General Studies Paper – I
1. Answer any three of the following in about 250 words each: 20x3=60
(a) ‘Essentially
all that is contained in part IV- A of the Constitution is just a
codification of tasks integral to Indian way of life.’ Critically
examine the statement.
Answer:
Article 51A of the
part IV-A of the Indian Constitution lists the fundamental duties of the
citizens which were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd
Amendment Act. Fundamental duties are restrictions on the citizens, but
they are not enforceable in a court of law. They act more like a
lighthouse to guide citizens’ conduct and bring it in conformity with
the Indian way of life. They include abiding the constitution and
respecting its ideals and institutions such as the National Flag and the
National Anthem. Fundamental Duties also include cherishing and
following the noble ideals that inspired our freedom struggle, upholding
the sovereignty and integrity of the nation, rendering national
services, promoting harmony and brotherhood, renouncing practices
derogatory to the dignity of women, safeguarding public property,
developing scientific temper etc.
Incidents like destruction of
public property by violent mobs and protestors, delivering of hate
speeches to cause disharmony and rift among communities, mounting
corruption, declining child sex ratio, reports of practices like sati
which still is continuing in some parts of the country point towards the
fact that the republic has not succeeded completely in instilling the
values contained in part IV-A, in the hearts and minds of the Indian
citizens.
These values should be taught from the early childhood
through a free, fair, secular, and non-discriminatory education system.
The society also needs role models from all walks of life such as
politics, business, administration, judiciary, academia etc. so that
national identity becomes paramount and the values are most cherished.
(b) ‘The
exercise of executive clemency is not a privilege but is based on
several principles, and discretion has to be exercised in public
consideration.’ Analyse this statement in the context of judicial powers
of the President of India.
Answer:
Article 72 of
the Indian Constitution empowers the president to pardon, remit,
commute, respite and reprieves a person of any offence. Supreme Court
has held that pardoning power of the President is subject to judicial
review and it should not be handled dishonestly in the public interest.
The
question of executive clemency has come into focus due to the recent
decision of the President’s rejecting the mercy plea of those, convicted
in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case and Tamil Nadu assembly’s
passage of a resolution over it. The Afzal Guru case has also not yet
been resolved which also is giving political colour to the whole issue.
Supreme
Court in its 1989 judgement laid down several principles or ‘do’s’ and
‘don’ts’ with respect to the executive clemency. The apex court observed
that the delay in making a decision on the death penalty leads to
adverse psychological impact on the convicted and it amounts to the
court’s inhuman and brutal treatment. Thus inordinate delay can form the
basis for clemency. It also observed that the nature of crime needs to
be taken into consideration before granting executive clemency. The
conduct of the convicted cannot form the basis for granting clemency and
the time calculated should be from the date the final verdict was given
on the case if it needs to form the ground for clemency.
Constitution
should be amended to provide the time limits within which mercy
petition are to be decided. Importantly, the political parties should
restrain from politicising the power of the President which is supposed
to be used in the public consideration.
(c) Discuss the extent, causes, and implications of ‘nutrition transition’ said to be underway in India.
Answer:
Nutrition
Transition can be referred to as the increased consumption of unhealthy
foods compounded with increased prevalence of overweight in
middle-to-low-income countries. It has serious implications in terms of
public health outcomes, risk factors, economic growth and international
nutrition policy.
Extent: As developing societies
like India industrialise and urbanise, and as standards of living
continue to rise, weight gain and obesity are beginning to pose a
growing threat to the health of the citizens. Repeated episodes of
malnutrition, followed by nutritional rehabilitation, are known to alter
body composition and increase the risk of obesity. Food balance data
from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) show that the change in
energy intake in Asian countries has been small, but there have been
large changes in consumption of animal products, sugars and fats in
countries like India. There is a progressive increase in the intake of
protein, and probably fats. The increase in the intake of protein and
fats is due to the phenomenal increase in the consumption of milk and
milk products and an increase in the intake of animal products. On the
other hand consumption of pulses and legumes has fallen drastically in
India.
Causes: In India, the demographic and
epidemiological transition, the forces of internal migration and
urbanisation, the changes in food consumption patterns and low physical
activity patterns to an epidemic of obesity and other NCDs
(Non-communicable Diseases). There is also a decrease in the energy
expenditure in occupational activities, increased urbanisation,
universal use of motor cars, mechanisation of most manual jobs outside
the occupational sphere and increasing leisure time have aggravated this
trend in India.
Implications: There is a large
increase in the non-communicable diseases (NCDs) in the developing
countries specially the countries under transition like India.
Approximately 40% of the deaths in the developing countries take place
due to NCDs.
(d) Bring out the salient features of the PCPNDT Act, 1994, and the implication of its amendment in 2003.
Answer:
Pre
Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Technique Act, 1994 was enacted to
arrest the declining sex ration. It is a subject of discussion now
because; an all-time low child sex ratio of 914 was reported in the 2011
provisional census data.
The main purpose of enacting the act is
to ban the use of sex selection techniques before or after conception
and prevent the misuse of prenatal diagnostic technique for sex
selective absorption.
Offences under this act include conducting
or helping in the conduct of prenatal diagnostic technique in the
unregistered units, sex selection on a man or woman, conducting PND test
for any purpose other than the one mentioned in the act, sale,
distribution, supply, renting etc. of any ultra sound machine or any
other equipment capable of detecting sex of the foetus.
The act was amended in 2003 to improve the regulation of the technology used in sex selection.
Implications of PCPNDT Act, 1994 amendment:
1. Amendment of the act mainly covered bringing the technique of pre conception sex selection within the ambit of the act
2. Bringing ultrasound within its ambit
3. Empowering the central supervisory board, constitution of state level supervisory board
4. Provision for more stringent punishments
5. Empowering
appropriate authorities with the power of civil court for search,
seizure and sealing the machines and equipments of the violators
6. Regulating the sale of the ultrasound machines only to registered bodies
2. Answer one of the following in about 250 words: 20x1=20
(a) Trace
the salient sequences of events in popular revolt that took place in
February 1946 in the then Royal Indian Navy and bring out its
significance in the freedom struggle. Do you agree with the views that
the sailors who took part in this revolt were some of the unsung heroes
of the freedom struggle?
Answer:
Royal Indian Navy
revolt of February 1946 took place in the background of Quit India
Movement and Second World War. This was a very turbulent phase in
India’s freedom struggle. The popular revolt shook the very foundation
of British Raj and made it abundantly clear that their time in India was
numbered.
In November 1945 some students from Forward Block,
Students Federation of India and Islamia College participated in a
protest march over the INA trials. They tied together League, Congress
and red flag, as a symbol of anti imperialist unity.
In February
1946, Muslim League students took a protest march in which some Congress
students also participated against the seven year sentence to INA
prisoner Rashid Ali.
In February 1946, naval ratings of HMIS
Talwar went on strike to protest against racial discrimination,
unpalatable food, INA trials, and abuse by superior officers. This was
followed by city people joining in through mass strikes, hartals,
meetings, attacks on police stations, railway station etc. Other parts
of the country also expressed support in the form of strikes by Royal
Indian Forces in Calcutta, Puna and Bombay.
The upsurge showed
that the fearless action by the masses, revolt in armed forces had
psychological affect on masses and it also prompted British to extend
some concessions but above all it marked the end of British rule in
India.
Sailors who took part in the struggle were the unsung
heroes as they did not get the level of publicity as that of the INA
trials and in the pages of history; they remain anonymous and unknown.
(b) Evaluate
the influence of three important women’s organisations of the early
twentieth century in India on country’s society and politics. To what
extent do you think were the social objectives of these organisations
constrained by their political objectives?
Answer:
Bharat
Stree Mahamandal, All India Women’s Conference and Women’s India
Association were some of the important women’s associations of the early
twentieth century. Bharat Stree Mahamandal was the first women's
organisation in India founded by Sarala Devi Chaudhurani in Allahabad in
1910. One of the primary goals of the organisation was to promote
female education which was not well developed at that time. The
organisation opened several offices in Lahore, Allahabad, Delhi,
Karachi, Amritsar etc. to improve the condition of women all over India.
All
India Women’s Conference was founded in 1927 by Margret cousins having
Sarojni Naidu, Lady Dorab Tata as its founding members. It worked
towards women’s education, abolition of purdah system, legislative
reform, abolition of child marriage, harijan welfare, family planning,
and rural reconstruction. These women’s organisations worked for a
society based on principles of social justice, integrity, equal rights
and opportunities. They wanted security for every human being; the
essentials of life not determined by accidental births but by planned
social distribution.
Their efforts led to several legislative
reforms in Sharda Act (1929), Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act
(1937), Factory Act (1947), Hindu Marriage and Divorce Act etc. AIWC
efforts also led to setting up of The All India Women’s Education Fund
Association, and Lady Irwin College of Home Science.
Social
and educational reforms effort by the women’s associations helped in
preparing the Indian women to participate in the freedom struggle. With
Mahatma Gandhi women availed an opportunity to get into the scene of
freedom struggle.
3. Answer any one of the following in about 250 words: 20x1=20
(a) Critically examine the design of National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) scheme. Do you think it has a better chance of
success than the Swarna Jayanti Swarojgar Yojna(SGSY) in achieving its objectives?
Answer:
NRLM
is the rechristened version of Swarna Jayanti Swarojgar Yojna (SGSY).
It is a Ministry of Rural Development programme. It aims to reduce
poverty by enabling the poor household to access gainful self employment
and skilled wage employment opportunity resulting in a sustainable
livelihood.
NRLM is based on three pillars
1. Enhancing and expanding the existing livelihood options of the poor
2. Building skills for the job market
3. Nurturing self employed and entrepreneurs
NRLM plans to give special focus on the poorest households who are currently dependent on the MGNREGA. The design of
NRLM
is more likely to succeed because its implementation is in a mission
mode which enables it shift from the present allocation based approach
to demand based approach. This enables the states to formulate their own
livelihood based on poverty reduction action plans. It also focuses on
targets, outcomes, and time bound strategy. The monitoring would be done
against the targets of the poverty outcomes. NRLM will have continuous
capacity building, imparting of requisite skills and creating linkages
with livelihood opportunities for the poor, including those emerging
from the organised sector.
NRLM funds will be directly released
to the state level agencies and DRDA based on the detailed district wise
annual action plan. It will involve the Self Help Group in the
implementation which increases the likelihood of its success. National
Skill Development Council will also coordinate in the skill development
part in the implementation of NRLM. In order to ensure institutional
arrangement for skill development for self employment and wage
employment, dedicated training institute for rural BPL youth i.e Rural
Self Employment Training Institutes (RSETIs) are being set up with the
aim of having at least one such institution in each district in India.
These RSETIs will be set up with the partnership of banks. This will
help in achieving the objectives of NRLM.
(b) Highlight the structure, objectives and role of the Advertising Standard Council of India. In what way has the August 2006
government notification made it more effective?
Answer:
The
Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI), established in 1985, is
committed to the cause of Self-Regulation in Advertising, ensuring the
protection of the interests of consumers. The ASCI was formed with the
support of all four sectors connected with Advertising, viz.
Advertisers, Ad Agencies, Media (including Broadcasters and the Press)
and others like PR Agencies, Market Research Companies etc. Its main
objective is to promote responsible advertising; thus enhancing the
public's confidence in Advertising. ASCI thus aims to achieve its own
overarching goal i.e., to maintain and enhance the public's confidence
in advertising.
The Board of Governors (16 members) ensures
equitable representation of Advertisers, Agencies, Media and other
Advertising Services, the individual member firms being leaders in their
respective industries or services. The Consumer Complaints Council
(CCC) (21 members) has 12 Non-Advertising professionals representing
civil society, who are eminent and recognised opinion leaders in their
respective disciplines such as Medical, Legal, Industrial Design,
Engineering, Chemical Technology, Human Resources and Consumer Interest
Groups; 9 are advertising practitioners from our member firms.
ASCI
is represented in all committees working on advertising content in
every Ministry of the Government of India. ASCI’s Code for
Self-Regulation in Advertising is now part of ad code under Cable TV
Act’s Rules. Violation of ASCI’s Code is now treated as a violation of
the government’s rules. ASCI’s membership of The European Advertising
Standards Alliance (EASA) ensures that it gets valuable advice, learning
and even influence at the international level.
The Consumer
Complaints Council is ASCI's heart and soul. It is the dedicated work
put in by this group of highly respected people that has given
tremendous impetus to the work of ASCI and the movement of
self-regulation in the advertising.
In August 2006, the Ministry
of Information and Broadcasting issued a notification deeming it
necessary for all TV commercials in India to abide by the ASCI code.
This effort of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting has made the
advertising self-regulatory movement in India stronger and more
effective.
4. Comment on any five of the following in about 150 words each. 12x5=60
(a) Salient recommendations of the RBI-appointed Damodaran committee on customer service in Banks.
Answer:
The
Damodaran Committee on bank customer services has recommended active
involvement of the boards of banks to guarantee customer satisfaction.
The committee held that customer service and grievance redress should be
included as a mandatory parameter in the performance appraisal report
of all employees.
The committee has suggested that an agenda on
the level of implementation of the Bank's Code of Commitments to
Customers and an overview on the grievance redress mechanism in the bank
should be placed before the bank every quarter before the Customer
Service Committee.
The committee suggets that every board should
ensure they have comprehensive policies for customer acceptance, care
and severance. The banks should show sensitivity for small customers by
ensuring that the pricing (bank charges) does not act as a deterrent for
the small person to do banking transactions.
Emphasising on
'customer centricity', the committee recommended that bank boards should
evolve human resources policies which should recruit for attitude and
train for skills.
(b) Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS).
Answer:
It
is a scheme by the Central Ministry of Social Justice &
Empowerment. Its funding pattern is up to 90 percent; it is funded by
the Central Ministry. The Grant in Aid is released on the basis of
recommendations received from the State Government, UTs through State
Multi-Disciplinary grant-in-aid committee concerned or any other agency
designated by the Ministry. Beneficiary could be an individual, a
family, a community, women and Children.
The voluntary organisations are assisted in running rehabilitation centres for leprosy cured persons and also for manpower
development
in the field of mental retardation and cerebral palsy. They are also
assisted in establishment and development of special schools for major
disability areas, viz. Orthopaedic, speech, hearing, visual and mental
disability. The NGOs are extended assistance for setting up projects of
vocational training to facilitate the disabled persons to be as
independent as possible by acquiring basic skills. The Ministry, under
the Scheme supports both recurring and non-recurring expenditure of
projects by NGOs up to 90 percent.
(c) Evolution of ‘Green Benches’ in our higher judiciary.
Answer:
The
Supreme Court of India interpreted Article 21 which guarantees the
fundamental right to life and personal liberty, to include the right to a
wholesome environment and held that a litigant may assert his or her
right to a healthy environment against the State by a writ petition to
the Supreme Court or a High Court. Public interest litigation has been
used by the higher judiciary to ensure environment protection and
safeguard public interest.
Till 1980, not much contribution was
made by the courts in preserving the environment. One of the earliest
cases which came to the Supreme Court of India was Municipal Council,
Ratlam, vs Vardhichand AIR 1980 SC 1622. Thereafter, series of cases
were filed before the Supreme Court and there was a dynamic change in
the whole approach of the courts in matters concerning environment.
India
has now become the third country in the world to start a National Green
Tribunal (NGT) which is a judicial body exclusively meant to judge
environmental cases. The National Green Tribunal has been established
under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious
disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation
of forests and other natural resources. The Tribunal is mandated to
make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally
within 6 months of filing of the same. The predecessor to the NGT, the
erstwhile National Environment Appellate Authority has been superseded
by the NGT.
(d) Distinction between ‘Department Related Parliament Standing committees’ and ‘Parliamentary Forum’.
Answer:
Departmental
Standing Committees were created in 1993 to exercise control over the
executive; particularly financial control. There are now 2 such
committees having 31 members each; 21 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the
Rajya Sabha. Members from the Lok Sabha are nominated by the Speaker of
the Lok Sabha, while members from the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the
Rajya Sabha Chairman. A minister cannot be nominated as a member of the
committee. These committees consider the demand for grants of the
concerned ministry. They submit the reports based on which the
discussion on budget takes place.
Parliamentary Forums on the
other hand are ad hoc in nature and are constituted for specific issues
to make the Members of the Parliament aware of the seriousness of the
particular situation and to enable them to adopt a result-oriented
approach towards these issues. The Parliamentary fora do not interfere
in or encroach upon the jurisdiction of the concerned Departmentally
Related Standing Committees or the Ministry/Department concerned.
Members of these fora are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and
the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, as the case may be.
(e) Benefits and potential drawbacks of ‘cash transfers’ to Below Poverty Line Households.
Answer:
Cash
transfer has come into discussion due to the leakages in several
government schemes like the Public Distribution System. It has been
successful in Latin American countries. Cash transfer has some benefits
in terms of better targeting of public subsidy, reducing diversion,
preventing corruption, and eliminating wastages in transportation and
storage of goods like food grains. It also gives flexibility to the
citizens in terms of buying the public goods and services. Cash transfer
is also suitable for migrating population that moves in search of work.
Cash
transfer on the other hand can only succeed if an appropriate IT
infrastructure exits, through which cash can be transferred directly to
the account of the beneficiary which becomes a challenge in the poor
financial inclusion. Cash can be more prone to diversion if proper
safeguards are not taken. Moreover cash transfer can work if the public
delivery system is in place for e.g. how giving cash for health services
will make any difference if there are no hospitals, medicines and
doctors in the villages. Factoring inflation into cash transfer is
always been a challenge.
(f) New initiatives during the 11th Five Year Plan in the National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB).
Answer:
The
Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) endorsed and approved a
budget of INR 12,500 million for the XI five-year (2007-12) plan period.
The enhanced funding and financial allocation to the tune of nearly
two-thirds of the previous plan period is indicative of the high
political commitment accorded to blindness control activities in the
India. With the federal nature of the Indian Constitution, the States
are largely independent in matters relating to health delivery. The
Central Government’s responsibility consists mainly of policy making,
planning, funding, guiding, assisting, evaluating and coordinating the
work of state health ministries so that health services cover every part
of the country and no state lags behind for want of these services. The
NPCB is striving to enhance the capacity of health institutions, health
personnel and the community at all levels to address issues under the
programme. In the approved XI five-year plan period, schemes with
existing/enhanced financial allocation are being implemented along with
new initiatives to reduce blindness.
5. Examine any three of the following in about 150 words each. 12x3=36
(a) The impact of climate change on water resources in India.
Answer:
The
impact of climate change on water resources in India is evident through
erratic monsoon, more frequent floods and droughts, stronger cyclones
and rivers changing their course frequently. The severity is also due to
the prevailing more than 7000km of coastline.
The changed
rainfall pattern has adversely affected ground water recharge, wetlands
both coastal and terrestrial. Climate change has resulted in melting of
Himalayan glaciers. It has the potential of making the Himalayan Rivers
swell first and then turning them into seasonal rivers, threatening the
source of freshwater. It can also lead to salt water intrusion and
threatening aquaculture and coastal agriculture.
The impact has
been severe also because, India is still an agricultural country with
its large population being dependant on weather related livelihood
through agriculture, forestry, pisciculture etc.
(b) Measures taken by the Indian government to combat piracy in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Indian
government has used INS Talwar to foil several bids by pirates near the
Gulf of Aden. Indian government is coordinating the anti piracy
measures at the international level with China, European countries and
with the Gulf countries.
Indian government has placed surveillance
radars in countries like Maldives and Srilanka to secure the sea lanes
in the Indian Ocean. It has signed agreements with Madagascar,
Seychelles and Mauritius for anti piracy measures. Government has also
taken measures in strengthening the coastal security by equipping and
reforming the coast guards. However, incidents like unmanned vessel
drifting in the ocean and reaching the coast of Mumbai have highlighted
the holes in our coastal security which needs to be plugged.
Supreme
Court has recently asked the Central Government to formulate separate
piracy law for trying the pirates and to take care of the compensation
to the victim’s family. Currently piracy is being dealt under the
provisions of Indian Penal Code.
(c) The significance of counter-urbanisation in the improvement of metropolitan cities in India.
Answer:
Counter-urbanisation
is a demographic and social process where people move from large urban
areas or into rural areas, thereby leapfrogging the rural-urban fringe.
It might mean daily commuting, but could also require lifestyle changes
and the increased use of ICT (home working or teleworking). It is the
process of migration of people from major urban areas to smaller urban
settlements and rural areas. Counter-urbanisation affects the layout of
rural settlements. Modern housing estates locate of the edge of small
settlements. Industrial units are sited on main roads leading into the
settlement.
Counter urbanisation will reduce pressure on the
metropolitan cities and its basic amenities like drinking water supply,
sewage facilities, continuous supply of electricity, education
facilities, etc as people move out due to following
(i) Increase
in car ownership enabling their movement, growth in information
technology (E-mail, faxes and video conferencing) meaning more people
can work from home
(ii) Urban areas are becoming increasing
unpleasant place to live. This is the result of pollution, crime and
traffic congestion.
(iii) More people tend to move when they retire.
(iv)
New business parks being developed on the edge of cities (on Greenfield
sites) meaning people no longer have to travel to the city centre.
People now prefer to live on the outskirts of the city to be near where
they work.
(d) Problems specific to the denotified and nomadic tribes in India.
Answer:
Post
Independence the Criminal Tribe Act 1871 was replaced; and criminal
tribe nomenclature was replaced with denotified tribe (DNTs) which is
still considered derogatory. They have been discriminated; British
government included some of the tribes like Gonds, Ho and Santhals under
this categorisation as they had rebelled against the British Raj.
A
major challenge in the intervention comes due dispersed nature of the
tribes and having a nomadic culture surviving on shifting cultivation.
This results in health and educational services a challenging task to
deliver. It also makes the implementation of nutritional initiative like
addressing iodine deficiency a challenging task. Preservation of their
culture, script, practices also get hampered due to the same reason. Two
different opinions arise with regard to the reservation for the DNTs to
raise their social and economic conditions. One view supports providing
reservation within existing group of SCs, STs and OBCs while the other
view supports creating a new group for the reservation of DNTs.
6. In the context of the freedom struggle, write short notes (not exceeding 50 words each) on the following: 5x3=15
(a) 'Benoy-Badal-Dinesh' martyrdom.
Answer:
On
8 December 1930, Benoy along with Dinesh chandra Gupta and Badal Gupta,
dressed in European costume, entered the Writers' Building and shot
dead Simpson, the Inspector General of Prisons, who was infamous for the
brutal oppression on the prisoners. This inspired further revolutionary
activities in Bengal. After Independence Dalhousie square was named
B.B.D Bagh-after Benoy-Badal-Dinesh.
(b) Bharat Naujavan sabha
Answer:
Bharat
Naujavan Sabha was an association of Indian youths which was
established at a convention held in April 1928 at the Jallianwala Bagh
in Amritsar. The aims of the Sabha were to create a youth wing of
peasants and workers with a view to usher in revolution in the country
and overthrow the British rule. Bhagat Singh was its secretary and
principle organiser.
(c) 'Babbar Akali' movement
Answer:
The
Babbar Akali movement, which emerged in the wake of the Akali Movement,
and was an underground terrorist movement established in the Jalandhar
Doab in 1921. Members fought pitched battles with police and committed
acts of violence.
7. Comment on the following in not more than 50 words each: 5x6=30
(a) Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme in India.
Answer:
Phase-IV
of the tiger monitoring programme by by the Wildlife Institute of India
(WII) and the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) means
initiating intensive, annual monitoring of tigers at the tiger reserve
level, across 41 protected areas in India. This programme is to estimate
numbers of both tigers and their prey. This programme is planned to be
commenced from November 2011.
(b) Why the Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of Consumer Price Index from this year?
Answer:
The
Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of CPI with its
base year of 2010 for rural, urban areas and for the nation as a whole.
It will give a comprehensive picture of inflation at the national level
for retail prices. Government also proposes to use it for giving
dearness allowance for government employee in the seventh pay
commission.
(c) Composition and functions of the National Executive Committee of the National Disaster Management Authority.
Answer:
The
National Executive Committee (NEC) of the National Disaster Management
Authority comprises the Union Home Secretary as the Chairperson, and the
Secretaries to the GOI in the Ministries/Departments of Agriculture,
Atomic Energy, Defence, Drinking Water Supply, Environment and Forests,
Finance (Expenditure), Health, Power, Rural Development, Science and
Technology, Space, Telecommunications, Urban Development, Water
Resources and the Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff of the Chiefs of
Staff Committee as members.
(d) The Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 and why it has been in news recently?
Answer:
Bihar
Special Courts Act, 2009 provides that the property of corrupt persons
can be attached even when the probe is under way, if the authorised
officer concludes that the acquisition of the property was the result of
the offence committed by the accused. Bihar implemented it and some
officials came under this Act. Its constitutional validity was
questioned in Supreme Court which refused to stay this act.
(e) The Telecommunications Ministry’s proposed Spectrum Management Commission.
Answer:
Spectrum
Management Commission is a new entity to manage and regulate spectrum
allocation. The Commission will subsume Wireless Planning Coordination
wing of the Department of Telecom and will get wider powers including
dispute settlement, pricing and regulations related to spectrum. While
the DoT will continue to be the licensor, all issues pertaining to
spectrum allocation will be brought under Spectrum Management
Commission.
(f) The Community-Led Total Sanitation (CLTS) approach to sanitation.
Answer:
CLTS
is an innovative methodology for mobilising communities to completely
eliminate open defecation (OD). Communities are facilitated to conduct
their own appraisal and analysis of open defecation (OD) and take their
own action to become ODF (open defecation free). CLTS focuses on the
behavioural change needed to ensure real and sustainable improvements.
It invests in community mobilisation instead of hardware, and shifting
the focus from toilet construction for individual households to the
creation of ’open defecation-free’ villages.
8. Attempt the following in not more than 50 words each. 5x4=20
(a) Distinguish
either between the ‘Moatsu’ and ‘Yemshe’ festivals of Nagaland or the
‘Losar’ and ‘Khan’ festivals of Arunachal Pradesh.
Answer:
Moatsu
Festival is celebrated in Nagaland by the Ao tribe. It is observed
every year in the first week of May. During this Nagaland festival, a
number of rituals are performed. After sowing the seeds, the Aos observe
Moatsu Mong.
The Pochury Tribe celebrates their greatest
festival, Yemshe in the month of October every year. During the Yemshe
festival, the arrival of the new harvest is celebrated with full fun
& fair. The Losar Festival also called as the New Year Festival and
it is the most important festival celebrated in Tawang, Arunachal
Pradesh. Losar is celebrated by the Monpas that forms the major portion
of population in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh.
In the Khan festival of
Arunachal Pradesh, the social and cultural beliefs of the local tribes
can be witnessed. Regardless the different casts and creed, the local
tribes unite in the Khan celebration.
(b) Write a sentence each of any five of the following traditional theater forms:
(i) Bhand
Pather: It is the traditional theatre form of Kashmir, which is a
unique combination of dance, music and acting. Satire, wit and parody
are preferred for inducing laughter.
(ii) Swang:
It is a
popular folk dance-drama or folk theatre form in Rajasthan, Haryana,
Uttar Pradesh and Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh. Swang incorporates
suitable theatrics and mimicry (or nakal) accompanied by song and
dialogue. Swang theatre is
traditionally restricted to men, who also play the female roles.
(iii) Maach:
It
is a traditional Hindi theatre form of Madhya Pradesh. It shares the
secular nature and characteristics of other north Indian genres like
Nautanki and Khyal. Based on religious, historical, romantic, or social
themes, it was invented and developed by prominent artists like Guru
Gopalji, Guru Balmukund, Kaluram Ustad, and Radhakrishan Ustad.
(iv) Bhaona:
It
is a unique festival of Vaishnava theatrical performance in Assam. The
performance is marked by a continuous shifting between the classical and
the folk, the mundane and the spiritual, providing thousands of
spectators a rare aesthetic experience.
(v) Mudiyettu:
It
is ritualistic dance drama performed after the harvest of summer crops
in Kerala. In 2010, Mudiyettu was included in the UNESCO Intangible
Cultural Heritage Lists.
(vi) Dashavatar:
Dashavatar
is the most developed theatre form of the Konkan and Goa regions. The
performers personify the ten incarnations of Lord Vishnu-the god of
preservation and creativity.
(c) What are the major different styles of unglazed pottery making in India?
Answer:
There
are three different styles in unglazed pottery making in India. They
are - the paper-thin, scrafito and highly polished. Black pottery is
another famous form of unglazed pottery in Indian villages and it
resembles the Harappan pottery style. In the paper thin pottery, the
biscuit coloured pottery is decorated with incised patterns.
(d) List the classical dance forms of India as per the Sangeet Natak Akademy.
Answer:
Sangeet
Natak Akademi currently confers classical status on nine Indian dance
styles which are Bharatnatyam, Kathak, Gaudiya Nritya, Kathakali,
Mohiniyattam, Oddisi, kuchipudi, Sattriya, and Manipuri.
9. Comment on following in not more than 50 words each: 5x5=25
(a) Nisarga-Runa technology of BARC.
Answer:
The
Nisarga-Runa technology developed at BARC converts biodegradable solid
waste into useful manure and methane. It can be deployed for the dual
objectives of waste management as well as for livelihood creation among
the urban underprivileged. The 'Nisargruna' technology adopts biphasic
reactor system wherein the first reactor is operated under aerobic and
thermophilic conditions. As a result of the first feature, the universal
problem of odour from waste processing biogas plants is eliminated and
the second feature leads to a faster process. Unlike conventional single
phase digesters, which take 30-40 days, a 'Nisargruna' plant can digest
organic solid waste between 18-22 days.
(b) The first aid that you can safely administer to a person standing next to you at the bus stop who suddenly faints.
Answer:
I
would first take the person away from the crowd to an open and safe
area. Then I would sprinkle some water on his/her face to bring him/her
back to consciousness. If the person does not gain consciousness then
mouth to mouth respiration and administering CPR can be considered as
the next step. His/her family members or friends should be immediately
informed about his/her ill health by a phone call from the contact
details from the mobile phone or the purse of the person and can gather
information on the person’s medical condition and then accordingly
he/she can be taken for medical supervision.
(c) The Kaveri K-10 aero-engine.
Answer:
Kaveri
K-10 engine is being developed to be used in the Light Combat Aircraft,
Tejas. It is being developed in collaboration of French firm, Snecma.
It will have less weight and more reheat thrust to meet the requirements
of the Indian Army.
(d) Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) technology
Answer:
Molecular
breast imaging (MBI) is three times more effective than mammograms, and
far less costly than other nuclear-medicine imaging. Molecular Breast
Imaging (MBI) uses a dedicated dual-head gamma camera and
99mTc-sestamibi in women having dense breast patterns and additional
risk factors for breast cancer.
(e) E-governance initiatives by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
Answer:
UPSC
has taken the initiative for getting the forms of several examinations
like civil services filled online. It also displays the status of the
application form for every candidate on its website. UPSC publishes the
syllabus and tentative schedules of various UPSC conducted examinations
on its website helping students to plan in advance. UPSC also publishes
the various court orders and notifications on the web site and
information regarding the RTI petitions on its website.
10. Who are the following and why have they been in the news recently? (each answer should not exceed 20 words): 2x7=14
(a) Lieutenant Navdeep Singh
Answer:
Lieutenant
Navdeep Singh laid down his life fighting terrorists during an
anti-infiltration operation along LOC in Gurez Sector of north Kashmir.
(b) Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar
Answer:
He
was an exponent of Dagar vani Dhrupad, which is one of the most
pristine and richest forms of Indian classical music. He represented the
19th generation of Dagar Tradition.
(c) Lobsang Sangay
Answer:
He is the Tibetan Prime Minister in exile. He is a Harvard graduate and a political successor of Dalai Lama.
(d) P.R. Sreejesh
Answer:
P.R. Sreejesh is Hockey Goalkeeper in the Indian Hockey team. He is from Kerela.
(e) Nileema Mishra
Answer:
She
is one of the Magsaysay Award winners for 2011.. She is a lender to the
poorest in Maharashtra. She was recognised for her purpose-driven zeal
to work tirelessly with villagers in Maharashtra.
(f) V.Tejeswini Bai
Answer:
Tejeswini
is a Kabbadi player from Karnataka who has represented India from 2005
to 2010 and captained Indian team for four years.
(g) Aishwarya Narkar
Answer:
Aishwarya Narkar is a Marathi actress who also works in the Hindi TV serials. She has received National Film Award from the
President of India.
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