Tuesday, October 19, 2010

APPSC GROUP-2 INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS

1. If an amendment of the Constitution of India seeks to make any change in certain items, the amendment requires to be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States before the Bill making provision for such amendment is presented to the President for assent.
Which of the following are those items?
A. Representation of States in Parliament.
B Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule.
C. Manner of election of the President of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A, B and C
Ans. (d)

2. Which one of the following is not correct about Finance Commission?
(a) The members of the Commission are appointed by the President
(b) It is to act as a balancing wheel of Indian fiscal federalism
(c) The qualifications of members of the Commission are determined by the President
(d) It is constituted under the provisions of Article 280 of the Constitution of India
Ans. (c)

3. In which one of the following Five-Year Plans, was a State-wise break-up of the broad development targets, including targets for growth rates and social development, which are consistent with the national targets, included for the first time?
(a) Seventh Five-Year Plan
(b) Eighth Five-Year Plan
(c) Ninth Five-Year Plan
(d) Tenth Five-Year Plan
Ans. (d)

4. For which, one of the following, has a provision not been explicitly stated in the Constitution of India?
(a) Inter-State Council.
(b) All India Services
(c) Contingency Fund of India
(d) National Development Council
Ans. (d)

5. Which of the following broad issues are included in the terms of reference for the 13th Finance Commission?
A. Sustainable development.
B. Tax-Gross Domestic Product ratio.
C. Goods and Service Tax.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A, B and C
Ans. (c)

6. What is the proposed bade of population figures by the 13th Finance Commission?
(a) 1971
(b) 1981
(c) 1991
(d) 2001
Ans. (d)

7. Consider the following pairs:
A. Taxes levied by the Union : Stamp duties
but collected and appropriated by the State
B. Taxes levied and collected : Taxes on railway fares and freight
by the Centre but assigned and freight to States
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A or B
Ans. (c)

8. Which of the following issues are included in the terms of reference of the Commission of Centre-State.
Relations set up by the Government of India?
A. Inter-linking of rivers.
B. Devolution of powers and autonomy to Panchayat Raj Institutions.
C. Freeing Inter-State trade. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A, B and C
Ans. (a)

9. Which one of the following is the correct association?
(a) Indira Sawhney Case : Basic structure of the Constitution
(b) Minerva Mills Case : Invocation of Article 356
(c) Maneka Gandhi Case : Just, fair and reasonable procedure of law
(d) Pondyal vs. Union of India Case : Financial Emergency
Ans. (c)

10. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Justice Ismail Commission was constituted to
(a) investigate Godhra violence
(b) study reservation for OBCs
(c) study the status of Navratna companies
(d) investigate police excesses in prisons
Ans. (d)

11. Which one of the following has been justified by the New Right?
(a) Free market society with welfare state
(b) Free -market society with minimal state
(c) Free market society with planning in detail
(d) Bureaucratic control and non-market economy
Ans. (a)

12. Chipko Movement, which drew strength from Sarvodaya Movement, in its different phases, was mainly which one of the following?
(a) Quintessential peasant movement and a celebrated environmental movement
(b) Successful commercial forestry in certain catchments
(c) Movement to prevent the loss of land
(d) Movement to retain underground water table
Ans. (a)

13. Match List -I with List- II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List -I List-II
(Electoral System) (Country)
A. Second Ballot System 1. Japan
B. Alternative Vote System (AVS) 2. Germany
C. Additional Member System (CAMS) 3. France
D. Limited Vote System 4. Australia
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (c)

14. Vishakha and others vs. State of Rajasthan Case pertained to which one of the following?
(a) Discrimination against women in the Police Service
(b) Reservation in promotion for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Government Service
(c) Reservation in promotion for the Other Backward Classes in Government Service
(d) Sexual harassment of women at work places
Ans. (d)

15. Alain Touraine is known for which one of the following?
(a) Literature on Social Movements
(b) Literature on international relations
(c) Multi-party systems in democracy
(d) Electoral reforms
Ans. (a)

16. Which one among the following is not a member of the G8 countries whose last Summit was held in Germany in June, 2007?
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) Japan
(d) China
Ans. (d)

17. Which of the following are the most important components of the Treaty on European Union?
A. European Parliament.
B. The European Community
C. Common Foreign and Security Policy (C.E.S.P)
D. Justice and Home Affairs (J.H.A.)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A and C
(b) B and D
(c) A, B and D
(d) B, C and D
Ans. (c)

18. Who among the following has rejected the notion of a ‘Third World’, claiming that there is only one world connected by a complex network of economic exchange relationships-a world economy?
(a) Immanuel Wallerstein
(b) Andre Gunder Frank
(c) Samir Amin
(d) Paul Baran
Ans. (a)

19. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Conference Issue
(a) Durban : South-South Dialogue
(b) Beijing : Gender Rights
(c) Uruguay Round : Disarmament
(d) Copenhagen : Global Warming
Ans. (b)

20. Which one of the following countries is not a one-party system today?
(a) Vietnam
(b) People’s Republic of China
(c) Poland
(d) North Korea
Ans. (c)

21. Weberiarr bureaucracy is a less efficacious instrument of social change for developing countries. This criticism of Weber’s theory of bureaucracy is attributed to whom among the following?
(a) Carl Friedrich
(b) Laurence J. Peter
(c) Paul Appleby
(d) Joseph La-Palombara
Ans. (d)

22. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List – II
(Committee) (Objective)
A. Bardoli Committee 1.To introduce reforms in the electoral system
B. Shourie Committee 2.To prepare a system of governance for the hill areas of
the North-East.
C. Goswami Committee 3. To study nexus between politicians and criminals
D. Chavan Committee 4. To examine feasibility of Bight to Information
5. To study measures to prevent defection of legislators
Code:
A B C D
(a) 5 4 1 2
(b) 2 1 3 5
(c) 5 1 3 2
(d) 2 4 1 5
Ans. (d)

23. Which one of the following recommended the abolition of the post of Governor of a State?
(a) The Rajamannar Committee
(b) The Sarkaria Commission
(c) The Governor’s Conference
(d) The First Administrative Reforms Commission
Ans. (a)

24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List –I List -II
(Provision) (Contained in)
A. Provisions Concerning 1. Chapter I of Part V of the Constitution of India
Administration of Tribal Areas
B. Language of the Union 2. Part XIII of the Constitution of India
C. Trade and Commerce within India 3. Part XVII of the Constitution of India
D. The Executive of the Union 4. Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (b)

25. The temporary and transitional provisions mentioned in Part XXI of the Constitution of India relate to which State(s)?
1. Jammu and Kashmir
2. Nagaland
3. Assam
4. Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A only
(b) C and D
(c) A, B and C
(d) A, B, C and D
Ans. (d)

26. In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005 which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Body Competent Authority
(a) Supreme Court: Chief Justice of India
(b) Union Public-Service Commission: Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
(c) Lok Sabha: Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) High Court of a State: Chief Justice of the High Court
Ans. (c)

27. Consider the following:
A. The budget allocated to each agency of a public authority
B. Particulars of recipients of concessions, permits or authorizations granted by a public authority. Information in respect of which of the above is obligatory for the public authority to publish under the
Right to Information Act, 2005?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (c)

28. Through which one of the following famous cases in American legal history did Justice John Marshall establish the doctrine of Judicial Review?
(a) Dred Scott vs. Sanford
(b) Roe vs. Wade
(c) Marbury vs. Madison
(d) Baker vs. Can
Ans. (c)

29. Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act that provided for the establishment of Panchayats also made which of the following provisions?
A. Addition of a new Schedule (XI) to the Constitution listing 29 subjects which are to be handled by the Panchayats.
B. Addition of a new Schedule (XI) to the Constitution listing 18 subjects which are to be handled by the Panchayats.
C. Bar on the courts to question the validity of laws relating to delimitation of constituencies.
D. Number of seats in Panchayats, not to be less than one-third (excluding the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) be reserved for -women.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A, B and D
(b) A and C
(c) B and D
(d) A only
Ans. (b)

30. Consider the following statements:
A. Like the Judge of a High Court, the Advocate-General of a State is appointed by the President of India and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
B. In the M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India Case (Kanpur Tanneries matter) the Supreme Court prioritized development over environmental issues.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (d)

31. Who among the following can attend the meetings of both Houses of Parliament while being not a member of either of the Houses?
(a) Solicitor-General of India (b) Vice-President of India
(c) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (d) Attorney-General of India
Ans. (d)

32. Who Among the following appoints the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee?
(a) Union Minister of Finance
(b) Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha Arts.
Ans. (d)

33. Who among the following scrutinizes the Report of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Department of Expenditure, Union Ministry of Finance
(c) Controller General of Accounts
(d) Cabinet Secretariat
Ans. (a)

34. Match List -I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List List -II
(Subject) (Article of the Constitution of India)
A. Annual Financial Statement or budget 1.Article 110
B. Supplementary, additional or excess grants 2.Article 112
C. Appropriation Bill 3.Article 114
D. Definition of ‘Money Bill ‘ 4.Article 115
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 1 3 4 2
Ans. (c)

35. If a member of either House of Parliament, is without the permission of the House absent from all meetings thereof for more than a certain period, the House may declare his seat vacant. What is the duration of this period?
(a) 60 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 15 days
Ans. (a)

36. Consider the following statements in respect of the Supreme Court of India:
A. It has the power to deliver advisory opinion on any question of fact or law referred to it by the President.
B. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are subject to vote by Parliament.
C. Its jurisdiction is binding on all other courts within India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A ,B and C
Ans. (c)

37. In which one of the following cases has the Supreme Court observed that where public interest is undermined by an arbitrary and perverse executive action, the High Court can issue a writ?
(a) Chaitanya vs. State of Karnataka
(b) High Court of Judicature at Bombay vs. S. K. Ranga Rao Patil
(c) State of West Bengal vs. Sampat
(d) Raunaq International Ltd. vs. I R. Construction Ltd.
Ans. (a)

38. Consider the following statements:
A. The Supreme Court of India can sit only in Delhi.
B. The Supreme Court of India can sit in places.other than Delhi which the Chief Justice of India may appoint with the approval of the President.
C. The Parliament may, by law, make provisions for conferring supplemental powers upon the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A and C
(b) B and C
(c) B only
(d) C only
Ans.( b)

39. Consider the following statements:
Under Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor may:
A. withholds his assent to a Bill passed by the State legislature.
B. reserve the Bill passed by the State legislature for the consideration, of the President.
C. returns a Bill, other than a money Bill, for reconsideration of the legislature.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A, B and C
Ans. (d)

40. Consider the following statements:
A. An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a Bill only in the Lok Sabha.
B. The Bill for amendment of the Constitution of India has to be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans.(b)

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