Wednesday, November 3, 2010

Comparative Government and Politics,Constitutional Development,Indian Constitution Questions for various exams


1. Which one of the following statements about the speaker of the Lok Sabha is not correct?

(a) He has the power to adjourn the House sine die

(b) He has the power to summon the House even after prorogation

(c) He continues to be in office even after the dissolution of the House and un immediately before the first meeting of the House

(d) He must vacate the office if he cease to be a member of the Lok Sabha

Ans. (b)

2. How much is the quorum of a House of Parliament in India?

(a) One-half of the total membership of the House

(b) One-third of the total membership of the House

(c) Two-third of the total membership of the House

(d) One-tenth of the total membership of the House

Ans. (d)

3. Consider the following statements:

1. Quo Warranto is a very powerful instrument for safeguarding against the usurpation of public offices.

2. A High Court can issue a mandamus to compel a court or judicial tribunal to exercise its jurisdiction when it has refused to exercise it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Axis. (c)

4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Parliamentary Device) (Substance)

A. Cut Motion 1. To draw attention of the ministers on the matters of

urgent public importance

B. Call Attention Motion 2. To draw attention of the speaker towards incorrect or

incomplete answer by ministers

C. Privilege Motion 3. To move a proposal to reduce expenditure on the budget

proposals

D. Adjournment Motion 4. To adjourn the House before the expiry of time

5. Concludes discussion on demand for grants

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 2 4 5 1

(c) 3 4 2 1

(d) 2 1 5 4

Ans. (a)

5. What does the ‘Rule of lapse’ mean?

(a) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation

(b) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year

(c) The demand for grants of a ministry lapses with criticism of its policy by the opposition

(d) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days

Ans. (b)

6. Which one of the following categories of disputes is excluded from the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

(a) Between the Government of India and one or more states

(b) Between two or more states inter se

(c) Between residents of two or more states

(d) Between the Government of India and one or more states on one side and one or more states on the other

Ans. (c)

7. Consider the following statements on judicial activism in India:

1. It occurs mainly where the legislature and executive wings of government fail to discharge their duties under the Constitution.

2. Justice A. H. Ahmadi had initiated judicial activism by converting letter written to him by an aggrieved citizen into public interest litigation.

3. Most of the cases of judicial activism have occurred through appeals against lower court judgments.

4. In judicial activism, the court monitors the development of a case during the trial period and gives necessary directions to investigating agencies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Ans. (d)

8. Which one of the following scholars described the party system prevailing in India in the early years of independence as one party dominant system?

(a) Bhikhu Parikh

(b) Myron Weiner

(c) Granville Austin

(d) Rajni Kothari.

Ans. (d)

9. Consider the following statements related to secularism in India:

1. It entails strict separation of religion from politics.

2. It refrains parties with religious affiliations from contesting elections.

3. It grants religious liberty to all communities.

4. It accepts community personal laws.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (c)

10. Consider the following statements:

1. The Committee on Public Accounts examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India before it is presented before each House of Parliament.

2. The President of India causes the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India to be laid before each House of Parliament.

3. After the Annual Financial Statement is presented before the Lok Sabha, the Committee on Public Accounts examines the estimates

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) l and 3

(c) 1 only

(d) 2 only

Ans. (d)

11. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Gujarat Riot (1969) — Reddy Commission

(b) Bhiwandi Riot (1970). — D. P. Madan Commission

(c) Jamshedpur Riot (1979) — Jitendra Narayan Commission

(d) Bombay Riot (1993) — Shashikant Verma Commission

Ans. (d)

12. Which one of the following statements is correct for the First Report of the Ethics Committee of the Parliament?

(a) Matters like criminalization of politics, political parties and electoral reforms, Code of Conduct were dealt with

(b) Procedural aspects of enforcing the Code of Conduct were dealt with

(c) Such matters as, disorderly proceedings in legislatures, co-operation with presiding officer in the legislature and enforcing discipline were dealt with

(d) Matters like behaviour of political parties and good governance were dealt with

Ans. (b)

13. In the context of the Indian political system, what did the term “Young Turks” refer to?

(a) A group of students who emerged out of Navnirman movement of Jaya Prakash Narayan

(b) A faction of Naxalite movement who claimed to be puritans

(c) An ideological group with socialist leanings within the Congress Party

(d) A radical group within the Communist Party who claim to be Marxist-Leninist

Ans. (d)

14. Growth of regional political parties in India in recent years is attributed to which of the following?

1. Frequent elections

2. Inability to accommodate demands of various sections of society

3. Advent of multinational companies

4. Emergence of new states

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) l and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) l and 4

Ans. (a)

15. Which of the following electoral reforms is not implemented yet?

(a) Bye-election to be held within 6 months from the occurrence of vacancy

(b) Registration of political parties with the Election Commission

(c) Debar Income Tax defaulters from contesting elections

(d) Increase in security deposit and number of proposers

Ans. (c)

16. Consider the following countries:

1. France

2. England

3. Switzerland

4. Germany

By the end of 19th century, in which of the above countries, all adult women were franchised?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 only

(d) None of these

Ans. (d)

17. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The party system and the elections in India are based on single member constituencies, first-past-the post system of plurality voting and a bicameral legislature.

(b) British party system is the product of the great economic and social changes that rocked the society and the state in the nineteenth century Europe.

(c) The electoral system is at the heart of the credibility (legitimacy) of modern democracies.

(d) The first general elections (Parliamentary Elections) were held in India in the year 1950 after following the ratification of the Constitution.

Ans. (d)

18. Which one of the following is the main principle on which the Parliamentary system operates?

(a) Supremacy of Parliament

(b) Responsibility of Executive to Legislature

(c) Supremacy of Judiciary

(d) Theory of Separation of Power

Ans. (b)

19. Which one of the following is known as the Marshal Plan?

(a) US post-war economic assistance to Europe

(b) US military intervention in Vietnam

(c) Marshal Tito’s advocacy for Non-alignment

(d) US assistance to post colonial regimes in sub-Saharan Africa

Ans. (a)

20. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Mikhail Gorbachev : Glasnost

2. Samuel Huntington : Clash of Civilization

3. Henry Kissinger : Detente

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

21. Which one of the following countries has not signed the agreement on SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement (SAPTA)?

(a) Myanmar

(b) Bhutan

(c) Nepal

(d) Maldives

Ans. (a)

22. In the wave, of democratization of 1980s and 1990s, in which of the following countries has state socialism not been replaced by a multi-party system?

(a) Hungary

(b) Poland

(c) Bulgaria

(d) North Korea

Ans. (d)

23. Who among the following, mooted the idea that India was a ‘soft state’ and ill-equipped to carry out its promises?

(a) Samir Amin

(b) Gunnar Myrdal

(c) Andre Gundar Frank

(d) Edward Said

Ans. (b)

24. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The House of Lords is primarily a hereditary chamber

(b) Aliens can also become members of the House of Lords

(c) There are some peers from Ireland also

(d) Spiritual Peers also occupy a significant number

Ans. (c)

25. The regional legislatures of Scotland and Wales are elected by which method?

(a) Plurality of votes

(b) Absolute majority of votes

(c) Proportional representation by single transferable votes

(d) A mixture of single-member districts and proportional representation by party lists

Ans. (a)

26. In which of the following federations does the second chamber have equal representation from the states?

1. India

2. USA

3. Canada

4. Australia

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

27. Which one of the following statements about the French Judicial System is not correct?

(a) The French judiciary has got the power of judicial review

(b) The method of appointment of judges differs from that of Britain and U SA

(c) There are two types of courts – ordinary courts and administrative courts

(d) There are courts of appeal also under the Vth Republic of France

Ans. (a)

28. Which one of the following statements with respect to the features of the French Constitution is not correct?

(a) The Constitution of the Fifth Republic was framed by General de Gaulle

(b) The Constitution of the Fifth Republic contains a mixture of unitary and federal government

(c) The tenure of the President is five years

(d) The Constitution of the Fifth Republic was enacted to ensure stability

Ans. (b)

29. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) British Parliament is sovereign

(b) The monarchy is rooted in Britain

(c) Separation of powers is the essential principle of the British system of government

(d) The Cabinet is the most powerful body in Britain

Ans. (c)

30. Which one of the following statements is not correct in case of U S A?

(a) Bill of Rights is enumerated in the U S Constitution

(b) The Constitution is the supreme law of the land

(c) There is a provision of single citizenship in U S A

(d) The members of the House of Representatives are elected for a period of two years

Ans. (c)

31. In which country, a political party must obtain a minimum of 5% of the national votes or win at least three directly elected seats to be allowed proportional representation in the Legislature?

(a) France

(b) Germany

(c) South Africa

(d) China

Ans. (b)

32. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

Under the basic law of the Federal Republic of Germany, the right to asylum is restricted to persons suffering from

(a) economic hardship

(b) ethnic prejudice

(c) social discrimination

(d) political persecution

Ans. (d)

33. Which one of the following statements is not correct about South Africa?

(a) The Constitution of the Union of South Africa possesses no federal features

(b) The Constitution is a mixture of federal and unitary type of government

(c) The provinces get equal representation in the Senate

(d) The Union Cabinet represents as far as possible, different provincial interests

Ans. (a)

34. How is the Federal Constitutional Court in Germany constituted?

(a) By appointments by the Federal President

(b) By appointments by the Federal Chancellor

(c) By election of half number of judges by the Bundestag and half by the Bundesrat

(d) By election by the Joint Committee of Parliament

Ans. (c)

35. Consider the following events:

1. Lucknow Pact

2. Promulgation of Vernacular Press Act

3. Establishment of Arya Samaj

4. Partition of Bengal

Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the events given above?

(a) 3-4-2-1

(b) 1-2-4-3

(c) 3-2 -4-1

(d) 1-4-2-3

Ans. (c)

36. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

The All India Muslim Personal Law Board

(a) enjoys a constitutional status and its head is appointed by the President of India

(b) is a voluntary organization which brings together all the sects and schools of Muslims in India.

(c) is an official body created by following the Shah Bano controversy.

(d) is a body of Ulema belonging to the Deoband School which advises the government on Muslim Personal Law.

Ans. (c)

37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

A. Home Rule Movement 1. Lord Cornwallis

B. Vernacular Press Act 2. M.G. Ranade

C. Policy of Subsidiary Alliance 3. B. G. Tilak

D. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha 4. Lord Wellesley

5. Lord Lytton

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3

(b) 3 5 4 2

(c) 2 5 4 3

(d) 3 4 1 2

Ans. (b)

38. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Indian Councils Act, 1892 - Principle of Election

(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909 - Responsible Government

(c) Government of India Act; l919 – Provincial Autonomy

(d) Government of India Act, 1935 – Diarchy in States

Ans. (a)

39. The Autonomous District Council under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution is not operative in which one of the following states of North-East India?

(a) Assam

(b) Tripura

(c) Nagaland

(d) Meghalaya

Ans. (c)

40. The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 made it obligatory for the President of India to act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India was amended by the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976?

(a) Article 73

(b) Article 74(1)

(c) Article 75(1)

(d) Article 77(1)

Ans. (b)

41. 86th Constitutional Amendment deals with which of the following?

(a) Allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created states

(b) Reservation of 30% posts for women in Panchayat Raj Institutions

(c) Insertion of Article 21A related with free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years

(d) Continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment

Ans.(c)

42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Schedule of Constitution (Contents)

of India)

A. Ninth Schedule 1. Provisions regarding Panchayat Raj Institutions

B. Tenth Schedule 2. Provisions regarding land reforms legislations

C. Eleventh Schedule 3. Provisions regarding administration of tribal

areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram

D. Sixth Schedule 4. Provisions regarding the distribution of powers

between the Centre and States

5. Provisions regarding the disqualification on ground of

defection

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2

(b) 2 5 1 3

(c) 3 5 1 2

(d) 2 1 4 3

Ans. (b)

43. Consider the following statements:

The ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution includes

1. The Government and Parliament of India. -

2. The Government and legislature of the states.

3. Local authorities Or other authorities within the territories of India or under—the control of Government of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

Ans. (a)

44. Which one of the following issues comes under the Concurrent List?

(a) Taxes on Professions, trades, callings and employment

(b) Capitation Taxes

(c) Adulteration of food stuffs and other goods

(d) Corporation Tax

Ans.(c)

45. Consider the following statements:

Proclamation of emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India

1. requires written communication of the Union Cabinet to the President to that effect.

2. can be issued for the whole of India or part thereof.

3. lapses, if not approved by both Houses of Parliament within a month;

4. requires a resolution, approving the proclamation passed by both Houses of Parliament only by a majority of the total membership of each House, and not less than 2/3 members present and voting.

5. once approved by Parliament-can last for six months.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Ans. (a)

46. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Reservation of seats for SCs and STs : Article 330 of Constitution of India

in the Lok Sabha

(b) Constitution Amendment Procedure : Article 268 of Constitution of India

(c) Public Service Commissions for the : Article 313 of Constitution of India

Union and States

(d) Special Provisions with- respect to : Article 371-D of Constitution of India

the State of Nagaland

Ans. (a)

47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Source) (Tax)

A. Taxes levied by the Union but collected 1. Taxes on income other than agriculture

and appropriated by the State

B. Taxes levied, collected and retained by 2. Stamp duties

the Centre

C. Taxes levied and collected by the Centre 3. Corporation Tax

but assigned to the States

D. Taxes levied and collected by the Centre and 4. Taxes on land and buildings

compulsorily distributed between the

Union and the States

5. Taxes on railway fares and freights

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 5 4 2

(b) 2 3 5 1

(c) 1 3 5 2

(d) 2 5 4 1

Ans. (b)

48. Which of. the following rights is not expressly mentioned in the Fundamental Rights but has been upheld as so by several pronouncements of the Supreme Court?

(a) Equity before law

(b) Right to non-discrimination in public employment

(c) Right to form associations or unions

(d) Right to freedom of Press

Ans. (d)

49 Which of the following Articles were first inserted and repealed later from the Constitution of India?

1. 32-A

2. 51-A

3. 131-A

4. 257-A

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

50. Consider the following statements:

1. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.

2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for legislation.

3. The President has the right to address and send message to either House of Parliament.

4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union must be communicated to the President.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (a)

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