Sunday, October 31, 2010
Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam., 2008
Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam., 2008
(Held on 11-1-2009)
Political Science
1. Which one is not the principle of Parliamentary government in a democracy ?
(A) Collective responsibility of Executive
(B) Fixed Tenure
(C) Prime Minister as Primes inter pares
(D) Judicial guarantee of Fundamental Rights
Ans : (B)
2. The Executive in Presidential form of government is powerful because—
(A) the Legislature is weak
(B) judges are appointed by the President
(C) it enjoys the fixity of tenure
(D) the procedure of impeachment is cumbersome
Ans : (C)
3. Presidential form of government is based on the principle of—
(A) accountability of Executive to Judiciary
(B) independence of the Executive
(C) separation of powers
(D) sovereignty of the Legislature
Ans : (B)
4. “Politics is struggle for power”, was said by—
(A) Morgenthau
(B) Quincy Wright
(C) Sprout
(D) Thomson
Ans : (A)
5. “Politics is concerned with the authoritative allocation of values for a society.” This definition of politics has been given by—
(A) David Easton
(B) Harold Lasswell
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) Charles Merriam
Ans : (A)
6. According to Structural-Functional approach which of the following does not constitute ‘input functions’ of a political system ?
(A) Political socialisation
(B) Political development
(C) Interest aggregation
(D) Political communication
Ans : (B)
7. Who of the following is regarded as an exponent of empty liberty ?
(A) Bentham
(B) J.S. Mill
(C) Hegel
(D) Green
Ans : (B)
8. Which one of the following books is not written by Machiavelli ?
(A) The Prince
(B) The Discourses
(C) The Art of War
(D) Behemoth
Ans : (D)
9. The view that “the State is a necessary evil”, is associated with—
(A) Individualists
(B) Anarchists
(C) Marxists
(D) Sophists
Ans : (A)
10. The philosophy that stands diametrically opposite to liberalism is—
(A) Individualism
(B) Capitalism
(C) Marxism
(D) Fascism
Ans : (C)
11. Who of the following first propounded the organic theory of State ?
(A) Machiavelli
(B) Plato
(C) Marx
(D) Herbert Spencer
Ans : (B)
12. Social Contract theory is based on—
(A) Nationalism
(B) Constitutionalism
(C) Individualism
(D) Socialism
Ans : (C)
13. Who of the following first used the term ‘Socialism’ ?
(A) Kropotkin
(B) Robert Owen
(C) Marx
(D) Bentham
Ans : (B)
14. Which one of the following is not an agency of public opinion ?
(A) Press
(B) Judiciary
(C) Political Party
(D) T.V. and Radio
Ans : (B)
15. The first systematic classification of government was given by—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Machiavelli
(D) Montesquieu
Ans : (B)
16. Which one of the following functions is performed by political parties ?
(A) To render help to poor people
(B) To run hospitals
(C) To manage newspapers
(D) To assist candidates in contesting elections
Ans : (D)
17. ‘The concept of liberty’ includes—
(A) absence of unjust restraints
(B) maximum justice
(C) national liberation
(D) absence of restraints
Ans : (A)
18. The best explanation of ‘Equality’ is—
(A) identity of treatment
(B) parity of remuneration
(C) fulfilment of minimum needs
(D) abiding by rules
Ans : (C)
19. Marxian socialism is called ‘scientific socialism’, because Marx—
(A) considered personal experiences as his laboratory
(B) opposed religion and metaphysical issues
(C) rejected idealistic, vague and utopian assumptions
(D) accepted dictatorship of the proletariat
Ans : (C)
20. The Retributive Theory of Justice is based on—
(A) the principle of deterrent punishment
(B) the principle of revenge
(C) the principle that punishment should aim at reforming the criminals
(D) the principle of ‘hate the sin and not the sinner’
Ans : (B)
21. Classless society according to Marx denotes—
(A) a tribal society
(B) a casteless society
(C) a society where there is only one class–the working class
(D) a society in which all classes are in equal proportion
Ans : (C)
22. Rousseau’s ‘General Will’ means—
(A) Will of the sovereign
(B) Will of the general public
(C) Will of majority
(D) Collective good of the people
Ans : (D)
23. The Deterrent Theory of Justice is based upon the principle of—
(A) Tit for tat
(B) Severe and exemplary punishment to prevent the reoccurrence of crime
(C) That criminals should be reformed
(D) That criminals should be treated leniently
Ans : (B)
24. Theory of Political Development means—
(A) Development of the whole state
(B) Development of the consciousness amongst the people
(C) Development of the whole society through the instrumentality of the State
(D) Development of political elite
Ans : (C)
25. Divine Origin theory of the State holds that—
(A) State was created by a saint named Divine
(B) State was created by Pope
(C) State was created by God
(D) State was created by majority vote
Ans : (C)
26. Oligarchy is a system where—
(A) representatives of the common people dominate
(B) aristocratic class dominates
(C) working class dominates
(D) peasantry dominates
Ans : (B)
27. A Totalitarian State is one in which—
(A) total power of the state is vested in one person
(B) state has total power over its subjects
(C) state caters to the total needs of its subjects
(D) state has complete control over its resources
Ans : (B)
28. The characteristic which is of the ‘List System’ but not of ‘Single Transferable Vote System’ is—
(A) it is proportional representation
(B) the constituency must be multiple-member
(C) quota is calculated
(D) votes are cast to the party and not the candidate
Ans : (D)
29. The scholar who first propounded the single transferable vote system is—
(A) Thomas Paine
(B) J.S. Mill
(C) Thomas Hare
(D) Rousseau
Ans : (C)
30. The ideology of Democratic Socialism lays emphasis on—
(A) basis of society is not competition, but cooperation
(B) state is a necessary evil
(C) violent revolution
(D) class-struggle theory
Ans : (A)
31. Which of the following statements is not applicable to Hobbes ?
(A) Men entered into a single contract
(B) Sovereign enjoyed absolute powers
(C) Men can appoint their ruler
(D) The contract was one-sided
Ans : (C)
32. Which of the following contains the elements of the historical theory of the origin of the State ?
(A) Kinship, religion, war, political consciousness
(B) War, customs, kingship, dictates of natural law
(C) Kingship, force, mutual agreements, political leadership
(D) Blood-relations, contractual agreements, religion, anarchy
Ans : (A)
33. The basic principle of liberalism is—
(A) social justice
(B) equality
(C) individual freedom
(D) nationalism
Ans : (C)
34. Modern Individualism demands freedom for—
(A) Group
(B) Individual
(C) People
(D) Working class
Ans : (A)
35. The concept of constitutional government was first elaborated by—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Bodin
(D) Machiavelli
Ans : (B)
36. Who propagated “the greatest happiness to the greatest number” ?
(A) Marxists
(B) Utilitarians
(C) Liberals
(D) Pluralists
Ans : (B)
37. Input-output model is chiefly attributed to—
(A) Peter Merkl
(B) Robert Dahl
(C) David Easton
(D) David Apter
Ans : (C)
38. What are the essential elements of the State ?
(A) Population, territory, constitution, power
(B) Population, territory, government, sovereignty
(C) Population, territory, political party, sovereignty
(D) Population, power, authority, sovereignty
Ans : (B)
39. Which of the following theories of origin of State is more appropriate and reliable as it is based on scientific base ?
(A) Divine theory of origin of state
(B) Force theory
(C) Evolutionary theory
(D) Social contract theory
Ans : (C)
40. The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ was given by—
(A) A.V. Dicey
(B) Laski
(C) Austin
(D) MacIver
Ans : (A)
41. Mrs. Annie Besant was associated with—
(A) Servants of India Society
(B) Home Rule Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) Quit India Movement
Ans : (B)
42. Who presides over the joint session of the two Houses of the Parliament ?
(A) President of India
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Leader of Ruling Party
Ans : (B)
43. In the Indian Constitution the word secularism means—
(A) State has a religion of its own
(B) State has nothing to do with religion
(C) State has irreligious
(D) State tolerates religions without professing any particular religion
Ans : (D)
44. Who was the Chairman of the ‘Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly’ ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) J. L. Nehru
(D) B. N. Rao
Ans : (B)
45. Through which Amendment was the word ‘Socialism’ added to the Constitution ?
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 43rd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 45th Amendment
Ans : (A)
46. Indian Institute of Public Administration is situated at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Chennai
(C) Kolkata
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (A)
47. In India the power of judicial review is enjoyed by the—
(A) High Court only
(B) Supreme Court only
(C) Supreme Court and High Court only
(D) Parliament
Ans : (C)
48. In which part of the Indian Constitution proclaims India to be a welfare state ?
(A) Part III
(B) Part IV
(C) Part IX
(D) Part VI
Ans : (B)
49. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are contained in—
(A) Part I of the Constitution
(B) Part III of the Constitution
(C) Part IV of the Constitution
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
50. Which one of the following commissions was constituted to examine the Centre-State relations ?
(A) Sarkaria Commission
(B) Shah Commission
(C) Bachhavat Commission
(D) Jain Commission
Ans : (A)
51. In India the work of Budget forming is performed by—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Public Service Commission
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Finance Commission
Ans : (C)
52. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right to Life
(B) Right to Liberty
(C) Right to Property
(D) Right to Freedom of Expression
Ans : (C)
53. Indian system is—
(A) Federal
(B) Quasi-federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Federal with unitary bias
Ans : (D)
54. Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission of 1945 ?
(A) Sir Stafford Cripps
(B) A.V. Alexander
(C) Lord Pathik Lawrence
(D) C. Atlee
Ans : (D)
55. The partition of India was first hinted—
(A) at the II Round Table Conference
(B) in the Cripps Proposals
(C) in the Cabinet Mission Plan
(D) in the Mountbatten formula
Ans : (D)
56. The demand of the Swarajist Party was—
(A) Poorna Swaraj
(B) Parliamentary Institutions
(C) Dominion Status
(D) Communal Electorates
Ans : (C)
57. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Vice-President
(D) Union Planning Minister
Ans : (B)
58. Mohd. Ali Jinnah propounded the ‘Two-Nation’ theory in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1928
(C) 1940
(D) 1946
Ans : (C)
59. Who among the following was not a moderate ?
(A) B.G. Tilak
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Feroz Shah Mehta
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Ans : (A)
60. ‘Dyarchy’ was introduced in India under—
(A) Morley-Minto Reforms
(B) Montford Reforms
(C) Simon Commission Plan
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans : (B)
61. The Simon Commission was sent to India to—
(A) study the communal problem
(B) negotiate with Gandhiji about representation of backward classes
(C) review the progress of Montford reforms
(D) report on Home Rule to the British Parliament
Ans : (C)
62. The leaders of the Khilafat movement were—
(A) Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das
(B) Gandhi and Annie Beasant
(C) Maulana Azad and Sarojini Naidu
(D) Ali Brothers
Ans : (D)
63. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched ?
(A) Fascism—Mussolini
(B) Anarchism—Bakunin
(C) Socialism—Thomas Moore
(D) Pluralism—Kropotkin
Ans : (D)
64. The importance of Bureaucracy has greatly increased in present times on account of—
(A) the emergence of democratic state
(B) the emergence of welfare state
(C) the emergence of police state
(D) the emergence of liberal economic system
Ans : (B)
65. Freedom of Press in India is—
(A) specifically provided in the Constitution
(B) implied in the right to freedom of expression
(C) available under the Acts of Parliament
(D) available under executive orders
Ans : (B)
66. Universal Adult Franchise in India was granted by—
(A) The Act of 1919
(B) The Act of 1935
(C) The Constitution of India
(D) Constitutional Amendment in 1971
Ans : (C)
67. Representative Institutions in India were introduced for the first time by the—
(A) Charter Act of 1853
(B) Government of India Act 1858
(C) Indian Council Act 1861
(D) Indian Council Act 1892
Ans : (D)
68. Who is the legal sovereign in India ?
(A) President of India
(B) President and Parliament
(C) Constitution of India
(D) People of India
Ans : (B)
69. Idealist theory of Rights lays emphasis on man’s—
(A) social development
(B) economic development
(C) civil development
(D) moral development
Ans : (D)
70. The slogan ‘Swaraj is my birthright’ was given by—
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) Lokmanya Tilak
(D) Bipin Chandra Pal
Ans : (C)
71. The partition of Bengal was annulled in—
(A) 1907
(B) 1908
(C) 1910
(D) 1911
Ans : (D)
72. Who, among the following, was the founder of Ghadar Party ?
(A) Lala Har Dayal
(B) Ram Chandra
(C) Bikaji Cama
(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad
Ans : (A)
73. The first Satyagraha campaign of Gandhiji was started in—
(A) Champaran
(B) Bardoli
(C) Dandi
(D) Baroda
Ans : (A)
74. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder of—
(A) Arya Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Ram Krishna Mission
(D) Prarthana Samaj
Ans : (B)
75. The Indian National Congress adopted the resolution of ‘Complete Independence’ in its session held at—
(A) Lahore
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Bombay
Ans : (A)
76. Which what the April 13, 1919 is associated in the history of freedom struggle of India ?
(A) Start of Civil Disobedience Movement
(B) Countrywide Non-cooperation Movement
(C) Adoption of pledge for complete freedom of the country
(D) Massacre of Jallianwala Bagh
Ans : (D)
77. Why did Gandhiji abruptly stop the Non-cooperation Movement of 1922 ?
(A) For the harsh attitude of British
(B) Because of pact between Congress and British
(C) Because of violence broke at Chauri-Chaura
(D) Because of unanimous decision of Congress
Ans : (C)
78. Which of the following is not matched properly ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi—Noncooperation Movement
(B) Vinoba Bhave—Bhoodan
(C) M.N. Roy—Partyless Democracy
(D) J.L. Nehru—Democratic Socialism
Ans : (C)
79. Which Constitutional Amendment is related to Panchayati Raj ?
(A) 52nd
(B) 62nd
(C) 72nd
(D) 73rd
Ans : (D)
80. In which year Madhya Pradesh State has made Panchayati Raj Act after 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act ?
(A) 1992
(B) 1993
(C) 1995
(D) 1998
Ans : (C)
81. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ? The President of India can—
(A) summon each House of Parliament
(B) address both the Houses of Parliament
(C) prorogue either House of Parliament
(D) dissolve both the Houses of Parliament
Ans : (D)
82. The Presiding Officer of the Upper House of Indian Parliament is—
(A) President of India
(B) Vice-President of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans : (B)
83. The Act of 1919 provided for—
(A) Annulment of Veto power of the Governor General
(B) Bicameral legislature at the centre
(C) End of communal representation
(D) Introduction of dyarchy at the centre
Ans : (B)
84. The Communal Electorate System was introduced by the British in India for the first time through—
(A) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(B) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(C) Government of India Act, 1909
(D) Government of India Act, 1919
Ans : (C)
85. The Political Party commands absolute majority in Lok Sabha. It means—
(A) membership is more than 50%
(B) majority in membership
(C) majority support
(D) 50% membership
Ans : (A)
86. Parliament of India consists of—
(A) Legislative Assembly, Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
(C) President, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
(D) Speaker, Lok Sabha, Council of State
Ans : (C)
87. The State, which elects the largest members of Lok Sabha, is—
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)
88. The ‘Trusteeship Theory’ signifies—
(A) property as theft
(B) state ownership of means of production
(C) abolition of private property
(D) owners consider wealth ‘for society’
Ans : (D)
89. Cripps proposals is a ‘post-dated cheque’ on a failing bank. This is the view of—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Rajgopalachari
(D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (B)
90. The Prime Minister of India is—
(A) appointed
(B) elected
(C) nominated
(D) selected
Ans : (A)
91. In India, the Money Bill is first introduced in—
(A) the Rajya Sabha
(B) the Lok Sabha
(C) simultaneously in both the Houses of Parliament
(D) the Finance Commission
Ans : (B)
92. Which of the following writs literally means : ‘We command’ ?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo warranto
(D) Certiorari
Ans : (B)
93. Where is the International Court of Justice situated ?
(A) The Hague
(B) New York
(C) Geneva
(D) Paris
Ans : (A)
94. When was SAARC formally established ?
(A) December 1980
(B) August 1983
(C) December 1985
(D) July 1987
Ans : (C)
95. Who of the following gave the idea of partyless democracy ?
(A) J. L. Nehru
(B) Lenin
(C) Jayaprakash Narayana
(D) M. K. Gandhi
Ans : (C)
96. The number of Judges in International Court of Justice is—
(A) 15
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 14
Ans : (A)
97. India began NAM in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1954
(C) 1973
(D) 1978
Ans : (A)
98. Sino-Indian war occurred in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1948
(D) 1947
Ans : (B)
99. According to the Constitution, the Lok Sabha must meet at least—
(A) thrice each year with an interval of not more than two months between the two sessions
(B) twice each year with an interval of not more than three months between the two sessions
(C) twice each year with an interval of not more than four months between the two sessions
(D) twice each year with an interval of not more than six months between the two sessions
Ans : (D)
100. Which one the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Simon Commission, 1927
(B) Namak Satyagrah, 1930
(C) Gandhi-Irwin Pact, 1931
(D) Wavell Plan, 1944
Ans : (D)
101. “Law is the command of the sovereign.” It was said by—
(A) H. J. Laski
(B) W. Austin
(C) J. Bentham
(D) T. Acquinas
Ans : (B)
102. Hobbes has been called an individualist because—
(A) he permits Natural Rights to the individual
(B) he allows Right to Revolt against the sovereign
(C) his Monarch has been given absolute powers by the people
(D) his entire philosophy focuses on the security of the individual in the state
Ans : (D)
103. According to Rousseau the State of Nature has to be terminated because—
(A) Human nature was wicked
(B) Natural rights were in danger
(C) Art and culture were to be preserved
(D) Inequality created the institution of property
Ans : (D)
104. According to Karl Marx, State—
(A) is a result of surplus value
(B) is a permanent agency of exploitation of the poor
(C) is a class organisation which was to wither away
(D) is a product of social contract between rich and powerful
Ans : (C)
105. Which one of the following is a Liberal thinker ?
(A) J. S. Mill
(B) Thomas Moore
(C) George Sorel
(D) A. R. Orage
Ans : (A)
106. A welfare state is a/an—
(A) democratic state
(B) socialist state
(C) secular state
(D) administrative state
Ans : (A)
107. “Socialism is like a hat which has lost its shape because everybody wears it.” Who said this ?
(A) Charles Fourier
(B) Proudhoun
(C) C.E.M. Joad
(D) Alexander Gray
Ans : (C)
108. Guild Socialism is a half way house between—
(A) Democracy and Socialism
(B) Socialism and Marxism
(C) Collectivism and Syndicalism
(D) Marxism and State Socialism
Ans : (C)
109. A socialist state believes in giving—
(A) maximum functions to the State
(B) minimum functions to the State
(C) negative functions to the State
(D) no functions to the State
Ans : (A)
110. Proportional representation is also called as—
(A) MacDonald method
(B) Hare plan
(C) Single voting
(D) List system
Ans : (B)
111. Who was the author of ‘Arthashastra’ ?
(A) Kautilya
(B) Adam Smith
(C) Patanjali
(D) Malthus
Ans : (A)
112. Socialism as a political philosophy is not opposed to—
(A) Capitalism
(B) Feudalism
(C) Social engineering
(D) Competition
Ans : (C)
113. Fabian socialists believe in—
(A) inevitability of gradualness
(B) non-violence for social status quo
(C) revolutionary reforms
(D) minimum consumption
Ans : (A)
114. A democratic form of government can be contrasted from a totalitarian form of government on the basis of—
(A) Constitutionalism
(B) Electoral system
(C) Rule of Law
(D) Opposition parties
Ans : (C)
115. Minorities and special interests can be best represented on democratic bodies by a system of—
(A) plural voting
(B) professional representation
(C) proportional representation
(D) separate electorates
Ans : (C)
116. The book entitled ‘Grammar of Politics’ was written by—
(A) E. Barker
(B) H. Laski
(C) H. Lasswell
(D) A. Appodari
Ans : (B)
117. Mr. H. G. Sorel was a—
(A) Guild socialist
(B) Syndicalist
(C) Fabian socialist
(D) Utopian socialist
Ans : (B)
118. “Nothing against the state, nothing beyond the state, everything within the state” was the political philosophy of—
(A) Hegel
(B) Marx
(C) Mussolini
(D) Mao
Ans : (A)
119. Marxism and Fascism agree about—
(A) the nature of state
(B) the role of religion
(C) the utility of wars
(D) the totalitarian character of government
Ans : (D)
120. The socialists consider the state as—
(A) a necessary evil
(B) an unnecessary evil
(C) a divine institution
(D) a positive good
Ans : (D)
(Held on 11-1-2009)
Political Science
1. Which one is not the principle of Parliamentary government in a democracy ?
(A) Collective responsibility of Executive
(B) Fixed Tenure
(C) Prime Minister as Primes inter pares
(D) Judicial guarantee of Fundamental Rights
Ans : (B)
2. The Executive in Presidential form of government is powerful because—
(A) the Legislature is weak
(B) judges are appointed by the President
(C) it enjoys the fixity of tenure
(D) the procedure of impeachment is cumbersome
Ans : (C)
3. Presidential form of government is based on the principle of—
(A) accountability of Executive to Judiciary
(B) independence of the Executive
(C) separation of powers
(D) sovereignty of the Legislature
Ans : (B)
4. “Politics is struggle for power”, was said by—
(A) Morgenthau
(B) Quincy Wright
(C) Sprout
(D) Thomson
Ans : (A)
5. “Politics is concerned with the authoritative allocation of values for a society.” This definition of politics has been given by—
(A) David Easton
(B) Harold Lasswell
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) Charles Merriam
Ans : (A)
6. According to Structural-Functional approach which of the following does not constitute ‘input functions’ of a political system ?
(A) Political socialisation
(B) Political development
(C) Interest aggregation
(D) Political communication
Ans : (B)
7. Who of the following is regarded as an exponent of empty liberty ?
(A) Bentham
(B) J.S. Mill
(C) Hegel
(D) Green
Ans : (B)
8. Which one of the following books is not written by Machiavelli ?
(A) The Prince
(B) The Discourses
(C) The Art of War
(D) Behemoth
Ans : (D)
9. The view that “the State is a necessary evil”, is associated with—
(A) Individualists
(B) Anarchists
(C) Marxists
(D) Sophists
Ans : (A)
10. The philosophy that stands diametrically opposite to liberalism is—
(A) Individualism
(B) Capitalism
(C) Marxism
(D) Fascism
Ans : (C)
11. Who of the following first propounded the organic theory of State ?
(A) Machiavelli
(B) Plato
(C) Marx
(D) Herbert Spencer
Ans : (B)
12. Social Contract theory is based on—
(A) Nationalism
(B) Constitutionalism
(C) Individualism
(D) Socialism
Ans : (C)
13. Who of the following first used the term ‘Socialism’ ?
(A) Kropotkin
(B) Robert Owen
(C) Marx
(D) Bentham
Ans : (B)
14. Which one of the following is not an agency of public opinion ?
(A) Press
(B) Judiciary
(C) Political Party
(D) T.V. and Radio
Ans : (B)
15. The first systematic classification of government was given by—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Machiavelli
(D) Montesquieu
Ans : (B)
16. Which one of the following functions is performed by political parties ?
(A) To render help to poor people
(B) To run hospitals
(C) To manage newspapers
(D) To assist candidates in contesting elections
Ans : (D)
17. ‘The concept of liberty’ includes—
(A) absence of unjust restraints
(B) maximum justice
(C) national liberation
(D) absence of restraints
Ans : (A)
18. The best explanation of ‘Equality’ is—
(A) identity of treatment
(B) parity of remuneration
(C) fulfilment of minimum needs
(D) abiding by rules
Ans : (C)
19. Marxian socialism is called ‘scientific socialism’, because Marx—
(A) considered personal experiences as his laboratory
(B) opposed religion and metaphysical issues
(C) rejected idealistic, vague and utopian assumptions
(D) accepted dictatorship of the proletariat
Ans : (C)
20. The Retributive Theory of Justice is based on—
(A) the principle of deterrent punishment
(B) the principle of revenge
(C) the principle that punishment should aim at reforming the criminals
(D) the principle of ‘hate the sin and not the sinner’
Ans : (B)
21. Classless society according to Marx denotes—
(A) a tribal society
(B) a casteless society
(C) a society where there is only one class–the working class
(D) a society in which all classes are in equal proportion
Ans : (C)
22. Rousseau’s ‘General Will’ means—
(A) Will of the sovereign
(B) Will of the general public
(C) Will of majority
(D) Collective good of the people
Ans : (D)
23. The Deterrent Theory of Justice is based upon the principle of—
(A) Tit for tat
(B) Severe and exemplary punishment to prevent the reoccurrence of crime
(C) That criminals should be reformed
(D) That criminals should be treated leniently
Ans : (B)
24. Theory of Political Development means—
(A) Development of the whole state
(B) Development of the consciousness amongst the people
(C) Development of the whole society through the instrumentality of the State
(D) Development of political elite
Ans : (C)
25. Divine Origin theory of the State holds that—
(A) State was created by a saint named Divine
(B) State was created by Pope
(C) State was created by God
(D) State was created by majority vote
Ans : (C)
26. Oligarchy is a system where—
(A) representatives of the common people dominate
(B) aristocratic class dominates
(C) working class dominates
(D) peasantry dominates
Ans : (B)
27. A Totalitarian State is one in which—
(A) total power of the state is vested in one person
(B) state has total power over its subjects
(C) state caters to the total needs of its subjects
(D) state has complete control over its resources
Ans : (B)
28. The characteristic which is of the ‘List System’ but not of ‘Single Transferable Vote System’ is—
(A) it is proportional representation
(B) the constituency must be multiple-member
(C) quota is calculated
(D) votes are cast to the party and not the candidate
Ans : (D)
29. The scholar who first propounded the single transferable vote system is—
(A) Thomas Paine
(B) J.S. Mill
(C) Thomas Hare
(D) Rousseau
Ans : (C)
30. The ideology of Democratic Socialism lays emphasis on—
(A) basis of society is not competition, but cooperation
(B) state is a necessary evil
(C) violent revolution
(D) class-struggle theory
Ans : (A)
31. Which of the following statements is not applicable to Hobbes ?
(A) Men entered into a single contract
(B) Sovereign enjoyed absolute powers
(C) Men can appoint their ruler
(D) The contract was one-sided
Ans : (C)
32. Which of the following contains the elements of the historical theory of the origin of the State ?
(A) Kinship, religion, war, political consciousness
(B) War, customs, kingship, dictates of natural law
(C) Kingship, force, mutual agreements, political leadership
(D) Blood-relations, contractual agreements, religion, anarchy
Ans : (A)
33. The basic principle of liberalism is—
(A) social justice
(B) equality
(C) individual freedom
(D) nationalism
Ans : (C)
34. Modern Individualism demands freedom for—
(A) Group
(B) Individual
(C) People
(D) Working class
Ans : (A)
35. The concept of constitutional government was first elaborated by—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Bodin
(D) Machiavelli
Ans : (B)
36. Who propagated “the greatest happiness to the greatest number” ?
(A) Marxists
(B) Utilitarians
(C) Liberals
(D) Pluralists
Ans : (B)
37. Input-output model is chiefly attributed to—
(A) Peter Merkl
(B) Robert Dahl
(C) David Easton
(D) David Apter
Ans : (C)
38. What are the essential elements of the State ?
(A) Population, territory, constitution, power
(B) Population, territory, government, sovereignty
(C) Population, territory, political party, sovereignty
(D) Population, power, authority, sovereignty
Ans : (B)
39. Which of the following theories of origin of State is more appropriate and reliable as it is based on scientific base ?
(A) Divine theory of origin of state
(B) Force theory
(C) Evolutionary theory
(D) Social contract theory
Ans : (C)
40. The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ was given by—
(A) A.V. Dicey
(B) Laski
(C) Austin
(D) MacIver
Ans : (A)
41. Mrs. Annie Besant was associated with—
(A) Servants of India Society
(B) Home Rule Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) Quit India Movement
Ans : (B)
42. Who presides over the joint session of the two Houses of the Parliament ?
(A) President of India
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Leader of Ruling Party
Ans : (B)
43. In the Indian Constitution the word secularism means—
(A) State has a religion of its own
(B) State has nothing to do with religion
(C) State has irreligious
(D) State tolerates religions without professing any particular religion
Ans : (D)
44. Who was the Chairman of the ‘Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly’ ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) J. L. Nehru
(D) B. N. Rao
Ans : (B)
45. Through which Amendment was the word ‘Socialism’ added to the Constitution ?
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 43rd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 45th Amendment
Ans : (A)
46. Indian Institute of Public Administration is situated at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Chennai
(C) Kolkata
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (A)
47. In India the power of judicial review is enjoyed by the—
(A) High Court only
(B) Supreme Court only
(C) Supreme Court and High Court only
(D) Parliament
Ans : (C)
48. In which part of the Indian Constitution proclaims India to be a welfare state ?
(A) Part III
(B) Part IV
(C) Part IX
(D) Part VI
Ans : (B)
49. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are contained in—
(A) Part I of the Constitution
(B) Part III of the Constitution
(C) Part IV of the Constitution
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
50. Which one of the following commissions was constituted to examine the Centre-State relations ?
(A) Sarkaria Commission
(B) Shah Commission
(C) Bachhavat Commission
(D) Jain Commission
Ans : (A)
51. In India the work of Budget forming is performed by—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Public Service Commission
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Finance Commission
Ans : (C)
52. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right to Life
(B) Right to Liberty
(C) Right to Property
(D) Right to Freedom of Expression
Ans : (C)
53. Indian system is—
(A) Federal
(B) Quasi-federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Federal with unitary bias
Ans : (D)
54. Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission of 1945 ?
(A) Sir Stafford Cripps
(B) A.V. Alexander
(C) Lord Pathik Lawrence
(D) C. Atlee
Ans : (D)
55. The partition of India was first hinted—
(A) at the II Round Table Conference
(B) in the Cripps Proposals
(C) in the Cabinet Mission Plan
(D) in the Mountbatten formula
Ans : (D)
56. The demand of the Swarajist Party was—
(A) Poorna Swaraj
(B) Parliamentary Institutions
(C) Dominion Status
(D) Communal Electorates
Ans : (C)
57. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Vice-President
(D) Union Planning Minister
Ans : (B)
58. Mohd. Ali Jinnah propounded the ‘Two-Nation’ theory in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1928
(C) 1940
(D) 1946
Ans : (C)
59. Who among the following was not a moderate ?
(A) B.G. Tilak
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Feroz Shah Mehta
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Ans : (A)
60. ‘Dyarchy’ was introduced in India under—
(A) Morley-Minto Reforms
(B) Montford Reforms
(C) Simon Commission Plan
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans : (B)
61. The Simon Commission was sent to India to—
(A) study the communal problem
(B) negotiate with Gandhiji about representation of backward classes
(C) review the progress of Montford reforms
(D) report on Home Rule to the British Parliament
Ans : (C)
62. The leaders of the Khilafat movement were—
(A) Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das
(B) Gandhi and Annie Beasant
(C) Maulana Azad and Sarojini Naidu
(D) Ali Brothers
Ans : (D)
63. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched ?
(A) Fascism—Mussolini
(B) Anarchism—Bakunin
(C) Socialism—Thomas Moore
(D) Pluralism—Kropotkin
Ans : (D)
64. The importance of Bureaucracy has greatly increased in present times on account of—
(A) the emergence of democratic state
(B) the emergence of welfare state
(C) the emergence of police state
(D) the emergence of liberal economic system
Ans : (B)
65. Freedom of Press in India is—
(A) specifically provided in the Constitution
(B) implied in the right to freedom of expression
(C) available under the Acts of Parliament
(D) available under executive orders
Ans : (B)
66. Universal Adult Franchise in India was granted by—
(A) The Act of 1919
(B) The Act of 1935
(C) The Constitution of India
(D) Constitutional Amendment in 1971
Ans : (C)
67. Representative Institutions in India were introduced for the first time by the—
(A) Charter Act of 1853
(B) Government of India Act 1858
(C) Indian Council Act 1861
(D) Indian Council Act 1892
Ans : (D)
68. Who is the legal sovereign in India ?
(A) President of India
(B) President and Parliament
(C) Constitution of India
(D) People of India
Ans : (B)
69. Idealist theory of Rights lays emphasis on man’s—
(A) social development
(B) economic development
(C) civil development
(D) moral development
Ans : (D)
70. The slogan ‘Swaraj is my birthright’ was given by—
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) Lokmanya Tilak
(D) Bipin Chandra Pal
Ans : (C)
71. The partition of Bengal was annulled in—
(A) 1907
(B) 1908
(C) 1910
(D) 1911
Ans : (D)
72. Who, among the following, was the founder of Ghadar Party ?
(A) Lala Har Dayal
(B) Ram Chandra
(C) Bikaji Cama
(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad
Ans : (A)
73. The first Satyagraha campaign of Gandhiji was started in—
(A) Champaran
(B) Bardoli
(C) Dandi
(D) Baroda
Ans : (A)
74. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder of—
(A) Arya Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Ram Krishna Mission
(D) Prarthana Samaj
Ans : (B)
75. The Indian National Congress adopted the resolution of ‘Complete Independence’ in its session held at—
(A) Lahore
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Bombay
Ans : (A)
76. Which what the April 13, 1919 is associated in the history of freedom struggle of India ?
(A) Start of Civil Disobedience Movement
(B) Countrywide Non-cooperation Movement
(C) Adoption of pledge for complete freedom of the country
(D) Massacre of Jallianwala Bagh
Ans : (D)
77. Why did Gandhiji abruptly stop the Non-cooperation Movement of 1922 ?
(A) For the harsh attitude of British
(B) Because of pact between Congress and British
(C) Because of violence broke at Chauri-Chaura
(D) Because of unanimous decision of Congress
Ans : (C)
78. Which of the following is not matched properly ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi—Noncooperation Movement
(B) Vinoba Bhave—Bhoodan
(C) M.N. Roy—Partyless Democracy
(D) J.L. Nehru—Democratic Socialism
Ans : (C)
79. Which Constitutional Amendment is related to Panchayati Raj ?
(A) 52nd
(B) 62nd
(C) 72nd
(D) 73rd
Ans : (D)
80. In which year Madhya Pradesh State has made Panchayati Raj Act after 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act ?
(A) 1992
(B) 1993
(C) 1995
(D) 1998
Ans : (C)
81. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ? The President of India can—
(A) summon each House of Parliament
(B) address both the Houses of Parliament
(C) prorogue either House of Parliament
(D) dissolve both the Houses of Parliament
Ans : (D)
82. The Presiding Officer of the Upper House of Indian Parliament is—
(A) President of India
(B) Vice-President of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans : (B)
83. The Act of 1919 provided for—
(A) Annulment of Veto power of the Governor General
(B) Bicameral legislature at the centre
(C) End of communal representation
(D) Introduction of dyarchy at the centre
Ans : (B)
84. The Communal Electorate System was introduced by the British in India for the first time through—
(A) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(B) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(C) Government of India Act, 1909
(D) Government of India Act, 1919
Ans : (C)
85. The Political Party commands absolute majority in Lok Sabha. It means—
(A) membership is more than 50%
(B) majority in membership
(C) majority support
(D) 50% membership
Ans : (A)
86. Parliament of India consists of—
(A) Legislative Assembly, Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
(C) President, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
(D) Speaker, Lok Sabha, Council of State
Ans : (C)
87. The State, which elects the largest members of Lok Sabha, is—
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)
88. The ‘Trusteeship Theory’ signifies—
(A) property as theft
(B) state ownership of means of production
(C) abolition of private property
(D) owners consider wealth ‘for society’
Ans : (D)
89. Cripps proposals is a ‘post-dated cheque’ on a failing bank. This is the view of—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Rajgopalachari
(D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (B)
90. The Prime Minister of India is—
(A) appointed
(B) elected
(C) nominated
(D) selected
Ans : (A)
91. In India, the Money Bill is first introduced in—
(A) the Rajya Sabha
(B) the Lok Sabha
(C) simultaneously in both the Houses of Parliament
(D) the Finance Commission
Ans : (B)
92. Which of the following writs literally means : ‘We command’ ?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo warranto
(D) Certiorari
Ans : (B)
93. Where is the International Court of Justice situated ?
(A) The Hague
(B) New York
(C) Geneva
(D) Paris
Ans : (A)
94. When was SAARC formally established ?
(A) December 1980
(B) August 1983
(C) December 1985
(D) July 1987
Ans : (C)
95. Who of the following gave the idea of partyless democracy ?
(A) J. L. Nehru
(B) Lenin
(C) Jayaprakash Narayana
(D) M. K. Gandhi
Ans : (C)
96. The number of Judges in International Court of Justice is—
(A) 15
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 14
Ans : (A)
97. India began NAM in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1954
(C) 1973
(D) 1978
Ans : (A)
98. Sino-Indian war occurred in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1948
(D) 1947
Ans : (B)
99. According to the Constitution, the Lok Sabha must meet at least—
(A) thrice each year with an interval of not more than two months between the two sessions
(B) twice each year with an interval of not more than three months between the two sessions
(C) twice each year with an interval of not more than four months between the two sessions
(D) twice each year with an interval of not more than six months between the two sessions
Ans : (D)
100. Which one the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Simon Commission, 1927
(B) Namak Satyagrah, 1930
(C) Gandhi-Irwin Pact, 1931
(D) Wavell Plan, 1944
Ans : (D)
101. “Law is the command of the sovereign.” It was said by—
(A) H. J. Laski
(B) W. Austin
(C) J. Bentham
(D) T. Acquinas
Ans : (B)
102. Hobbes has been called an individualist because—
(A) he permits Natural Rights to the individual
(B) he allows Right to Revolt against the sovereign
(C) his Monarch has been given absolute powers by the people
(D) his entire philosophy focuses on the security of the individual in the state
Ans : (D)
103. According to Rousseau the State of Nature has to be terminated because—
(A) Human nature was wicked
(B) Natural rights were in danger
(C) Art and culture were to be preserved
(D) Inequality created the institution of property
Ans : (D)
104. According to Karl Marx, State—
(A) is a result of surplus value
(B) is a permanent agency of exploitation of the poor
(C) is a class organisation which was to wither away
(D) is a product of social contract between rich and powerful
Ans : (C)
105. Which one of the following is a Liberal thinker ?
(A) J. S. Mill
(B) Thomas Moore
(C) George Sorel
(D) A. R. Orage
Ans : (A)
106. A welfare state is a/an—
(A) democratic state
(B) socialist state
(C) secular state
(D) administrative state
Ans : (A)
107. “Socialism is like a hat which has lost its shape because everybody wears it.” Who said this ?
(A) Charles Fourier
(B) Proudhoun
(C) C.E.M. Joad
(D) Alexander Gray
Ans : (C)
108. Guild Socialism is a half way house between—
(A) Democracy and Socialism
(B) Socialism and Marxism
(C) Collectivism and Syndicalism
(D) Marxism and State Socialism
Ans : (C)
109. A socialist state believes in giving—
(A) maximum functions to the State
(B) minimum functions to the State
(C) negative functions to the State
(D) no functions to the State
Ans : (A)
110. Proportional representation is also called as—
(A) MacDonald method
(B) Hare plan
(C) Single voting
(D) List system
Ans : (B)
111. Who was the author of ‘Arthashastra’ ?
(A) Kautilya
(B) Adam Smith
(C) Patanjali
(D) Malthus
Ans : (A)
112. Socialism as a political philosophy is not opposed to—
(A) Capitalism
(B) Feudalism
(C) Social engineering
(D) Competition
Ans : (C)
113. Fabian socialists believe in—
(A) inevitability of gradualness
(B) non-violence for social status quo
(C) revolutionary reforms
(D) minimum consumption
Ans : (A)
114. A democratic form of government can be contrasted from a totalitarian form of government on the basis of—
(A) Constitutionalism
(B) Electoral system
(C) Rule of Law
(D) Opposition parties
Ans : (C)
115. Minorities and special interests can be best represented on democratic bodies by a system of—
(A) plural voting
(B) professional representation
(C) proportional representation
(D) separate electorates
Ans : (C)
116. The book entitled ‘Grammar of Politics’ was written by—
(A) E. Barker
(B) H. Laski
(C) H. Lasswell
(D) A. Appodari
Ans : (B)
117. Mr. H. G. Sorel was a—
(A) Guild socialist
(B) Syndicalist
(C) Fabian socialist
(D) Utopian socialist
Ans : (B)
118. “Nothing against the state, nothing beyond the state, everything within the state” was the political philosophy of—
(A) Hegel
(B) Marx
(C) Mussolini
(D) Mao
Ans : (A)
119. Marxism and Fascism agree about—
(A) the nature of state
(B) the role of religion
(C) the utility of wars
(D) the totalitarian character of government
Ans : (D)
120. The socialists consider the state as—
(A) a necessary evil
(B) an unnecessary evil
(C) a divine institution
(D) a positive good
Ans : (D)
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2008
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2008
Public Administration
(Held on 7-1-2009)
Public Administration
(Held on 7-1-2009)
1. Which of the following theories focuses on informal organization and participative management ?
(A) Human Relations Theory
(B) Scientific Management Theory
(C) Behavioural Theory
(D) Contingency Theory
Ans : (A)
2. “Until administrative description reaches a higher level of sophistication, there is little reason to hope that rapid progress will be made towards the identification and verification of valid administrative principles.” Who said it ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Leonard White
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Robert Dahl
Ans : (D)
3. Which of the following attempts to construct a theory of public organization in tune with consumer interests and individual preferences ?
(A) Development Administration Approach
(B) Public Choice Approach
(C) Co-optation Concept
(D) Behavioural Approach
Ans : (B)
4. Who theorized that ‘Every person has certain basic assumptions about other people’s attitude toward work and organization.’ ?
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Frederick Herzberg
(C) Chris Argyris
(D) Douglas McGregor
Ans : (D)
5. Which of the following has been termed as the biological parent of Public Administration ?
(A) Sociology
(B) Political Science
(C) Business Administration
(D) Psychology
Ans : (B)
6. The central theme of Comparative Public Administration is—
(A) Administrative structure
(B) Bureaucracy
(C) Citizen-Administration Relations
(D) Leadership
Ans : (B)
7. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Theme)
(a) Job Enrichment
(b) Mechanical Study of the Process
(c) Human Dimensions
(d) Social Equity Attitude
List-II (Thinker)
1. D. Waldo
2. W. F. Willoughby
3. F. Herzberg
4. Herbert Simon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (A)
8. The most preferred perspective to distinguish public and private in administration is—
(A) Agency
(B) Interest
(C) Access
(D) Commitment
Ans : (B)
9. “Lack of courage to delegate properly and of knowledge how to do it is one of the most general causes of failure in organization.” Who said it ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Lyndall Urwick
(C) Paul H. Appleby
(D) Dwight Waldo
Ans : (A)
10. Who was the Chairman of the Comparative Administration Group 1963 ?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Robert Dahl
(C) Fred Riggs
(D) Franc Marini
Ans : (C)
11. Politicisation of bureaucracy means—
(A) Responding to the will of the government of every complexion
(B) Sacrificing professional norms for party consideration
(C) Supporting party ideology
(D) Attending party assemblies
Ans : (B)
12. “In the past the man was first. In the future the system will be the first.” Who said it ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) Peter Drucker
(C) Marshall Dimock
(D) Leonard White
Ans : (B)
13. Rensis Likert’s System I is characterised by—
(A) Supportive Leadership
(B) Low Motivation
(C) Self Regulation
(D) Openness
Ans : (B)
14. The basic premise of New Public Management is—
(A) Governments as the primary agent of all social action
(B) Large governmental bureaucracies
(C) More flexible and open governments
(D) Paternal governments
Ans : (C)
15. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Direct Authority
(b) Delegated Authority
(c) Functional Authority
(d) Personal Authority
List-II
1. Seniority
2. Unbroken line between Issuer and Acceptor
3. An Intermediate Agency between Issuer and Acceptor
4. Intrinsic by special knowledge
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 3 2 4
Ans : (C)
16. According to Mary Parker Follett, the principles of effective coordination are—
(a) Intellectual Ability
(b) Continuity
(c) Reciprocity
(d) Mutual Consultation
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)
17. Dwight Waldo in his book ‘The Administrative State’ has attacked—
(a) Notion of Unchanging Principles of Administration
(b) Human Emotions in Organization
(c) Narrowness of Values of Economy and Efficiency
(d) Inconsistencies in Methodology used in determining the principles
Codes :
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (c)
Ans : (C)
18. Human Relations Theory believed that the people are—
(A) Economic Men
(B) Homogeneous
(C) Heterogeneous
(D) Atomistic
Ans : (C)
19. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Substantive Coordination
(b) Internal Coordination
(c) Horizontal Coordination
(d) Procedural Coordination
List-II
1. Between Units in the same level
2. Between different units within the organisation
3. Generalised description of the behaviour and relationship of the members of the organization
4. Content of the organization’s activities
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (A)
20. The linking process for interaction under systems approach does not include—
(A) Communication
(B) Delegation
(C) Balance
(D) Decision Making
Ans : (B)
21. “Work division is the foundation of organization, indeed, the reason for organization.” Who said it ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) Mary Parker Follett
Ans : (C)
22. The semantic barrier to communication is not—
(A) Environment
(B) Distracting Noise
(C) Distance
(D) Poor Listening Habits
Ans : (C)
23. The Bills which can be introduced but cannot be considered without the prior recommendation of the President is—
(A) Money Bills under Article 110
(B) Financial Bills not consisting solely of matters specified in Article 110
(C) Ordinary Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund
(D) Bills affecting taxes in which States are interested
Ans : (C)
24. New Public Administration shares this feature with Development Administration—
(A) Effective coordination
(B) Change orientation
(C) Temporal Dimension
(D) Ecological Perspective
Ans : (B)
25. “As long as the study of Public Administration is not comparative, claims for a science of Public Administration is rather hollow.” Who said it ?
(A) Fred Riggs
(B) Max Weber
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) Ferrel Heady
Ans : (C)
26. In Britain the ‘Priestly formula’ relates to—
(A) Recruitment
(B) Promotion
(C) Pay
(D) Disciplinary Action
Ans : (B)
27. Whitley Council in UK is not a forum for—
(A) Discussion and Negotiation
(B) Ventilation of Grievances
(C) Settlement of Disputes on Service Conditions
(D) Settlement of Individual cases relating to Promotion & Disciplinary Action
Ans : (D)
28. “Neutral bureaucracy can be found only in a secular political culture.” Who said it ?
(A) M. E. Dimock
(B) Glenn Stahl
(C) G. A. Almond
(D) Max Weber
Ans : (C)
29. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Concept)
(a) Monte Carlo
(b) Gambler
(c) Synetics
(d) Contract
List-II (Meaning)
1. Generation of Alternative Solutions
2. Narrow Form of Simulation
3. Formal Basis of Authority
4. To take Greater Risk
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (C)
30. The most effective means of citizens’ control over administration is—
(A) Elections
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)
31. The U.S. President’s principal staff agency in fiscal, legislative and administrative management is—
(A) Bureau of the Budget
(B) The Office of Management and Budget
(C) Department of the Treasury
(D) White House Office
Ans : (B)
32. Which of the following is not a feature of U.S. personnel system ?
(A) Competitive Service
(B) Lateral Entry
(C) Post-entry Training
(D) Rule of Three
Ans : (B)
33. Grants from Centre to the States are regulated by the following Articles of the Constitution—
(A) 268, 269, 270, 272
(B) 270, 271, 274
(C) 273, 275, 282
(D) 275, 282, 287
Ans : (A)
34. The expectancy theory of motivation depends upon the employee’s perception of the relationship between—
(A) Need, Performance and Achievement
(B) Effort, Performance and Reward
(C) Desire, Performance and Response
(D) Preference, Performance and Action
Ans : (B)
35. Who referred the interaction between politicians and administrators as ‘administrative politics’ ?
(A) Michael Murray
(B) Michael Crozier
(C) David Rosenblom
(D) Peter Self
Ans : (D)
36. The techniques applied in performance appraisal in U.S.A. are—
(a) Rating Scale
(b) Critical Incidents
(c) Forced choice
(d) Forced Distribution
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)
37. The political rights granted to the Civil Servants in France are—
(a) Right to become member of a political party
(b) Right to participate in political activities
(c) Right to criticise government’s policies
(d) Right to contest elections to any representative office
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)
38. The functions performed by the then Secretary to the Governor-General before Independence are now performed by—
(A) Chief Secretary
(B) Cabinet Secretariat
(C) Prime Minister’s Office
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans : (C)
39. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Economic Man
(b) Decision Tree
(c) Link Pin Concept
(d) Simulation
List-II
1. Trial and Error Approach to Complex Problems
2. Subordinate becomes a Member of the Superior’s Decision Unit
3. Optimum Decision
4. Graphic Method to see Alternative Solutions
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (A)
40. In USA the authority to regulate the formation and dissolution of Federal Departments is vested in—
(A) President
(B) Congress
(C) Constitution
(D) President in consultation with the Secretary of State
Ans : (B)
41. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Zone of Acceptance
(b) Zone of Indifference
(c) Span of Attention
(d) Scalar chain
List-II
1. Graicunas
2. Henri Fayol
3. Herbert Simon
4. Chester Barnard
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (B)
42. Which of the following, according to Bruce Stone, is not a ‘Bottom-Up’ concept of accountability ?
(A) Parliamentary control
(B) Judicial and Quasi-Judicial Review
(C) Constituency Relationship
(D) Market
Ans : (B)
43. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Civil Service Commission
(b) Recruitment by Promotion
(c) Open Competition
(d) Centralised Recruitment
List-II
1. 1917
2. 1926
3. 1919
4. 1833
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (B)
44. The concept of Citizens’ Charter as a means to greater accountability and openness was first introduced in 1991 in—
(A) USA
(B) U.K.
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (B)
45. Which of the following is not an informal training type ?
(A) Training by Communication
(B) Conference Method
(C) Departmental Training
(D) Syndicate Method
Ans : (D)
46. A grant for meeting an unexpected demand is called—
(A) Supplementary Grant
(B) Votes on Account
(C) Votes on Credit
(D) Exceptional Grant
Ans : (D)
47. “Budget is a document which is unstitched and reassembled by the Appropriation Committees of both the Houses.” This statement of Aaron Wildrasky applies to the budget of—
(A) United States of America
(B) United Kingdom
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (A)
48. The best check on bureaucratic power, according to Weber, lies with—
(A) Powerful Private Groups
(B) Strong Bureaucratic leadership
(C) Strong Parliament
(D) Superior Technical Knowledge of the Chief Executive
Ans : (D)
49. ‘If a society is not at all differentiated, if there are no specialists, if everyone can do everything.’ Riggs calls it a—
(A) Society
(B) Prismatic Society
(C) Diffracted Society
(D) Transitional Society
Ans : (B)
50. Which one is not correctly matched ?
(A) Compromiser—poor decision maker
(B) Executive—good motivator
(C) Bureaucrat—control of situation by rules
(D) Developer—interest in harmony, avoids conflicts
Ans : (B)
51. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Books)
(a) The New Science of Management decision
(b) Organization and Innovation
(c) The Achieving Society
(d) Eupsychian Management
List-II (Author)
1. David McClelland
2. Abraham Maslow
3. Chris Argyris
4. Herbert Simon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (C)
52. ‘The bureaucracy is a circle, which no one can escape, its hierarchy is a hierarchy of knowledge.’ Who said it ?
(A) Max Weber
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Blau and Scott
(D) T. Parsons
Ans : (B)
53. Which of the following is an area of Planning Commission ?
(A) Review of the Union and State Finances
(B) Maintaining Macro-economic Stability
(C) Public and Foreign Loans
(D) Suggesting Ways and Means to Restructure Public Finance
Ans : (A)
54. The advantages of a departmental undertaking are—
(a) Optimum Utilisation of Financial Resources
(b) Operational Flexibility
(c) High Degree of Accountability
(d) Autonomy in working
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (B)
55. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Endo-prismatic
(b) Exo-prismatic
(c) Ortho prismatic
(d) Diffracted
List-II
1. Semi differentiated and malintegrated
2. Congruence of aspiration and reality
3. Impetus from outside
4. Internally generated movement towards diffraction
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (B)
56. The authority which can make rules for the transaction of the business of the Government of India is—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans : (A)
57. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Concept)
(a) Knowledge Worker
(b) Domination by Organization personality
(c) Action-centred Leadership Theory
(d) Organization as Bureaucracy
List-II (Thinkers)
1. John Adair
2. Max Weber
3. Chester Barnard
4. Peter Drucker
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (C)
58. ‘No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund except under appropriation made by law.’ This has been provided in—
(A) Article 110
(B) Article 112
(C) Article 113
(D) Article 114
Ans : (D)
59. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) All India Services
(b) Classification of Civil Services
(c) Regulation of Recruitment and Conditions of Service
(d) General Policies Regarding all Central Services
List-II
1. Parliamentary Act
2. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
3. Article 312
4. Civil Service Rules 1930
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (B)
60. “Increasing efficiency must begin with those higher ups. This is the essence of scientific management.” Who said it ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Louis Brandis
(C) Frederick Taylor
(D) Harrington Emerson
Ans : (D)
61. The conditions necessary to ensure that neutrality does not lead to a state of inertia and status-quo maintenance are—
(a) cultural or class congruence between Ruling group and Administrative elite
(b) absence of fundamental disagreement over social core values
(c) active participation in political process
(d) a shared belief system’s presence
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)
Ans : (D)
62. Rigg’s concept of development considers penetration as a factor of integration. Consider the following—
(a) The ability of the government to make and carry out decisions.
(b) People’s receptivity to law
(c) People’s will to participate
(d) People’s ability to participate
Which of the above is correct regarding penetration ?
Codes :
(A) (a)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (c)
(D) (c) and (d)
Ans : (A)
63. Who recommended that the National Development Council should be given a constitutional status under Article 263 and renamed as National Economic and Development Council ?
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) P. J. Rajamannar Committee
(D) Chief Secretary’s Conference
Ans : (B)
64. What falls within the purview of consultation of Union Public Service Commission ?
(a) Direct Appointment
(b) Promotion and Transfer
(c) Pay and Service Conditions
(d) Classification and Training
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (A)
65. In a State the Chief Secretary acts as—
(a) Principal Adviser to the Governor
(b) Coordinating link in inter-State Disputes
(c) Secretary to the Chief Minister
(d) Chairman of all Planning and Development Coordination Committees
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (B)
66. Which of the following provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor of two or more States ?
(A) Article 153
(B) Article 155
(C) 7th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 11th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (C)
67. Audit of State Government Accounts is a—
(A) State Subject
(B) Union Subject
(C) Subject on Concurrent List
(D) Subject of Fiscal Policy
Ans : (B)
68. The body that examines the expenditure of the Departments and questions the propriety of these expenditures is—
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Estimate Committee
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Committee on Assurances
Ans : (C)
69. Reappropriation is permissible only—
(A) Between voted and charged items of expenditure
(B) Between different grants voted by the Lok Sabha
(C) Within the same grant only
(D) To meet any expenditure not already sanctioned by the Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)
70. It is a comprehensive account of the receipts and expenditure of the Government under various heads and sub-heads of the Budget—
(A) The Appropriation Account
(B) The Finance Account
(C) Economic Classification of the Budget
(D) Functional Classification of the Budget
Ans : (B)
71. Which of the following statements are true about Lokayukta in Rajasthan ?
(a) He is appointed by the Governor and is responsible to the legislature.
(b) His jurisdiction spans over Ministers, Members of State Legislature and higher Civil Servants.
(c) He considers the cases of corruption and mal administration.
(d) His job is confined to investigate allegations and not grievances.
Codes :
(A) (a) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a) and (c)
Ans : (D)
72. Among the critical dimensions of the leadership situation the most important dimension, according to Fiedler, is—
(A) Position Power
(B) Task Structure
(C) Leader-Member Relations
(D) Least Preferred Co-worker
Ans : (D)
73. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Citizen’s Charter
(b) Right to Information
(c) Judicial Control
(d) Legislative Control
List-II
1. Total Quality Approach
2. Accountability for Decision
3. Transparency
4. Guarantee against Arbitrariness
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (D)
74. Which one of the following is not a function of the Directorate ?
(A) Formulation of the Budget of the Department
(B) Inspection of the execution of work by Field Officers
(C) Rendering technical advice to the Minister/Secretary
(D) Coordination of interdepartmental functions
Ans : (A)
75. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Injunction—Strong arm of equity
(B) Quo Warranto—Prevents illegal assumption of Public Office
(C) Prohibition—Issued against administrative authorities
(D) Habeas Corpus—The bulwark of individual liberty.
Ans : (C)
76. The recommendation to the Union Government for the grant of financial assistance to the States is made by—
(a) The President
(b) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(c) The Finance Commission
(d) The Planning Commission
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)
77. “It transforms the representative democracy into participatory democracy.” This statement has a reference to—
(A) Parliamentary System of the Government
(B) Article 40 of the Constitution
(C) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
(D) 74th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (C)
78. Which of the following is not a corporation form ?
(A) Unit Trust of India
(B) Indian Oil Corporation
(C) Food Corporation of India
(D) State Bank of India
Ans : (B)
79. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Development Council ?
(a) It symbolises a federal approach to planning.
(b) It was set up by a proposal of the Cabinet Secretariat in August 1952.
(c) It was reconstituted in 1968 on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission.
(d) The initiative to convene its meeting lies with the Planning Commission.
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)
80. For which form of Public Enterprise it is said that “It is a child of the State which grows into maturity as soon as it is born” ?
(A) Departmental Form
(B) Company Form
(C) Corporation Form
(D) Commission Form
Ans : (C)
81. Voluntary provisions of 73rd Constitutional Amendment include—
(A) Three Tier Panchayati Raj Institutions
(B) Reservation for Backward Classes
(C) Reservation for Women up to 1/3 seats
(D) Five Year term for PRIs
Ans : (B)
82. Which of the following is the Central Personnel Agency in India ?
(A) Union Public Service Commission
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Department of Personnel and Training
(D) Staff Selection Board
Ans : (C)
83. An urban body in the modern sense was first established in the year—
(A) 1660
(B) 1687
(C) 1951
(D) 1992
Ans : (B)
84. It is not created by an act of State or Union Legislature—
(A) Municipal Corporation
(B) Notified Area Committee
(C) Town Area Committee
(D) Cantonment Board
Ans : (B)
85. The Central Council of Local Government—
(a) is an advisory body.
(b) is constituted under Article 263
(c) Consists of Union Minister for Urban Development and State Ministers for Local Self Government
(d) Controls the Central financial assistance to local bodies
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)
86. The Powers, Authority and Responsibilities of Panchayats in India are mentioned in the Article—
(A) 243 B
(B) 243 D
(C) 243 G
(D) 243 W
Ans : (C)
87. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Miniature District
(b) King-pin of Revenue Administration
(c) Unit for Revenue and Criminal Administration
(d) First Line Supervisor in the chain of Revenue Administration
List-II
1. Sub Division
2. Kanungo
3. Tehsil
4. Patwari
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (D)
88. Gram Sabha has been called “Embodiment of Direct Democracy” by—
(A) Balwantray Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) G. V. K. Rao Committee
(D) L. M. Singhvi Committee
Ans : (D)
89. The transitional area, smaller urban area, larger urban area are differentiated on the basis of—
(a) population and its density
(b) level of per capita income
(c) revenue generated for local administration
(d) percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)
90. With the advent of development administration, the Collector has emerged as—
(A) Symbol of State Power
(B) Head of General Administration
(C) Coordinator of Development Programmes
(D) Executive Head of Development Programmes
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 91–100) The following consist of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these questions using the codes given below—
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
91. Assertion (A) : The study of Public Administration lacks cross cultural concepts and principles for being able to be recognised as science.
Reason (R) : Administrative culture cannot transcend the national frontiers and national experiences.
Ans : (C)
92. Assertion (A) : The Contingency approach and the Transactional approach, both are mutually complementary and quite interrelated.
Reason (R) : Unlike the Contingency models, which concentrate only on the problems confronting the leader in dealing with a small group, Transactional approaches also analyse the leader’s subordinates and the problems confronting them.
Ans : (B)
93. Assertion (A) : Like any social science, Public Administration has its own corpus of methodologies.
Reason (R) : Public Administrationists are aware that the central methodologies of the ‘mother discipline’ usually are irrelevant of practising Public Administration.
Ans : (A)
94. Assertion (A) : The Human Relations Theory focuses on management as a web of interpersonal relations.
Reason (R) : Richard Franke and James Kaul concluded that the human relations were not the reason behind worker’s efficiency.
Ans : (C)
95. Assertion (A) : The Government has no power to regulate, through an appropriate legislation, the recruitment to civil services.
Reason (R) : The Constitution provides for the establishment of an impartial and independent Union Public Service Commission for recruiting civil servants in India.
Ans : (D)
96. Assertion (A) : In the open model, what is good for the individual is also good for the society.
Reason (R) : Open model of organization, like the closed model, is an ideal type.
Ans : (B)
97. Assertion (A) : Individuals and organizations over invest in information.
Reason (R) : Information intensive decisions have a greater organizational acceptance and smoother implementation.
Ans : (A)
98. Assertion (A) : The first principle of democratic governance is that the rulers should be accountable to the people.
Reason (R) : Transparency and accountability in governance depend on citizens easy access to reliable information and data.
Ans : (B)
99. Assertion (A) : The ‘disadvantaged’ states perceive that they have been punished for the better performance, whereas the ‘laggard’ states continue to be rewarded.
Reason (R) : The Finance Commission has the constitutional responsibility to provide succour to the underdeveloped States.
Ans : (B)
100. Assertion (A) : The bureaucracy and the political leadership can achieve the goals by working closely and harmoniously.
Reason (R) : If political leadership represents the input functions of a political system, the output function is performed by the administration.
Ans : (A)
(A) Human Relations Theory
(B) Scientific Management Theory
(C) Behavioural Theory
(D) Contingency Theory
Ans : (A)
2. “Until administrative description reaches a higher level of sophistication, there is little reason to hope that rapid progress will be made towards the identification and verification of valid administrative principles.” Who said it ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Leonard White
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Robert Dahl
Ans : (D)
3. Which of the following attempts to construct a theory of public organization in tune with consumer interests and individual preferences ?
(A) Development Administration Approach
(B) Public Choice Approach
(C) Co-optation Concept
(D) Behavioural Approach
Ans : (B)
4. Who theorized that ‘Every person has certain basic assumptions about other people’s attitude toward work and organization.’ ?
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Frederick Herzberg
(C) Chris Argyris
(D) Douglas McGregor
Ans : (D)
5. Which of the following has been termed as the biological parent of Public Administration ?
(A) Sociology
(B) Political Science
(C) Business Administration
(D) Psychology
Ans : (B)
6. The central theme of Comparative Public Administration is—
(A) Administrative structure
(B) Bureaucracy
(C) Citizen-Administration Relations
(D) Leadership
Ans : (B)
7. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Theme)
(a) Job Enrichment
(b) Mechanical Study of the Process
(c) Human Dimensions
(d) Social Equity Attitude
List-II (Thinker)
1. D. Waldo
2. W. F. Willoughby
3. F. Herzberg
4. Herbert Simon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (A)
8. The most preferred perspective to distinguish public and private in administration is—
(A) Agency
(B) Interest
(C) Access
(D) Commitment
Ans : (B)
9. “Lack of courage to delegate properly and of knowledge how to do it is one of the most general causes of failure in organization.” Who said it ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Lyndall Urwick
(C) Paul H. Appleby
(D) Dwight Waldo
Ans : (A)
10. Who was the Chairman of the Comparative Administration Group 1963 ?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Robert Dahl
(C) Fred Riggs
(D) Franc Marini
Ans : (C)
11. Politicisation of bureaucracy means—
(A) Responding to the will of the government of every complexion
(B) Sacrificing professional norms for party consideration
(C) Supporting party ideology
(D) Attending party assemblies
Ans : (B)
12. “In the past the man was first. In the future the system will be the first.” Who said it ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) Peter Drucker
(C) Marshall Dimock
(D) Leonard White
Ans : (B)
13. Rensis Likert’s System I is characterised by—
(A) Supportive Leadership
(B) Low Motivation
(C) Self Regulation
(D) Openness
Ans : (B)
14. The basic premise of New Public Management is—
(A) Governments as the primary agent of all social action
(B) Large governmental bureaucracies
(C) More flexible and open governments
(D) Paternal governments
Ans : (C)
15. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Direct Authority
(b) Delegated Authority
(c) Functional Authority
(d) Personal Authority
List-II
1. Seniority
2. Unbroken line between Issuer and Acceptor
3. An Intermediate Agency between Issuer and Acceptor
4. Intrinsic by special knowledge
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 3 2 4
Ans : (C)
16. According to Mary Parker Follett, the principles of effective coordination are—
(a) Intellectual Ability
(b) Continuity
(c) Reciprocity
(d) Mutual Consultation
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)
17. Dwight Waldo in his book ‘The Administrative State’ has attacked—
(a) Notion of Unchanging Principles of Administration
(b) Human Emotions in Organization
(c) Narrowness of Values of Economy and Efficiency
(d) Inconsistencies in Methodology used in determining the principles
Codes :
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (c)
Ans : (C)
18. Human Relations Theory believed that the people are—
(A) Economic Men
(B) Homogeneous
(C) Heterogeneous
(D) Atomistic
Ans : (C)
19. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Substantive Coordination
(b) Internal Coordination
(c) Horizontal Coordination
(d) Procedural Coordination
List-II
1. Between Units in the same level
2. Between different units within the organisation
3. Generalised description of the behaviour and relationship of the members of the organization
4. Content of the organization’s activities
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (A)
20. The linking process for interaction under systems approach does not include—
(A) Communication
(B) Delegation
(C) Balance
(D) Decision Making
Ans : (B)
21. “Work division is the foundation of organization, indeed, the reason for organization.” Who said it ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) Mary Parker Follett
Ans : (C)
22. The semantic barrier to communication is not—
(A) Environment
(B) Distracting Noise
(C) Distance
(D) Poor Listening Habits
Ans : (C)
23. The Bills which can be introduced but cannot be considered without the prior recommendation of the President is—
(A) Money Bills under Article 110
(B) Financial Bills not consisting solely of matters specified in Article 110
(C) Ordinary Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund
(D) Bills affecting taxes in which States are interested
Ans : (C)
24. New Public Administration shares this feature with Development Administration—
(A) Effective coordination
(B) Change orientation
(C) Temporal Dimension
(D) Ecological Perspective
Ans : (B)
25. “As long as the study of Public Administration is not comparative, claims for a science of Public Administration is rather hollow.” Who said it ?
(A) Fred Riggs
(B) Max Weber
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) Ferrel Heady
Ans : (C)
26. In Britain the ‘Priestly formula’ relates to—
(A) Recruitment
(B) Promotion
(C) Pay
(D) Disciplinary Action
Ans : (B)
27. Whitley Council in UK is not a forum for—
(A) Discussion and Negotiation
(B) Ventilation of Grievances
(C) Settlement of Disputes on Service Conditions
(D) Settlement of Individual cases relating to Promotion & Disciplinary Action
Ans : (D)
28. “Neutral bureaucracy can be found only in a secular political culture.” Who said it ?
(A) M. E. Dimock
(B) Glenn Stahl
(C) G. A. Almond
(D) Max Weber
Ans : (C)
29. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Concept)
(a) Monte Carlo
(b) Gambler
(c) Synetics
(d) Contract
List-II (Meaning)
1. Generation of Alternative Solutions
2. Narrow Form of Simulation
3. Formal Basis of Authority
4. To take Greater Risk
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (C)
30. The most effective means of citizens’ control over administration is—
(A) Elections
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)
31. The U.S. President’s principal staff agency in fiscal, legislative and administrative management is—
(A) Bureau of the Budget
(B) The Office of Management and Budget
(C) Department of the Treasury
(D) White House Office
Ans : (B)
32. Which of the following is not a feature of U.S. personnel system ?
(A) Competitive Service
(B) Lateral Entry
(C) Post-entry Training
(D) Rule of Three
Ans : (B)
33. Grants from Centre to the States are regulated by the following Articles of the Constitution—
(A) 268, 269, 270, 272
(B) 270, 271, 274
(C) 273, 275, 282
(D) 275, 282, 287
Ans : (A)
34. The expectancy theory of motivation depends upon the employee’s perception of the relationship between—
(A) Need, Performance and Achievement
(B) Effort, Performance and Reward
(C) Desire, Performance and Response
(D) Preference, Performance and Action
Ans : (B)
35. Who referred the interaction between politicians and administrators as ‘administrative politics’ ?
(A) Michael Murray
(B) Michael Crozier
(C) David Rosenblom
(D) Peter Self
Ans : (D)
36. The techniques applied in performance appraisal in U.S.A. are—
(a) Rating Scale
(b) Critical Incidents
(c) Forced choice
(d) Forced Distribution
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)
37. The political rights granted to the Civil Servants in France are—
(a) Right to become member of a political party
(b) Right to participate in political activities
(c) Right to criticise government’s policies
(d) Right to contest elections to any representative office
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)
38. The functions performed by the then Secretary to the Governor-General before Independence are now performed by—
(A) Chief Secretary
(B) Cabinet Secretariat
(C) Prime Minister’s Office
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans : (C)
39. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Economic Man
(b) Decision Tree
(c) Link Pin Concept
(d) Simulation
List-II
1. Trial and Error Approach to Complex Problems
2. Subordinate becomes a Member of the Superior’s Decision Unit
3. Optimum Decision
4. Graphic Method to see Alternative Solutions
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (A)
40. In USA the authority to regulate the formation and dissolution of Federal Departments is vested in—
(A) President
(B) Congress
(C) Constitution
(D) President in consultation with the Secretary of State
Ans : (B)
41. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Zone of Acceptance
(b) Zone of Indifference
(c) Span of Attention
(d) Scalar chain
List-II
1. Graicunas
2. Henri Fayol
3. Herbert Simon
4. Chester Barnard
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (B)
42. Which of the following, according to Bruce Stone, is not a ‘Bottom-Up’ concept of accountability ?
(A) Parliamentary control
(B) Judicial and Quasi-Judicial Review
(C) Constituency Relationship
(D) Market
Ans : (B)
43. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Civil Service Commission
(b) Recruitment by Promotion
(c) Open Competition
(d) Centralised Recruitment
List-II
1. 1917
2. 1926
3. 1919
4. 1833
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (B)
44. The concept of Citizens’ Charter as a means to greater accountability and openness was first introduced in 1991 in—
(A) USA
(B) U.K.
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (B)
45. Which of the following is not an informal training type ?
(A) Training by Communication
(B) Conference Method
(C) Departmental Training
(D) Syndicate Method
Ans : (D)
46. A grant for meeting an unexpected demand is called—
(A) Supplementary Grant
(B) Votes on Account
(C) Votes on Credit
(D) Exceptional Grant
Ans : (D)
47. “Budget is a document which is unstitched and reassembled by the Appropriation Committees of both the Houses.” This statement of Aaron Wildrasky applies to the budget of—
(A) United States of America
(B) United Kingdom
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (A)
48. The best check on bureaucratic power, according to Weber, lies with—
(A) Powerful Private Groups
(B) Strong Bureaucratic leadership
(C) Strong Parliament
(D) Superior Technical Knowledge of the Chief Executive
Ans : (D)
49. ‘If a society is not at all differentiated, if there are no specialists, if everyone can do everything.’ Riggs calls it a—
(A) Society
(B) Prismatic Society
(C) Diffracted Society
(D) Transitional Society
Ans : (B)
50. Which one is not correctly matched ?
(A) Compromiser—poor decision maker
(B) Executive—good motivator
(C) Bureaucrat—control of situation by rules
(D) Developer—interest in harmony, avoids conflicts
Ans : (B)
51. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Books)
(a) The New Science of Management decision
(b) Organization and Innovation
(c) The Achieving Society
(d) Eupsychian Management
List-II (Author)
1. David McClelland
2. Abraham Maslow
3. Chris Argyris
4. Herbert Simon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (C)
52. ‘The bureaucracy is a circle, which no one can escape, its hierarchy is a hierarchy of knowledge.’ Who said it ?
(A) Max Weber
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Blau and Scott
(D) T. Parsons
Ans : (B)
53. Which of the following is an area of Planning Commission ?
(A) Review of the Union and State Finances
(B) Maintaining Macro-economic Stability
(C) Public and Foreign Loans
(D) Suggesting Ways and Means to Restructure Public Finance
Ans : (A)
54. The advantages of a departmental undertaking are—
(a) Optimum Utilisation of Financial Resources
(b) Operational Flexibility
(c) High Degree of Accountability
(d) Autonomy in working
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (B)
55. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Endo-prismatic
(b) Exo-prismatic
(c) Ortho prismatic
(d) Diffracted
List-II
1. Semi differentiated and malintegrated
2. Congruence of aspiration and reality
3. Impetus from outside
4. Internally generated movement towards diffraction
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (B)
56. The authority which can make rules for the transaction of the business of the Government of India is—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans : (A)
57. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Concept)
(a) Knowledge Worker
(b) Domination by Organization personality
(c) Action-centred Leadership Theory
(d) Organization as Bureaucracy
List-II (Thinkers)
1. John Adair
2. Max Weber
3. Chester Barnard
4. Peter Drucker
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (C)
58. ‘No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund except under appropriation made by law.’ This has been provided in—
(A) Article 110
(B) Article 112
(C) Article 113
(D) Article 114
Ans : (D)
59. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) All India Services
(b) Classification of Civil Services
(c) Regulation of Recruitment and Conditions of Service
(d) General Policies Regarding all Central Services
List-II
1. Parliamentary Act
2. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
3. Article 312
4. Civil Service Rules 1930
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (B)
60. “Increasing efficiency must begin with those higher ups. This is the essence of scientific management.” Who said it ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Louis Brandis
(C) Frederick Taylor
(D) Harrington Emerson
Ans : (D)
61. The conditions necessary to ensure that neutrality does not lead to a state of inertia and status-quo maintenance are—
(a) cultural or class congruence between Ruling group and Administrative elite
(b) absence of fundamental disagreement over social core values
(c) active participation in political process
(d) a shared belief system’s presence
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)
Ans : (D)
62. Rigg’s concept of development considers penetration as a factor of integration. Consider the following—
(a) The ability of the government to make and carry out decisions.
(b) People’s receptivity to law
(c) People’s will to participate
(d) People’s ability to participate
Which of the above is correct regarding penetration ?
Codes :
(A) (a)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (c)
(D) (c) and (d)
Ans : (A)
63. Who recommended that the National Development Council should be given a constitutional status under Article 263 and renamed as National Economic and Development Council ?
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) P. J. Rajamannar Committee
(D) Chief Secretary’s Conference
Ans : (B)
64. What falls within the purview of consultation of Union Public Service Commission ?
(a) Direct Appointment
(b) Promotion and Transfer
(c) Pay and Service Conditions
(d) Classification and Training
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (A)
65. In a State the Chief Secretary acts as—
(a) Principal Adviser to the Governor
(b) Coordinating link in inter-State Disputes
(c) Secretary to the Chief Minister
(d) Chairman of all Planning and Development Coordination Committees
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (B)
66. Which of the following provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor of two or more States ?
(A) Article 153
(B) Article 155
(C) 7th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 11th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (C)
67. Audit of State Government Accounts is a—
(A) State Subject
(B) Union Subject
(C) Subject on Concurrent List
(D) Subject of Fiscal Policy
Ans : (B)
68. The body that examines the expenditure of the Departments and questions the propriety of these expenditures is—
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Estimate Committee
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Committee on Assurances
Ans : (C)
69. Reappropriation is permissible only—
(A) Between voted and charged items of expenditure
(B) Between different grants voted by the Lok Sabha
(C) Within the same grant only
(D) To meet any expenditure not already sanctioned by the Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)
70. It is a comprehensive account of the receipts and expenditure of the Government under various heads and sub-heads of the Budget—
(A) The Appropriation Account
(B) The Finance Account
(C) Economic Classification of the Budget
(D) Functional Classification of the Budget
Ans : (B)
71. Which of the following statements are true about Lokayukta in Rajasthan ?
(a) He is appointed by the Governor and is responsible to the legislature.
(b) His jurisdiction spans over Ministers, Members of State Legislature and higher Civil Servants.
(c) He considers the cases of corruption and mal administration.
(d) His job is confined to investigate allegations and not grievances.
Codes :
(A) (a) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a) and (c)
Ans : (D)
72. Among the critical dimensions of the leadership situation the most important dimension, according to Fiedler, is—
(A) Position Power
(B) Task Structure
(C) Leader-Member Relations
(D) Least Preferred Co-worker
Ans : (D)
73. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Citizen’s Charter
(b) Right to Information
(c) Judicial Control
(d) Legislative Control
List-II
1. Total Quality Approach
2. Accountability for Decision
3. Transparency
4. Guarantee against Arbitrariness
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (D)
74. Which one of the following is not a function of the Directorate ?
(A) Formulation of the Budget of the Department
(B) Inspection of the execution of work by Field Officers
(C) Rendering technical advice to the Minister/Secretary
(D) Coordination of interdepartmental functions
Ans : (A)
75. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Injunction—Strong arm of equity
(B) Quo Warranto—Prevents illegal assumption of Public Office
(C) Prohibition—Issued against administrative authorities
(D) Habeas Corpus—The bulwark of individual liberty.
Ans : (C)
76. The recommendation to the Union Government for the grant of financial assistance to the States is made by—
(a) The President
(b) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(c) The Finance Commission
(d) The Planning Commission
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)
77. “It transforms the representative democracy into participatory democracy.” This statement has a reference to—
(A) Parliamentary System of the Government
(B) Article 40 of the Constitution
(C) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
(D) 74th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (C)
78. Which of the following is not a corporation form ?
(A) Unit Trust of India
(B) Indian Oil Corporation
(C) Food Corporation of India
(D) State Bank of India
Ans : (B)
79. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Development Council ?
(a) It symbolises a federal approach to planning.
(b) It was set up by a proposal of the Cabinet Secretariat in August 1952.
(c) It was reconstituted in 1968 on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission.
(d) The initiative to convene its meeting lies with the Planning Commission.
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)
80. For which form of Public Enterprise it is said that “It is a child of the State which grows into maturity as soon as it is born” ?
(A) Departmental Form
(B) Company Form
(C) Corporation Form
(D) Commission Form
Ans : (C)
81. Voluntary provisions of 73rd Constitutional Amendment include—
(A) Three Tier Panchayati Raj Institutions
(B) Reservation for Backward Classes
(C) Reservation for Women up to 1/3 seats
(D) Five Year term for PRIs
Ans : (B)
82. Which of the following is the Central Personnel Agency in India ?
(A) Union Public Service Commission
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Department of Personnel and Training
(D) Staff Selection Board
Ans : (C)
83. An urban body in the modern sense was first established in the year—
(A) 1660
(B) 1687
(C) 1951
(D) 1992
Ans : (B)
84. It is not created by an act of State or Union Legislature—
(A) Municipal Corporation
(B) Notified Area Committee
(C) Town Area Committee
(D) Cantonment Board
Ans : (B)
85. The Central Council of Local Government—
(a) is an advisory body.
(b) is constituted under Article 263
(c) Consists of Union Minister for Urban Development and State Ministers for Local Self Government
(d) Controls the Central financial assistance to local bodies
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)
86. The Powers, Authority and Responsibilities of Panchayats in India are mentioned in the Article—
(A) 243 B
(B) 243 D
(C) 243 G
(D) 243 W
Ans : (C)
87. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Miniature District
(b) King-pin of Revenue Administration
(c) Unit for Revenue and Criminal Administration
(d) First Line Supervisor in the chain of Revenue Administration
List-II
1. Sub Division
2. Kanungo
3. Tehsil
4. Patwari
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (D)
88. Gram Sabha has been called “Embodiment of Direct Democracy” by—
(A) Balwantray Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) G. V. K. Rao Committee
(D) L. M. Singhvi Committee
Ans : (D)
89. The transitional area, smaller urban area, larger urban area are differentiated on the basis of—
(a) population and its density
(b) level of per capita income
(c) revenue generated for local administration
(d) percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)
90. With the advent of development administration, the Collector has emerged as—
(A) Symbol of State Power
(B) Head of General Administration
(C) Coordinator of Development Programmes
(D) Executive Head of Development Programmes
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 91–100) The following consist of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these questions using the codes given below—
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
91. Assertion (A) : The study of Public Administration lacks cross cultural concepts and principles for being able to be recognised as science.
Reason (R) : Administrative culture cannot transcend the national frontiers and national experiences.
Ans : (C)
92. Assertion (A) : The Contingency approach and the Transactional approach, both are mutually complementary and quite interrelated.
Reason (R) : Unlike the Contingency models, which concentrate only on the problems confronting the leader in dealing with a small group, Transactional approaches also analyse the leader’s subordinates and the problems confronting them.
Ans : (B)
93. Assertion (A) : Like any social science, Public Administration has its own corpus of methodologies.
Reason (R) : Public Administrationists are aware that the central methodologies of the ‘mother discipline’ usually are irrelevant of practising Public Administration.
Ans : (A)
94. Assertion (A) : The Human Relations Theory focuses on management as a web of interpersonal relations.
Reason (R) : Richard Franke and James Kaul concluded that the human relations were not the reason behind worker’s efficiency.
Ans : (C)
95. Assertion (A) : The Government has no power to regulate, through an appropriate legislation, the recruitment to civil services.
Reason (R) : The Constitution provides for the establishment of an impartial and independent Union Public Service Commission for recruiting civil servants in India.
Ans : (D)
96. Assertion (A) : In the open model, what is good for the individual is also good for the society.
Reason (R) : Open model of organization, like the closed model, is an ideal type.
Ans : (B)
97. Assertion (A) : Individuals and organizations over invest in information.
Reason (R) : Information intensive decisions have a greater organizational acceptance and smoother implementation.
Ans : (A)
98. Assertion (A) : The first principle of democratic governance is that the rulers should be accountable to the people.
Reason (R) : Transparency and accountability in governance depend on citizens easy access to reliable information and data.
Ans : (B)
99. Assertion (A) : The ‘disadvantaged’ states perceive that they have been punished for the better performance, whereas the ‘laggard’ states continue to be rewarded.
Reason (R) : The Finance Commission has the constitutional responsibility to provide succour to the underdeveloped States.
Ans : (B)
100. Assertion (A) : The bureaucracy and the political leadership can achieve the goals by working closely and harmoniously.
Reason (R) : If political leadership represents the input functions of a political system, the output function is performed by the administration.
Ans : (A)
Why India Needs This Pact ?(ASEAN RELATED)
Why India Needs This Pact ? - China has already signed a pact with ASEAN and this has dramatically increased the exports of China.
- Since India's trade agreements with European Union will take a long time, to boost her exports India needs to sign this kind of bilateral agreements.
- ASEAN has 600 million people and its GDP is about the same as India's ( India is a $1.1 trillion Economy), so the FTA will open up a substantial market, not far from home, for Indian exporters.
- ASEAN is also a critical component in the country's "Look East" policy, and there is already a regrettable history of failure to meet past FTA signing deadlines.
- China is already active in the ,market and we can't afford any economically set back by not signing this agreement.
- The FTA is said to have the potential to multiply bilateral trade between India and ASEAN. India has several compulsions under its ‘Look East’ policy to be in good terms with its southeastern neighbours which are close to China.
- In 2008, bilateral trade between China and ASEAN totalled US$231.1 billion, up 14 percent from 2007.
Background of India-ASEAN Free Trade Agreement
What is Background of India-ASEAN Free Trade Agreement?
- The Indo-Asean Free trade pact will be signed this December at the India-Asean summit at Bangkok, which is expected to be attended by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.
- This agreement will require India to lower and abolish duties on 85 percent of its imports from the region between 2010 and 2019.
- Initial bilateral framework of this agreement was signed in Bali on 8 October 2003, and the pact was supposed to be finalised by 30 June 2005. Negotiations on services would start in 2005 and end in 2007.
- However there were a lot of impediments over a period of five years, India and the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) have finally negotiated a bilateral free trade agreement — with plenty of difficulty.
- The negotiations came to a halt in June 2006 when India released its ’negative list’ of items to be excluded from tariff reductions — with 900 products, both industrial and agricultural, figuring on the list. India had initially given the negative list of 1410 items which was reduced in 2006 to 900 items.
- India’s agriculture ministry, in particular, was arguing hard to exclude commodities like rubber, pepper, tea, coffee and palm oil from the deal. Rules of origin have been the other thorny issue.
- In August 2006, Delhi issued a revised list, the number of the negative list items was cut down to 560 items.
- By early 2007, in the midst of the new bio fuels boom, palm oil became a central blockage point as Indonesia and Malaysia, both top palm oil exporters, struggled to get India to lower its tariffs.
- On 28 August 2008, a deal was finally concluded. The agreement is supposed to be signed in 2009.
AFTA
What is ASEAN Free Trade Area?
- ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) is a trade bloc agreement by the ASEAN supporting local manufacturing in all ASEAN countries.
- The AFTA agreement was signed on 28 January 1992 in Singapore.
- When the AFTA agreement was originally signed, ASEAN had six members, namely, Brunei, Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.
- Vietnam joined in 1995, Laos and Myanmar in 1997 and Cambodia in 1999.
- AFTA now comprises the ten countries of ASEAN.
- All the four latecomers were required to sign the AFTA agreement in order to join ASEAN, however they were were given longer time frames in which to meet AFTA's tariff reduction obligations.
Asean
What is ASEAN?
Association of Southeast Asian Nations is a geo-political and economic organization of 10 countries located in Southeast Asia, which was formed on 8 August 1967 by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore and Thailand. Membership has expanded since then to include Brunei, Burma (Myanmar), Cambodia, Laos, and Vietnam. So there are 10 economies in ASEAN.
Association of Southeast Asian Nations is a geo-political and economic organization of 10 countries located in Southeast Asia, which was formed on 8 August 1967 by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore and Thailand. Membership has expanded since then to include Brunei, Burma (Myanmar), Cambodia, Laos, and Vietnam. So there are 10 economies in ASEAN.
Aims of ASEAN:
- Acceleration of economic growth,
- Social progress,
- Cultural development among its members,
- The protection of the peace and stability of the region,
- To provide opportunities for member countries to discuss differences peacefully.
Central Government Jobs
Central Government Jobs | |
| India Meteorological Department, New Delhi | |
| Sardar Swaran Singh National Institute of Renewable Energy (SSSNIRE), Kapurthala | |
| Ministry of New and Renewable Energy | |
| Central Council for Research in Unani Medicine, New Delhi | |
| India Government Mint, Noida | |
| Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia Hospital, New Delhi | |
| G.B. Pant Institute of Himalayan Environment & Development, Mohal-Kulu, HP | |
| Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research, Bangalore | |
| National Building Construction Corporation Ltd | |
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| Institute Of Human Behaviour & Allied Sciences, New Delhi | |
| National Institute of Open Schooling, Delhi | |
| Attar Sain Jain Eye & General Hospital, Delhi | |
| The National Academy Of Sciences India (NASI) | |
| University of Mysore | |
| Sanjay Gandhi Post Graduate Institute of Medical Sciences, Lucknow | |
| Central Institute of Tool Design, Hyderabad | |
| Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata | |
| Airline Allied Services Ltd | |
| National Mineral Development Corporation Limited (NDMC) | |
| HSCC(India)Limited | |
| Oriental Bank of Commerce | |
| Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited | |
| Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, Bangalore | |
| BEML Limited | |
| Bharat Electronics limited | |
| Bharat Electronics limited | |
| Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited | |
| Indian Oil | |
| Central University of Jharkhand | |
| Stock Holding Corporation of India | |
| National Institute for Interdisciplinary Science and Technology | |
| Central Coalfields Limited | |
| National Chemical Laboratory | |
| Rashtriya Chemicals & Fertilizers Limited | |
| Indian Institute of Management Calcutta | |
| Export-Import Bank of India | |
| National Centre for Biological Sciences, Bangalore | |
| National University of Study & Research in Law, Ranchi | |
| Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga, New Delhi | |
| Guru Teg Bahadur Hospital, Delhi | |
| Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited | |
| S.N. Bose National Centre For Basic Science | |
| S.N. Bose National Centre For Basic Science | |
| The Indian Navy | |
| Aeronautical Development Agency, Bangalore | |
| National Institute of Technical Teachers Training & Research, Bhopal | |
| National Insurance Academy, Pune | |
| National Institute of Bank Management, Pune | |
| Central Bank of India | |
| UNICEF | |
| UNDP | |
| Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) | |
| Uranium Corporation of India | |
| Biecco Lawrie Limited | |
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| Ministry of Rural Development Department of Drinking Water & Sanitation | |
| National Centre for Antarctic &Ocean Research | |
| Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission, New Delhi | |
| Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi | |
| Department of Biotechnology, Ministry Of Science &Technology | |
| Central Council for Research in Ayurveda & Siddha | |
| Central Adoption Resource Authority, New Delhi | |
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| Konkan Railway Corporation Limited | |
| The Indian Navy | |
| Ministry of Human Resource Development | |
| Wadia Institute of Himalayan Geology, Dehradun | |
| Ministry of Ministry of Law & Justice | |
| Ministry of Health and Family Welfare | |
| | |
| Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur | |
| Indian Maritime University | |
| Neyveli Lignite Corporation Ltd. | |
| Maulana Azad Institute of Dental Sciences, New Delhi | |
| Army College of Medical Sciences, Delhi | |
| The Fertilisers and Chemicals Travancore Limited | |
| ICRISAT | |
| | |
| Indira Gandhi National Tribal University, Amarkantak | |
| Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts, New Delhi | |
| The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India, New Delhi | |
| Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal | |
| Dada Dhuniwale Khandwa Power Limited, Jabalpur | |
| National Institute of Technology, Silchar | |
| University College of Medical Sciences, New Delhi | |
| Delhi Transco Limited, New Delhi | |
| The BBJ Construction Company Limited | |
| National Institute of Pharmaceutical Educational and Research | |
| Damodar valley Corporation, Kolkata | |
| The Indian Navy | |
| Employees' State Insurance Corporation, Gujarat | |
| Central Reserve Police Force | |
| Central Reserve Police Force | |
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| Union Public Service Commission | |
| All India Institute of Speech & Hearing, Mysore | |
| All India Institute of Speech & Hearing, Mysore | |
| DOEACC Centre, Aurangabad | |
| Shaheed Sukhdev College of Business Studies, New Delhi | |
| Central Adopt Resource Authority, New Delhi | |
| Office of the Director General of Prison, New Delhi | |
| Ex-Servicemen Contributory Health Scheme, Srinagar | |
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| National Atmospheric Research Laboratory (NARL), Tirupati | |
| National Institute of Virology, Pune | |
| National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources, New Delhi | |
| National Centre for Antarctic & Ocean Research, Goa | |
| Ministry of Human Resource Development, New Delhi | |
| Ministry of Science & Technology, New Delhi | |
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| Central Agricultural University, Imphal | |
| Tripura University | |
| Jamia Millia Islamia | |
| Indian Institute of Technology Bombay | |
| NHDC Limited | |
| Air India Air Transport Services Limited, Mumbai | |
| Air India Air Transport Services Limited, Ahmedabad | |
| National Institute of Design, Ahmedabad | |
| National Seeds Corporation Limited | |
| United States-India Educational Foundation | |
| Energy Efficiency Services Limited | |
| Translational Health Science and Technology Institute, Gurgaon | |
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