INDIAN POLITY MCQs

Q. 1. An inter-State Council may be established by:
(a) the Parliament
(b) the President
(c) the National Development
(d) the Zonal Council
Ans. (b)


Q. 2. Which of the following are the principles on the basis of which the Parliamentary system of government in India operates?
1. Nominal Executive Head
2. Vice-President as the Chairman of the Upper House
3. Real Executive authority with the Council of Minister
4. Executive responsibility to the Lower House
Choose the correct answer form the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (c)


Q. 3. Under the term “Double Jeopardy” implied in Clausu?2 of Article 20 of the Constitution of India, a person:
(a) convicted by a court of law cannot be punished under department proceedings for the same offence
(b) punished departmentally cannot be prosecuted in a court of law for the same offence
(c) shall not be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
(d) cannot be subjected to proceedings in civil courts for disobedience of an injunction along with criminal proceedings.
Ans. (c)

Q. 4. Which of the following are the grounds on which discrimination of citizens for admission into educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited?
1. Religion and Race
2. Sex and Place of birth
3. Nationality and Colour
4. Age and Nativity
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (b)

Q. 5. Which of the following statements regarding Article 22 of the Constitution of India are correct?
1. The fundamental right conferred by this Article protects persons against and detention in certain cases
2. This fundamental right is guaranteed both to citizens and non-citizens
3. The rights guaranteed. under this provision are applicable to those arrested under laws providing for preventive
4. The rights guaranteed under this provision are not applicable to enemy aliens
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) l and 3
Ans. (a)

Q. 6. A writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court of High Court which:
(a) affects the subject of production and consumption of liquor
(b) prohibits the police from arresting a person
(c) forbids the administrative authority from taking a particular action
(d) prohibits a quasi-judicial authority from proceedings with a case
Ans. (d)

Q. 7. Which one of the following is not included as a Fundamental Duty in the Constitution of India?
(a) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle.
(b) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
(c) To protect the minorities
(d) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
Ans. (c)

Q. 8. Which one of the following Directive Principles was not originally provided for the Constitution of India?
(a) Citizen’s right to an adequate means of livelihood
(b) Free Legal Aid
(c) Free and compulsory education to children under 14 years of age
(d) Prohibition of the slaughter of cows and calves.
Ans. (b)

Q. 9. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Art. 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then:
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved
(b) Article 19 is suspended in the State
(c) Parliament assume the power to legislate on the subjects in the State list
Ans. (c)

Q. 10. A non-money bill passed by the Parliament is returned by the President to Parliament for reconsideration. It is passed once again by the Parliament without any change. Now, the
(a) President can again withhold his assent
(b) Bill will automatically lapse
(c) Bill will be referred to the Supreme Court
(d) President will give his assent
Ans. (d)

Q. 11. According to the Constitution, the Lok Sabha must meet at least:
(a) thrice each year with no more than two months between sessions
(b) twice each year with no more than three months between sessions
(c) twice each year with no more’ than four months between sessions
(d) twice each year with no. more than six months between sessions
Ans. (d)

Q. 12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): A candidate for Vice-President must be qualified for election as a member Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): The Vice-President functions as the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (b)

Q. 13. Match List-I with List- II and select the correct answer:
List -I List- II
A. Division 1. Brings the debate to a close
B. Guillotine 2. Formal proposal made by a member to the House
C. Motion 3 Relates to interpretation enforcement of the rules procedure or
Constitution
D. Point of order 4. Concludes discussion on demand for grants
5. Mode of arriving at a decision
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 5 1 2
(b) 5 4 1 3
(c) 5 4 2 3
(d) 4 5 2 1
Ans. (c)

Q. 14. Which of the following statements regarding Supreme Court of India are correct?
1. It has the power to entertain appeal from any court or tribunal within India.
2. It has the power to deliver advisory opinion on any question of fact or law referred to it by the President.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court subject to vote by the Parliament.
4. Its jurisdiction is binding on all other courts within India.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Ans. (d)

Q. 15.The doctrine of judicial review in the U.S.A is:
(a) enunciated in the Constitution
(b) derived from judicial decisions
(c) inherent in the very nature of judicial function
(d) result of the operation of the principle of rule of law
Ans. (a)

Q. 16. Dicey’s principle of the Rule of Law implies that:
(a) nobody is above law
(b) everybody is equal before law
(c) Constitution is the result of judicial decisions
(d) Parliament is source of all law
Ans. (b)

Q. 17. The term ‘Law’ used in the phrase ‘Rule’ of Law’ refers to:
(a) positive law
(b) natural law
(c) conventions of the Constitution
(d) common law
Ans. (a)

Q. 18. Which one of the following writs is issued by an appropriate judicial body in order to free a person who has been illegally detained?
(a) Quo Warranto
(b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Habeas Corpus
Ans. (d)

Q. 19. Which of the following features are present in the Indian Constitution?
1. Multiple procedures for amendment.
2. States are not empowered to initiate amendment.
3. Certain amendments have to be passed just by State legislatures.
4. Joint-sittings of Parliament to solve disputes regarding Constitutional amendments.
Select the correct answer from ‘the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) l and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)

Q. 20. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): India is a Union of States and not a Federal State.
Reason (R): in the following Constitution, the Centre is given emergency powers which can convent the State into a Unitary.
In the context of above two statements, which one of the following .is correct?
Codes :
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is false
Ans. (b)

Q. 21. In India, the Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of:
(a) members of both House of Parliament.
(b) elected members of both House of Parliament
(c) elect Members of both House of Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies
(d) members of both Houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies
Ans. (a)

Q. 22. The Chief Election Commissioner of India can be removed from office during his tenure by:
(a) the Chief Justice of India if some charges are proved against him
(b) by the President on the basis of a resolution of the Union Cabinet
(c) by a Committee consisting of Chief Justice of India Law Minister of India and the Vice-President of India
(d) by the President on the basis of resolution passed by the Parliament by two-thirds majority
Ans. (d)

Q. 23. Which one of the following. States has seats reserved in the Legislative Assembly on the basis of religion? .
(a) Goa
(b) Sikkim
(c) Mizoram
(d) J & K
Ans. (a)

Q. 24, The quorum requirement in the Rajya Sabha is:
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 126
Ans. (a)

Q. 25. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. The Indian Union : Union list, State list and Concurrent list
2. Canadian Federation : The right to secede
3. The American Federation : Dual citizenship
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)

Q. 26. There is a simple integrated judiciary in:
(a) India, Canada and Australia
(b) India, Nigeria and Canada
(c) The U.S.A., India and Australia
(d) The US.A, India and Canada
Ans. (b)

Q. 27. In which of the following federations does the second Chamber have equal representation of the state?
1. U.S.A
2. India
3. Australia
4. Canada
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) l and 4
(b) l and 2
(c) l and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)


Q. 28. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer:
List –I List- II
A. Madhya Pradesh 1. Anchalik Parishad
B. West Bengal 2. Janapad Panchayat
C. Uttar Pradesh 3. Taluka Panchayat
D. Gujarat 4. Kshetra Samiti
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (c)

Q. 29. Which one of the following Prime Ministers did not to the Ministry as a branch of the executive, in a parliamentary democracy?
(a) Political and permanent
(b) Non-political and non-permanent
(c) Neutral and permanent
(d) Neutral and non-permanent
Ans. (d)

Q. 30. Following duties have been prescribed for the State and the citizens:
1. To develop scientific temper
2. To promote common brotherhood
3. To organize village panchayats
4. To minimize the inequalities in income
5. To secure a uniform civil code
6. To defend the country
Among these the fundamental duties of the citizens would include:
(a) l, 3 and 4
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 6
(d) 2, 5 and 6
Ans. (c)

Q. 31. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule ma state?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. The removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies .
4. Takeover of the State administration by the Union government
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) l and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)

Q. 32. Which of the following federal principles are not found in Indian federation?
1. Bifurcation of the judiciary between the Federal and State Government
2. The Federal and State Government have their own officials to administer their respective law and functions
3. The union cannot be destroyed by any state seceding from the Union at its will.
4. Federal Government can redraw the map of the Indian Union by forming new State (s). Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (c)

Q. 33. In India there is a single constitution for the Union and the states with the exception of:
(a) Sikkim
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Nagaland
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (b)

Q. 34. Which Articles of the Constitution empowers the Parliament to legislate on any matter of the State List?
(a) Article 115
(b) Article 183
(c) Article 221
(d) Article 226
Ans. (c)

Q. 35. On the subject of Income Tax:
(a) The Union Government has more powers than State governments
(b) The State governments have more powers than the Union governments
(c) Both Union and State governments have equal powers but Union shall prevails in case of conflict
(d) Only the Union government has power
Ans. (d)

Q. 36. Which of the following is a correct statement about the President of India?
(a) The President of India can address both House of Parliament can summon the Houses of Parliament and can send messages to either House of Parliament
(b) Can summon the Houses of Parliament but cannot send messages to either Houses of Parliament
(c) Can send messages to either House Parliament, but cannot summon the Houses of Parliament
(d) Cannot send messages to either House of Parliament or summon the Houses of Parliament
Ans. (a)

Q. 37. There is no Constitutional provision for award of titles, so a prominent member of Constituent Assembly refused to accept it. He was
(a) K.M. Munshi
(b) H.N. Kunzru
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) R.S. Muddaliar
Ans. (a)

Q. 38. Which one of the following committees is not a Standing Committee of the Parliament?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Consultative Committee to the finance
(c) Consultative Committee to the Ministry of finance
Ans. (d)

Q. 39. Assertion (A): Money bills originate only in the Lower House of Parliament:
Reason (R): The Lower House of the Parliament is a popularly elected body:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)

Q. 40. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The President of India is indirectly elected.
Reason (R): Under a parliamentary system of government, the head of the state is only a nominal head.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (b)

Q. 41. The authority to declare war or peace under the Indian Constitutions is vested in:
(a) the Prime Minister
(b) the Defense Minister
(c) the Parliament
(d) the President
Ans. (d)

Q. 42. The members of the Constituent Assembly were:
(a) directly elected by the, people
(b) nominated by the Governor General
(c) elected by the Legislature of various provinces and nominated by the rulers of the princely states
(d) nominated by the Congress and the Muslim League
Ans. (c)

Q. 43. Fundamental rights guaranteed in the Indian Constitution can be suspended only by:
(a) a proclamation of national emergency
(b) an Act passed by the Parliament
(c) an amendment of the Constitution
(d) the judicial decision of the Supreme Court
Ans. (a)

Q. 44. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional prerogative of the President of India?
(a) Returning a Legislative Bill for reconsideration
(b) Returning of Financial Bill for reconsideration
(c) Dissolving the Lok Sabha
(d) Summoning the Rajya Sabha
Ans. (b)

Q. 45. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by:
(a) elected members of Rajya Sabha
(b) elected members of Rajya Sabha
(c) elected members of Parliament
(d) all members of Parliament
Ans. (d)

Q. 46. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is guaranteed only to the citizens of India and not to the foreign living in India?
(a) Equality before law and equal protection of law
(b) Freedom of speech and expression
(c) Right to life and liberty
(d) Right to the freedom of religion
Ans. (b)

Q. 47. Match List -I with List -II and select the correct answer:
List- I List -II
A. Vote on account 1. Lump sum money granted without detailed
estimates
B. Vote on credit 2. Additional expenditure not covered in the
approved budget
C. Supplementary demand for grants 3.Amount spent in excess of the grants
D. Excess demand for grants 4. Grants in advance pending budgetary approval
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 1 3 2
Ans. (c)

Q. 48. Which of the following expenditure shall be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?
1. The emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Prime Minister and other expenditure relating to his office.
3. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of state
4. The salaries and allowances of the Speaker and the Deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) l, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (c)

Q. 49. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. Ambedkar as ‘the heart and soul’, of the Constitution?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right against exploitation
(c) Right to constitutional remedies
(d) Right to freedom of religion
Ans. (c)

Q. 50. Match List -I with List- II and select the correct answer:
List-I List- II
A. The Keshavanand Bharti case 1. Theory of parliamentary sovereignty
B. The Golaknath case 2. Theory of basic structure of Indian
Constitution
C. Bank Nationalization case 3. Fundamental rights cannot be amended
D. 25th amendment to Indian Constitution
4. Compensation should be paid according to market value
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (a)