A. Formation of the State of Nagaland.
B. States Reorganization Act.
C. Formation of the State of Haryana.
D. Formation of the State of Gujarat.
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
(a) D, B, C, A
(b) B, D, C, A
(c) D, B, A, C
(d) B, D, A, C
Ans. (d)
2. Consider the following pairs in respect of the General Elections 2004 to the 14th Lok Sabha:
A. Constituencies for : 80% (Approximately), of the total 543 seats
General Candidates:
B. Constituencies reserved for : 13.33% (Approximately), of the total 543 seats
Scheduled Castes Candidates
C. Constituencies reserved for : 6.66% (Approximately), of the total 543 seats
Scheduled Tribe Candidates
Which of the above pairs is/are not correctly matched?
(a) A only
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A, B and C
Ans. (d)
3. The judgment in the S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India case pertained broadly to which
Article of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 29
(b) Article 32
(c) Article 353
(d) Article 356
Ans. (d)
4. Consider the following statements:
A. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was constituted under the
Constitution (Eighty -ninth Amendment) Act.
B. The first National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was constituted on October 2,
2000.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (d)
5. What is the minimum population below which Panchayats at the intermediate level
are not constituted as per provision of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment)
Act?
(a) 20 lakh
(b) 25 lakh
(c) 30 lakh
(d) 35 lakh
Ans. (a)
6. Consider the following statements:
A. The Chairperson of a Panchayat at district level is elected in such manner as the
Legislature of the State may, by law, provide.
B. Legislature of a State may, by law, provide for representation of members of the
Legislative Assembly of the State representing constituencies which comprise wholly
or partly a Panchayat area at a level other than the village level, in such Panchayat.
C. The Lok Sabha may, by law, provide for the representation of its members
representing constituencies which comprise wholly or partly a Panchayat area at a
level other than the village level, in such Panchayat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A and B
(b) B only
(c) C only
(d) B and C
Ans. (b)
7. Match List-I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List- I List-II
(Subject in the (Similarity with which
Constitution of India) other Constitution)
A. Provisions relating to Emergencies 1. American Constitution
B. Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Constitution of the German Reich
C. Fundamental Rights 3. United Kingdom
D. Parliamentary System Government of 4. Constitution of Eire
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 42 1 3
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (c)
8. Who among the following was not a member of the ‘National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution’ constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000?
(a) Soli J. Sorabjee
(b).C. R. Irani
(d) P A. Sangma
(d) Sonmath Chatterjee
Ans. (d)
9. Which of the following were the main areas of concern for the ‘National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution’ constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000?
A. Electoral Reforms.
B. Union-State Relations.
C. Enlargement of Fundamental Rights.
D. Administrative System and Standards in Public Life.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A, B, C and D
Ans. (d)
The following items consist of two statements, One labeled the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labeled the Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide whether the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly:
Codes:
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Roth A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
10. Assertion (A): The Commission on Centre-State Relations has been constituted by the Government of India by amending the Constitution of India, and thus a constitutional status has been bestowed on it.
Reason (R): Issues like role of Governors, economic and social planning which are a part of the terms of reference of the Commission are very important issues in the governance of India.
Ans. (d)
11. Assertion (A) : Not contented with merely laying down the fundamental principles of governance, the authors of the Indian Constitution followed the Government of India Act, 1919 in providing matters of administrative details.
Reason (R): The authors of the Indian Constitution had the apprehension that in the prevailing conditions of the country at that time, the Constitution might be subverted unless the form of administration was also included.
Ans. (d)
12. Consider the following commissions:
A. Kaka Kalelkar Commission on Backward Classes.
B. Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations.
C. Shah Commission on emergency excesses.
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
(a) B, C, A
(b) A, B, C
(c) B, A, C
(d) A, C, B
Ans. (d)
13. Consider the following statements:
A. The first National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled was constituted in
the year 1992.
B. The First National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was
constituted under the Constitution (Sixty-fifth Amendment) Act.
C. H. Hanumanthappa was the Chairman of the first National Commission for Scheduled
castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A, B and C
Ans. (a)
14. Which of the following terms was not included in a ‘Union of Trinity’ by Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar in his concluding speech in the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Liberty
(b) Flexibility
(c) Equality
(d) Fraternity
Ans. (b)
15. In which one of the following countries, do units of the federation not have equal representation in the Upper House of the Central Legislature?
(a) India
(b) Switzerland
(c) Australia
(d) United States of America
Ans. (a)
16. In the United States of America, who among the following uses/use filibuster?
(a) The Congress to pressurize the President
(b) The President to prevent the introduction of a bill in the Congress
(c) Members of the Senate to obstruct the passage of a bill
(d) Employers to break up an employee’s strike
Ans. (c)
17. Who among the following is vested with power to recall or remove officials such as
the President and the Vice-President of people’s Republic of China?
(a) The Standing Committee of the National People’s Congress
(b) Chairman of the Central Military Commission
(c) The National People’s Congress
(d) The President of the Supreme People’s Court
Ans. (c)
18. The President of South Africa is elected by whom among the following?
(a) National Assembly
(b)National Assembly and National Council of Provinces
(c) President of Constitutional Court
(d) Citizens of the country in a direct election
Ans. (a)
19. Regional devolution in Britain falls short of federalism because of the supremacy of
which one of the following?
(a) British Constitution
(b) British Parliament
(c) British Supreme Court
(d) European Commission
Ans.(b)
20. According to the Conservatives, the British Parliamentary institutions cannot be
transplanted into India for which of the following reasons?
(a) These institutions are the cultural expressions of British society
(b) India is a homogeneous society conducive to a Presidential System of Government
(c) A bi-party system is absolutely necessary for the effective functioning of British
Parliamentary System
(d) The role of British Monarch is critical for the smooth functioning of its parliamentary
institutions
Ans. (a)
21. Who among the following has/have identified rule-making, rule application and rule
adjudication as three authoritative governmental functions?
(a) Almond and Coleman
(b) Robert Dahl
(c) Harold J. Laswell
(d) David Easton
Ans. (a)
22. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Structural functional approach : Bosanquet
(b) Behavioral approach : Charles Merriam
(c) Conflict approach : Seymour Lipset
(d) Marxist approach : Jacques Derrida
Ans. (b)
23. Partial responsible governments in the provinces had been established under which one of the following Acts?
(a) The Government of India Act, 1919
(b) The Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1892
Ans. (a)
24. According to the Cabinet Mission Plan, which one of the following was the method of electing the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Universal Adult Franchise
(b) Partly elected by the Provincial Assemblies and partly nominated by the Governor-General
(c) Nominated by the Princely States
(d) Partly elected by the Provincial Assemblies and partly nominated by the Princes
Ans.(d)
25. What were the salient features of the Government of India Act, 1935?
A. Provincial Autonomy.
B. Dyarchy at the Centre.
C. Abolition of Dyarchy in the States.
D. Retention of Excluded Areas.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) B and C
(b) A, B and D
(c) A, C and D
(d) A, B, C and D
Ans. (d)
26. Directive Principles of State Policy direct the State for which of the following?
A. To secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people.
B. Separation of judiciary from executive.
C. To improve public health.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A, B and C
Ans. (d)
27. Which of the following is not included in Article 19 of the Constitution of India, pertaining to the Right to freedom?
(a) Right to reside and settle any part of the territory of India
(b) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions
(c) Right to form associations of unions
(d) Right to assemble peaceably and without arms
Ans. (b)
28. Which one of the following writs is issued by the courts for release of a person unlawfully detained?
(a) Qua Warranto
(b) Prohibition
(c) Habeas Ct
(d) Certiorari
Ans. (c)
29. Which one of following is not correctly matched?
Subject Article of the Constitution of India
(a) Abolition of Untouchability Article 17
(b) Reservation of appointments Article 16(4)
or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens
(c) Prohibition of discrimination Article 18
on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
(d) Laws inconsistent with or in Article 13
derogation of the fundamental rights
Ans. (c)
30. What is the main object of protective discrimination?
(a) To give special advantage to a particular group
(b) To raise a disadvantaged group to a level where they can compete with other sections of society on equal footing
(c) To give financial assistance to the poor
(d) To promote class interest
Axis. (b)
31. Which Article of the Constitution of India directs the State to make effective provision for securing the Right to work?
(a) Article 16
(b) Article 38
(c) Article 41
(d) Article 43
Ans. (c)
32. Before giving any decision on questions as to disqualification of a member of either House of Parliament, the President of India shall obtain the opinion of which one of the following?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Election Commission
(c) Attorney-General of India
(d) Solicitor-General of India
Ans. (b)
33. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Proclamation of Emergency in a State under Article
356 can continue beyond one year if:
(a) The High Court of the State certifies that the situation in the State in very serious
(b) The Governor of the State certifies that the law and order situation is not under control
(c) The Election Commission certifies that it is difficult to hold elections to the Assembly
(d)The President is satisfied about the grave situation in the State through independent investigation
Ans. (c)
34. Consider the following statements:
A. No Proclamation of Emergency can be made by the President of India unless the Union Ministers of Cabinet rank, headed by the Prime Minister, recommended to him, in writing, that such, a Proclamation should be issued.
B. The President of India must issue a Proclamation of Revocation of Emergency ar time that the Lok Sabha passes a resolution .disapproving the proclamation or its continuance.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans.(c)
35. Which of the following statements dose not reflect the jurisdiction of the Committee on Estimates?
(a) It suggests alternative policies in order to bring efficiency and economy in administration
(b) It examines whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates
(c) It suggests the form in which estimates are to be presented to Parliament
(d) It helps in checking Governmental extravagance in making demands as its report is debated in the Houses
Arts. (d)
36. Consider the following statements:
A. The Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women was constituted for the first time after formation of the Fourteenth Lok Sabha.
B. Margaret Alva was appointed as the Chairperson of the Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women after the formation of the Fourteenth Lok Sabha.
C. The Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women consists of 20 members of the Lok Sabha and 10 members of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) C Only
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
37. Which one of the following is the correct sequence through which an Ordinary Bill passes through in the Parliament ?
(a) Authentication, Discussion of Principles, Clause-by-Clause consideration, Post-introduction motion, Assert
(b) Post-introduction motion, Discussion of Principles, Clause-by-Clause consideration, Authentication, Assent
(c) Discussion of Principles, Authentication, Post-introduction motion, Clause-by-Clause consideration, Assent
(d) Discussion of Principles, Post-introduction motion, Clause-by-Clause consideration, Authentication, Assent
Ans. (b)
38. Consider the following statements:
A. The Parliament is empowered to alter the boundaries of any existing State of India.
B. A Bill pertaining to the alteration of the boundaries of any existing State of India can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and only on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A and B
Ans. (a)
39. Consider the following statements:
A. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha shill lapse on a dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
B. A Bill pending in Parliament shall lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A or B
Ans. (d)
40. Assertion (A) : Recommendations of the Rajya Sabha, after a Money Bills is passed by the Lok Sabha and transmitted to the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha within 14 days from receipt of the recommendations and then get them incorporated in the Bill.
Reason (R) Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
Ans. (B)
No comments:
Post a Comment