) Law and Morality

(D) Law and Justice

Ans : (B)

4. ‘An eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth’ was the purpose of punishment according to the—

(A) Deterrent theory

(B) Preventive theory

(D) Reformative theory

Ans : (C)

5. An interest protected against the world at large is called—

(A) Right in strict sense

(B) Right in repropria

(D) Right in personam

Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following jurist distinguished between Lex Aeterma, Lex Naturalis, Lex Divina and Lex Humana ?

(A) Cicero

(B) Justinian

(D) Plato

Ans : (C)

7. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—

List-I

(a) Jurisprudence is Lawyers extra version.

(b) Source of Law is Volkgeist.

(d) Legal system is a pyramidal structure of norms.

List-II

1. Hart

2. Kelsen

3. Julius stone

4. Savigny

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 4 3 1 2

(D) 3 1 4 2

Ans : (C)

8. "Ownership is a plenary control over an object." This definition is given by—

(A) Paton

(B) Pollock

(D) Kelson

Ans : (C)

9. Which of the following Jurists has explained legal rights and duties in terms of Jural correlations and jural opposites ?

(A) Hohfeld

(B) Mansfield

(D) Holmes

Ans : (A)

10. According to Sir Henry Maine, the movement of progressive societies has been a movement from—

(A) Status to social contract

(B) Natural law to positive law

(D) Status to contract

Ans : (D)

11. "The purpose of law is to bring pleasure and avoid pain." Who said it ?

(A) Bentham

(B) Salmond

(D) Hobbes

Ans : (A)

12. The exponent of theory of ‘Social Engineering’ is—

(A) Roscoe Pound

(B) Comte

(D) Ihering

Ans : (A)

13. Who is the author of the book ‘Concept of Law’ ?

(A) H.L.A. Hart

(B) Austin

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

14. Who among the following said that legislation is ‘formal utterance (statement) of legislative organs of the society’ ?

(A) Dias

(B) Allen

(D) Black stone

Ans : (C)

15. THe celebrated essay ‘Determining Ratio Decendi of case’ was written by—

(A) Goodhart

(B) Winfield

(D) Julius stone

Ans : (A)

16. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—

List-I

(a) Historical School

(b) Vienna School

(d) Sociological School

List-II

1. Duguit 2. Stammler

3. Kelsen 4. Puchta

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 4 1 3

(B) 4 3 2 1

(D) 2 3 4 1

Ans : (B)

17. "The only right which any man can possess is the right always to do his duty", said by—

(A) Roscoe Pound

(B) Ihering

(D) Duguit

Ans : (D)

18. "Law grows with a nation, increases with it and dies at its dissolution and is a characteristic of it." This is the view of—

(A) Natural Law School

(B) Historical School

(D) Sociological School

Ans : (B)

19. The main purpose of the ‘Corporate Sole’ is to—

(A) Make the property easily inheritable

(B) Make the property easily transferable

(D) Protect the property of State

Ans : (C)

20. Dealing with sources of law who from amongst the following says that "The courts put life into the dead words of statutes" ?

(A) Holland

(B) Gray

(D) Austin

Ans : (B)

21. Analytical, Historical and Ethical Jurisprudence are three different parts of the Jurisprudence, according to—

(A) Salmond

(B) Ihering

(D) Immanuel Kant

Ans : (A)

22. Even though Emergency is proclaimed, the enforcement of following rights through courts cannot be suspended—

(A) Art. 14, 19 and 21

(B) Art. 20, 21 and 22

(D) Art. 20 and 21

Ans : (D)

23. Powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament and its members are provided under—

(A) Article–105

(B) Article–106

(D) Article–194

Ans : (A)

24. In which of the following cases Supreme Court has condemned cruelty or torture during Police custody as being violative of Art 21 ?

(A) Francis Coralie Vs. Union of Territory of Delhi

(B) Menaka Gandhi Vs. Union of India

(D) Olga Tellis Vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation

Ans : (A)

25. Which Article of the Constitution provides that an advice tendered by Ministers to the President Shall not be inquired into in any court ?

(A) Article–74(1)

(B) Article–74(2)

(D) None of the above

Ans : (B)

26. In order to prevent defection of Members of Parliament, Clause (2) in Article 102 and Schedule X were added—

(A) By Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976

(B) By Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

27. Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India can be enlarged—

(A) By Chief Justice of India

(B) By President of India

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

28. "The State shall endeavour to promote international peace and security." is provided in—

(A) Article-48A

(B) Article-49

(D) Article-51

Ans : (D)

29. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation is applied where—

(A) Legislature acts within its Jurisdiction

(B) Legislature acts beyond its Jurisdiction

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

30. The case of S. R. Bommai Vs. Union of India (1994) is related to—

(A) Parliamentary Privileges

(B) Freedom of Press

(D) Right to Equality

Ans : (C)

31. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—

List-I

(a) The Constitution (52th Amendment)

(b) The Constitution (86th Amendment)

(d) The Constitution (93rd Amendment)

List-II

1. Reservation in election

2. Ninth Schedule

3. Tenth Schedule

4. Right to Education

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 4 1 2

(B) 3 4 2 1

(D) 2 4 1 3

Ans : (B)

32. "The Indian Constitution provides a Unitary State with subsidiary federal features, rather than Federal State with subsidiary Unitary features." This statement is of—

(A) Sir Ivor Jennings

(B) K. C. Wheare

(D) S.A. de Smith

Ans : (B)

33. The case of A. R. Antulay Vs. R. S. Nayak (1988) is related to—

(A) Article-12

(B) Preamble of the Constitution

(D) Article-368

Ans : (A)

34. Which Provision of the Constitution imposes a duty on the centre to ensure that the Government of the State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution ?

(A) Article-352

(B) Article-355

(D) Article-360

Ans : (B)

35. Doctrine of Pleasure applies to—

(A) Article-15(4)

(B) Article-16(4)

(D) Article-310

Ans : (D)

36. Preamble of the Constitution declares India to be a—

(A) Secular Socialist Sovereign Democratic Republic

(B) Socialist Secular Sovereign Democratic Republic

(D) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Ans : (D)

37. The appointment of Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is provided under—

(A) Article-48

(B) Article-147

(D) Article-148

Ans : (D)

38. To whom the Speaker of Lok Sabha should address his letter of resignation ?

(A) President

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

Ans : (C)

39. Which one of the following writs can be issued only against judicial and quasi judicial authorities ?

(A) Mandamus

(B) Habeas Corpus

(D) Quo Warranto

Ans : (C)

40. Who elects the Vice President of India ?

(A) Members of Rajya Sabha only

(B) Members of Lok Sabha only

(D) Members of all State Legislatures

Ans : (C)

41. Appellate Jurisdiction of Supreme Court in regard to criminal matters is stated in Article.

(A) 131

(B) 132

(D) 134

Ans : (D)

42. The President of India has power to grant pardon under which Article ?

(A) 172

(B) 74

(D) 92

Ans : (C)

43. According to which decision of the Supreme Court, the state cannot impose its reservation policy upon any unaided private professional educational institution ?

(A) M. Nagaraj Vs. Union of India

(B) P. A. Inamdar Vs. State of Maharashtra

(D) Indira Sawhney Vs. Union of India

Ans : (B)

44. Establishment of Public Service Commission for the Union and for the States is provided under—

(A) Article–316

(B) Article–319

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

45. Who among the following is Sovereign in India ?

(A) President of India

(B) Prime Minister of India

(D) We the people of India

Ans : (D)

46. How many States signed the charter of United Nations at San Francisco in 1945 ?

(A) 41

(B) 15

(D) 52

Ans : (C)

47. The first Woman judge of International Court of Justice is—

(A) Rosalyn Higgins

(B) Rosa E. Otumbiyeva

(D) Sadako Ogata

Ans : (A)

48. Who formulated the theory of ‘Pacta Sunt Sirvanda’ to explain the basis of international law ?

(A) By Kelsen

(B) By Oppenheim

(D) By Anzilotti

Ans : (D)

49. Under which Article of the U.N. Charter, the Security Council may use armed force against a State ?

(A) 42

(B) 45

(D) 51

Ans : (A)

50. Who said "A State is and becomes an international person through recognition only exclusively" ?

(A) Holland

(B) Hall

(D) Starke

Ans : (C)

51. On which date United Nations Day is celebrated ?

(A) June 26

(B) December 10

(D) October 24

Ans : (D)

52. A Judge of the International Court of Justice can be removed by—

(A) A resolution of the Security Council

(B) A resolution of the General Assembly

(D) The unanimous opinion of remaining judges

Ans : (D)

53. Who said that usage represents the initial stage of custom; custom begins when usage ends ?

(A) Starke

(B) Brierly

(D) Grotius

Ans : (A)

54. The Second World Conference on Human Rights, 1993 was held in—

(A) Vienna

(B) Paris

(D) New Delhi

Ans : (A)

55. The Selection blockade of Cuba by the United states of America was done in—

(A) October, 1962

(B) December, 1960

(D) October, 1963

Ans : (D)

56. The Estrada doctrine is concerned with—

(A) Intervention

(B) State Succession

(D) Recognition

Ans : (D)

57. Though there is no specific provision reagrading withdrawal from membership of the U.N. Charter, yet one of the following withdrew from it—

(A) India

(B) Iran

(D) None of the above

Ans : (D)

58. Assertion (A) : The United Nations is based on the sovereign equality of States.

Reason (R) : Permanent members of the Security Council have veto power.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (B)

59. Which from amongst the following is primary source of International Law ?

(A) Judicial Decisions

(B) Writings of International Jurists

(D) International Customs

Ans : (D)

60. Which one of the following organs of the U.N. has the power to suspend or expel a member of United Nations ?

(A) Economic and Social Council

(B) Security Council

(D) General Assembly on the recommendation of Security Council

Ans : (D)

61. How many principles of the U.N. are laid down for organic observance by the United Nations ?

(A) Three

(B) Four

(D) Seven

Ans : (D)

62. The International Court of Justice may decide a case ex aequo et bono if—

(A) The court deems it necessary

(B) The President of the court desires so

(D) The parties concerned agree for it

Ans : (D)

63. The view that international law is not law but international positive morality was held by—

(A) Oppenheim

(B) Starke

(D) Austin

Ans : (D)

64. Which judge is considered pioneer in the growth of the ‘principle of absolute liability in tort’ ?

(A) Blackburn J.

(B) Lord Denning M.R.

(D) Justice P.N. Bhagwati

Ans : (D)

65. There is no distinction between ‘Sovereign functions’ and ‘Non- Sovereign functions’ of State in regard to liability of State in tort is said in the case of—

(A) Kasturi Lal Vs. State of U.P.

(B) Nagraj Rao & Co. Vs. State of A.P.

(D) All of the above

Ans : (B)

66. Who among the following has propounded the ‘Pigeon Hole Theory’ related to law of torts ?

(A) Winfield

(B) Underhill

(D) Flemming

Ans : (C)

67. In which of the following case relating to contributory negligence, the principle first applied by the Court came to be known as the ‘Last opportunity rule’ ?

(A) Butterfield Vs. Forrester

(B) Davies Vs. Mann

(D) British Colombia Electric Railway Vs. Loach

Ans : (B)

68. A master is liable for the tort committed by his servant the servant acts—

(A) For the benefit of his master

(B) During his duty hours

(D) To the detriment of the plaintiff

Ans : (C)

69. Tort is infringement of a—

(A) Right in personam

(B) Right in rem

(D) Neither right in personam nor right in rem

Ans : (B)

70. "If it was a lawful act, however ill the motive might be, the defendant had a right to do it." This observation was made by the court in one of the following cases—

(A) Mayor of Bradford Corporation Vs. Pickles

(B) Ashby Vs. White

(D) Hollywood Silver Fox Farm Ltd. Vs. Emmet

Ans : (A)

71. As a legislative sequal to the Oleum Gas leak case, the Indian Parliament enacted a law. Which of the following was that legislation ?

(A) National Environment Tribunal Act

(B) Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Act

(D) Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act

Ans : (C)

72. Torts ‘Actionable perse’ are those torts—

(A) In which the plaintiff will have to prove special damage

(B) In which liability arises without intention or negligence

(D) In which the plaintiff can sue even though he has suffered no actual loss

Ans : (D)

73. The exception of ‘Act of God’ was attached to—

(A) The Rule of strict liability

(B) The Rule of absolute liability

(D) Joint tort feasors

Ans : (A)

74. Which of the following requirements from an essential element of the defence of fair comment in the tort of defamation ?

1. The matter commented on must be of public interest.

2. It must be an assertion of fact.

3. It must be an expression of opinion.

4. The comment must be fair

Select the correct answer using the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 2 and 3

Ans : (B)

75. An appropriate remedy for tort is an action for—

(A) Injunction

(B) Prosecution

(D) All are correct

Ans : (C)

76. There is a children’s school by the side of a highway. While classes are going on, two children of the school stray on the highway. A truck is moving on the highway at narmal speed. While trying to avoid hitting the children, the truck collides with a bullock-cart. One person is injured, the bullocks die and the truck is also damaged. Which one of the following propositions correctly describes the liability ?

(A) The school administration would be liable because they were negligent

(B) The truck driver shall be liable because he did not take care

(D) The children would be liable as they have contributed to the accident

Ans : (A)

77. Strict liability under law of torts means—

(A) Liability that is very severe

(B) Liability for any dangerous activity

(D) Liability for mass torts

Ans : (C)

78. Youssonpoff Vs. M.G.M. Pictures Ltd., is a leading case on which of the following ?

(A) Defamation

(B) Negligence

(D) Strict liability

Ans : (A)

79. Assertion (A) : Tort liability and criminal liability are similar in some respects only.

Reason (R) : Because both are based on a duty primarily fixed by law and the duty is towards persons generally.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

80. Which one of the following limitations to the rule of ‘Volenti non fit injuria’ is not correct?

(A) The consent should be free

(B) Consent to illegal act is no consent

(D) More knowledge of the rist is not assumption to the risk

Ans : (D)

81. ‘A’ sings obscene songs near the gate of Girls Degree College, what offence he has committed ?

(A) Assault

(B) Outraging the modesty of a women

(D) Obscenity

Ans : (D)

82. The principal of criminal liability—

Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea—was developed by—

(A) Equity courts

(B) Comon law courts

(D) Curia Regis

Ans : (B)

83. Gorachand Gopee Vs. R is a leading case on—

(A) Insanity

(B) Common intention

(D) None of the above

Ans : (D)

84. For a sexual intercourse by the husband against the will of his wife, to be a rape the age of the wife should be—

(A) Below 17 years

(B) Below 15 years

(D) Below 18 years

Ans : (B)

85. Assertion (A) : To constitute the offence of abetment it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed.

Reason (R) : Because an abetment of an offence itself is an offence.

Codes :

(A) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Ans : (C)

86. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ agree to commit theft in ‘Z’s house but no theft is actually committed, they are guilty of—

(A) No offence

(B) Abetment by conspiracy

(D) Criminal conspiracy

Ans : (D)

87. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—

List-I

(a) Insanity as a defence

(b) Common intention

(d) Mistake as a defence

List-II

1. Emperor Vs. Barendra Kumar Ghosh

2. R. Vs. Mcnaughten

3. Bhavojivaji Vs. Mulji Dayal

4. R. Vs. Dudley and Stephen

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 1 4 3

(D) 4 3 1 2

Ans : (B)

88. ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to burn Z’s house. ‘B’ sets fire to the house and at the same time commits theft of property there. In this case—

(A) ‘A’ is guilty of theft by setting fire to the house

(B) ‘A’, though guilty of abetting the burning of the house, is not guilty of abetting the theft

(D) ‘A’ is neither guilty of abetting the burning of the house nor of theft

Ans : (B)

89. Some militants are hiding in a house occupied by an individual. Militants are engaged in an attack on the police party by firing from the house. The police persons, to defend themselves, fire towards the house and an innocent person in the house is hit by the bullet and dies as a result thereof. The police persons are guilty of—

(A) No offence as they can claim the right of private defence

(B) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

(D) Death by rash or negligent act

Ans : (A)

90. A amd B were going on a boat. Suddenly the boat began to sink. A pushed B in the river and saved himself. B was drowned—

(A) A is justified in pushing B as it was an act of necessity

(B) No necessity except private defence is justifiable in killing a man

(D) All of the above are incorrect

Ans : (D)

91. The general exception based on the maxim ‘de minimum non curat lex’ is—

(A) Triviality

(B) Accident

(D) Self-defence

Ans : (A)

92. The Supreme Court decision State Vs. Mayor Hans George AIR 1965 SC 722 is famous for—

(A) Strict interpretation of the socio-economic offence statutes

(B) Condition of implied exclusion of a mens rea.

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

93. In which of the following case, The Supreme Court held that "Persistent demand of dowry is cruelty against wife" ?

(A) Hafizunissan Vs. Mohamad Yasin Khan

(B) Mohammed Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano

(D) Nijhawan Vs. Nijhawan

Ans : (C)

94. "In every statute mens rea is to be implied unless contrary is shown." This view was expressed in—

(A) Harding Vs. Price

(B) R. Vs. Dudley

(D) R. Vs. Lipman

Ans : (C)

95. ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘C’. ‘B’ refuses to do so. In this case ‘A’ is liable to—

(A) Guilty of no offence

(B) Guilty of obetting ‘B’ to commit murder

(D) None of the above

Ans : (B)

96. What is the minimum of persons required to further the common object ?

(A) 2 or more than 2 persons

(B) 4 persons

(D) Number of persons is not certain

Ans : (C)

97. ‘A’ occasionally has sexual intercourse with the wife of ‘C’ without his consent. Under which Section of IPC ‘C’ can seek remedy ?

(A) 494

(B) 495

(D) 497

Ans : (D)

98. The father and mother-in-law of a woman subject her to cruelty for dowry. Which of the following Section of IPC provides punishment ?

(A) Sec. 323

(B) Sec. 350

(D) Sec. 498 A

Ans : (D)

99. Against which of the following offences right of private defence of body does not extend to the causing of death ?

(A) Rape

(B) Gratifying unnatural offence

(D) Kidnapping

Ans : (C)

100. The provision of India Penal Code have come into operation from the date ?

(A) November 30, 1861

(B) January 1, 1862

(D) December 31, 1862

Ans : (B)

101. Which of the following is not an essential element of fraud ?

(A) It must be committed with an intention to deceive another party

(B) The person making false statement knows that it is false

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

102. Which one of the following cases is related to frustration of contract ?

(A) Carlill Vs. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.

(B) Hadley Vs. Baxendale

(D) Raja Dhruvdeo Chand Vs. Harmohinder Singh & others

Ans : (D)

103. A promises to paint a picture for B. B afterwards forbids him to do so. A is no longer bound to perform to promise under which of the following Section ?

(A) Section–63

(B) Section–62

(D) Section–65

Ans : (A)

104. Assertion (A) : A party to the contract excuses himself from performing his part of contract, on the ground that he is left with no money or property to pay.

Reason (R) : An agreement to do an impossible act in itself is void and both parties are discharged from future performance.

Make the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Ans : (D)

105. A knows that his horse had a damaged hoof which he filled up in such a way as to defy detection and sold it to ‘B’. This defect was subsequently discovered by ‘B’. The act of ‘A’ will amount to—

(A) A false suggestion

(B) Active concealment of fact

(D) Mistake

Ans : (B)

106. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct by using the codes given below the list—

List–I

(a) Ramsgate Victoria Hotel Co.

Vs. Montefiore

(b) Tinn Vs. Hoffmann

(d) Fitch Vs. Snedaker

List-II

1. Acceptance complete when letter of acceptance posted.

2. Cross offers do not create contract.

3. Communication of offer cannot be waived.

4. Unreasonable delay in accepting offer causes it to lapse.

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 4 2 1 3

(D) 2 3 1 4

Ans : (B)

107. A promises B to pay C Rs. 10,000 A does not pay the amount to C. A can be forced to make payment by—

(A) ‘B’ only

(B) ‘C’ only

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

108. An agreement in restraint of trade is void, if it imposes—

(A) An absoulte restraint

(B) A partial restraint

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

109. ‘A’ promises to pay a sum of Rs. 50,000 to ‘B’, a judge to decide the case in his favour. It is—

(A) A valid contract

(B) A voidable contract

(D) An illegal agreement

Ans : (C)

110. Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(A) Illegal agreements affect-colateral transactions

(B) An agreement without consideration is void

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

111. "No one will be allowed to enrich himself at the cost of another."

This principle is known as—

(A) Nudum pactum

(B) Quasi-contract

(D) Quantum-Valebat

Ans : (B)

112. A, B and C enter into an agreement for the division among them of gains to be acquired by them by fraud—

(A) The agreement is void

(B) The agreement is valid

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

113. ‘A’ is indebted to ‘B’, but the debt is barred by Limitation Act. A signs a written promise to pay Rs. 10,000 to ‘B’ on account of the debt. This agreement is—

(A) Valid

(B) Void

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

114. Which of the following is not a person of unsound mind ?

(A) Insane

(B) Idiot

(D) None of the above

Ans : (D)

115. Goods kept in show-case of a shop indicating price is—

(A) Offer

(B) Acceptance for offer

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

116. Which of the following is required for an effective mistake of fact ?

(A) It must be a mistake of both the parties

(B) Fact must be essential to the agreement

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

117. A minor mortgaged his house in favour of a money lender to secure a loan of Rs. 20,000 taken for his education. Money lender secures payment but minor refuses to pay for. Point out the correct legal position—

(A) Minor is not liable to pay loan as the contract is void

(B) Money lender can recover the rent from the estate of the minor

(D) Minor will be bound by the mortgage, but not by the loan

Ans : (B)

118. "When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud or misrepresentation, the agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused" under which one of the following section ?

(A) Section 19

(B) Section 19 A

(D) None of the above section

Ans : (C)

119. "Public policy is a unruly horse, and when once you get astride it, you never know where it will carry you." This quotation is related to—

(A) Gherulal Vs. Mahadeodas

(B) Richardson Vs. Mellish

(D) Egerton Vs. Brownlaw

Ans : (B)

120. ‘A’ is trading with several types of oils. ‘A’ agrees to sell to ‘B’ "a hundred tons of oil" the agreement is void, because—

(A) It is uncertain

(B) There is no consideration

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

Friday, October 22, 2010

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam Papers 2008

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