General Studies
(Exam Held on 26-6-2011)
1. Which one of the following is not formed in our body ?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Protein
(C) Enzyme
(D) Hormone
Ans : (A)
2. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Silver iodide —Horn Silver
(B) Silver chloride —Artificial rain
(C) Zinc phosphide —Rat poison
(D) Zinc sulphide —Philosopher’s wool
Ans : (C)
3. Which one of the following gases is essential for photosynthesis process ?
(A) CO
(B) CO2
(C) N2
(D) O2
Ans : (B)
4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Morphine
(b) Sodium
(c) Boric Acid
(d) German Silver
List-II
1. Antiseptic
2. Alloy
3. Analgesic
4. Kerosene oil
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (D)
5. Which one of the following human organs is most susceptible to harmful radiations ?
(A) Eyes
(B) Heart
(C) Brain
(D) Lungs
Ans : (A)
6. The minimum height of a plane mirror to see the full size image of a person is equal to—
(A) the height of the person
(B) half the height of the person
(C) one-fourth the height of the person
(D) double the height of the person
Ans : (B)
7. Helium is preferred to hydrogen in air balloons because it—
(A) is cheaper
(B) is less dense
(C) has greater lifting power
(D) does not form an explosive mixture with air
Ans : (B)
8. Retina of the eye is comparable to which of the following parts of a traditional camera ?
(A) Film
(B) Lens
(C) Shutter
(D) Cover
Ans : (A)
9. Anosmia is—
(A) loss of the sense of taste
(B) loss of the sense of smell
(C) loss of the sense of touch
(D) loss of the sense of heat
Ans : (B)
10. Assertion (A) : If somebody stops taking green vegetables he will suffer from night blindness.
Reason (R) : He will suffer from Vitamin A deficiency.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans : (A)
11. Insectivorous fish used for mosquito control is—
(A) Hilsa
(B) Labeo
(C) Gambusia
(D) Mystus
Ans : (C)
12. With which of the physiological process Thrombin is associated ?
(A) Excretion
(B) Blood clotting
(C) Reproduction
(D) Growth
Ans : (B)
13. AIDS is caused by—
(A) Bacteria
(B) Fungus
(C) Helminth
(D) Virus
Ans : (D)
14. Which of the following is not the normal function of the human kidney ?
(A) Regulation of water level in the blood.
(B) Regulation of sugar level in the blood.
(C) Filter out urea.
(D) Secretion of several hormones.
Ans : (B)
15. The principle of ‘Black hole’ was enunciated by—
(A) C.V. Raman
(B) H.J. Bhabha
(C) S. Chandrashekhar
(D) H. Khurana
Ans : (C)
16. Which one of the following is used as a moderator in the nuclear reactor ?
(A) Thorium
(B) Graphite
(C) Radium
(D) Ordinary water
Ans : (B)
17. Refrigeration helps in food preservation by—
(A) killing the germs
(B) reducing the rate of biochemical reactions
(C) destroying enzyme action
(D) sealing the food with a layer of ice
Ans : (B)
18. Electric bulb filament is made of—
(A) Copper
(B) Aluminium
(C) Lead
(D) Tungsten
Ans : (D)
19. Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in the vehicles ?
(A) Plane
(B) Convex
(C) Concave
D) Inverted
Ans : (B)
20. Which one of the following is a part of Infotech Terminology ?
(A) Protocol
(B) Login
(C) Archie
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
21. Inventor and founder of www is—
(A) Timbernrus
(B) N. Russel
(C) Lee N. Fiyong
(D) Bill Gates
Ans : (A)
22. Amniocentosis is a method used to determine the—
(A) foetal sex
(B) kind of Amino acids
(C) sequence of Amino acids in protein
(D) type of hormones
Ans : (A)
23. BMD testing is done to diagnose
(A) Dengue
(B) Malaria
(C) Osteoporosis
(D) AIDS
Ans : (C)
24. Which one of the following States has granted Sanskrit language the status of the second official language of the State ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (D)
25. Which one of the following has the right to address the Parliament ?
(A) Attorney General of India
(B) Chief Election Commissioner of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) National Security Advisor
Ans : (A)
26. Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of India is not correct ?
(A) The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of Government.
(B) The foremost function of the Parliament is to provide a Cabinet.
(C) The membership of the Cabinet is restricted to the Lower House.
(D) The Cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the majority in the popular Chamber.
Ans : (C)
27. Voting right by the youths at the age of 18 years was exercised for the first time in the General Election of—
(A) 1987
(B) 1988
(C) 1989
(D) 1990
Ans : (C)
28. Under which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution, the Legislative Assembly is allowed to resolve for the creation of the Legislative Council ?
(A) 168
(B) 169
(C) 170
(D) 171
Ans : (B)
29. Missile ‘Astra’ is a—
(A) land to land missile
(B) land to air missile
(C) air to air missile
(D) water to land missile
Ans : (C)
30. Indane gas is a mixture of—
(A) butane and hydrogen
(B) butane and oxygen
(C) butane and propane
(D) methane and oxygen
Ans : (C)
31. South Indian festival of ‘Onam’ is associated with which of the following ?
(A) Ram’s victory over Rawan
(B) Durga’s killing of Mahishasur
(C) Shiva Shakti
(D) Mahabali
Ans : (D)
32. Which among the following is the largest software company in India ?
(A) Infosys
(B) TCS
(C) WIPRO
(D) HCL Tech
Ans : (C)
33. Which one of the following is different from the others from the point of view of ownership ?
(A) LIC Policy
(B) Bank Fixed Deposit
(C) Kisan Vikas Patra
(D) Debenture of a Company
Ans : (C)
34. In the Union Budget 2011-12, the effective rate of interest for farmers on timely repayment of the bank loan is—
(A) 7 per cent
(B) 6 per cent
(C) 4 per cent
(D) 3 per cent
Ans : (C)
35. ‘Athapoo’ is associated with which of the following festivals ?
(A) Dol Yatra
(B) Onam
(C) Pongal
(D) Vishwakarma Puja
Ans : (B)
36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I(a) Pandit Durgalal
(b) Lalgudi Jayaraman
(c) Bala Murali Krishna
(d) Amrita Shergil
List-II1. Instrumental Music
2. Dance
3. Painting
4. Vocal Music
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans : (A)
37. Which one of the following is useful in the treatment of scurvy disease ?
(A) Mango
(B) Papaya
(C) Myrobalan
(D) Ber
Ans : (C)
38. Which of the following crops are grown mainly in the irrigated areas during Zaid ?
(A) Arhar and Gram
(B) Moong and Urad
(C) Rice and Millets
(D) Maize and Groundnut
Ans : (B)
39. The largest producer of Sugar in India is—
(A) Bihar
(B) Karnataka
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)
40. Which of the following authority sanctions foreign exchange for the import of goods ?
(A) Any Nationalised Bank
(B) Exchange Bank
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) Ministry of Finance
Ans : (C)
41. A letter of credit has to be produced by—
(A) an exporter
(B) an importer
(C) custom authorities
(D) shipping company
Ans : (A)
42. Which organisation promotes the foreign trade ?
(A) ECGS
(B) MMTC
(C) STC
(D) All of the above
Ans : (A)
43. The main source of fund for the National Highway Authority of India is—
(A) Cess
(B) Foreign assistance
(C) Market borrowings
(D) Budgetary support of Union Government
Ans : (D)
44. Golden rice has the highest quantity of—
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin K
Ans : (A)
45. The State known as ‘Garden of Spices’ is—
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (B)
46. MODVAT is related to—
(A) Excise duty
(B) Value Added Tax (VAT)
(C) Wealth Tax
(D) Income Tax
Ans : (B)
47. More than one-third of the crude steel production of the world comes from—
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) Russia
(D) U.S.A.
Ans : (A)
48. The Sun City is located in—
(A) Italy
(B) Japan
(C) Mexico
(D) South Africa
Ans : (D)
49. The correct descending order of the leading producers of milk is—
(A) China, India, Russia, U.S.A.
(B) India, U.S.A., China, Russia
(C) U.S.A., India, China, Russia
(D) India, China, U.S.A., Russia
Ans : (D)
50. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists— List-I (Iron-Steel Centre)(a) Hamilton
(b) Birmingham
(c) Essen
(d) Anshan
List-II (Country)
1. China
2. Canada
3. U.K.
4. Germany
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans : (C)
51. Import procedure begins with—
(A) Indent
(B) Mate’s receipt
(C) Marine insurance
(D) Shipping bill
Ans : (B)
52. Private Sector Mutual Funds in India were permitted in—
(A) 1964
(B) 1993
(C) 1994
(D) 2001
Ans : (B)
53. In India the State with the largest area under very dense forests is—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Orissa (Odisha)
Ans : (A)
54. In India two largest producers of coal (2008-09) are—
(A) Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh
(B) Chhattisgarh and Orissa (Odisha)
(C) Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand
(D) Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (C)
55. Which of the following towns lie in the National Capital Region ?
1. Ambala
2. Khurja
3. Karnal
4. Rohtak
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans : (D)
56. Coolgardie lies in the Australian province of—
(A) New South Wales
(B) Northern Territory
(C) Queensland
(D) Western Australia
Ans : (D)
57. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I (Lake)
(a) Erie
(b) Michigan
(c) Ontario
(d) Superior
List-II (City)
1. Duluth
2. Detroit
3. Gary
4. Hamilton
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 2 3 4 1
Ans : (D)
58. Arrange the following States of India in descending order of their forest-area and select the correct answer from the code given below :
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Chhattisgarh
4. Orissa (Odisha)
(A) 1, 3, 4, 2
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2
(D) 2, 3, 4, 1
Ans : (D)
59. Which one of the following does not lie in Maharashtra ?
(A) Balaghat Range
(B) Harishchandra Range
(C) Mandav Hills
(D) Satmala Hills
Ans : (C)
60. Which one of the following is not the port town of Gujarat ?
(A) Jamnagar
(B) Okha
(C) Porbandar
(D) Veraval
Ans : (A)
61. Who among the following has been awarded the prestigious Abel Prize for the year 2011 ?
(A) Isadore M. Singer
(B) John Griggs Thompson
(C) John Willard Milnor
(D) Peter D. Lax
Ans : (C)
62. Assertion (A) : Kerala stands first in terms of human development index.
Reason (R) : Its unemployment rate is the highest in the country.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans : (C)
63. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Koyali : Gujarat
(B) Nagapattinam : Andhra Pradesh
(C) Numaligarh : Assam
(D) Manali : Tamil Nadu
Ans : (B)
64. Which one of the following Indian States has recently signed a $ 220 million agreement with the World Bank ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Kerala
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)
65. According to the World Bank’s Global Development Finance Report 2010 the correct descending order of the world’s five most indebted countries is—
(A) Russia, Brazil, China, Turkey, India
(B) Russia, China, Turkey, Brazil, India
(C) Russia, China, Brazil, India, Turkey
(D) Russia, Brazil, India, China, Turkey
Ans : (D)
66. In February 2011 India International Youth Film Festival was held in
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Kolkata
(C) Mumbai
(D) New Delhi
Ans : (D)
67. At the 83rd Oscar Awards the best film award was won by—
(A) Black Swan
(B) The Fighter
(C) The King’s Speech
(D) The Social Network
Ans : (C)
68. The foundation stone of the third Indian Research Centre in Antarctica was laid by the name of—
(A) Sarswati
(B) Bharti
(C) Anweshan
(D) Yamnotri
Ans : (B)
69. The author of the book ‘The Emperor of All Maladies : A Biography of Cancer’, for which 2011 Pulitzer Prize has been awarded, is—
(A) Farid Zakariya
(B) Geeta Anand
(C) Jhumpa Lahiri
(D) Siddhartha Mukherjee
Ans : (D)
70. Who among the following film actors was given Mother Teresa Award in March 2011 ?
(A) Prem Chopra
(B) Rajesh Khanna
(C) Shammi Kapoor
(D) Shatrughan Sinha
Ans : (A)
71. India in February 2011 signed Free Trade Agreement with—
(A) Australia
(B) Indonesia
(C) Japan
(D) South Korea
Ans : (C)
72. India has recently signed Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement with—
(A) Indonesia
(B) Malaysia
(C) Saudi Arabia
(D) Vietnam
Ans : (B)
73. Which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the highest literacy rate as per the provisional figures of 2011 Census ?
(A) Gautambuddh Nagar
(B) Ghaziabad
(C) Kanpur Nagar
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (B)
74. Thumri Singer Girija Devi belongs to—
(A) Banaras Gharana
(B) Agra Gharana
(C) Kirana Gharana
(D) Lucknow Gharana
Ans : (A)
75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below—
List-I (District)
(a) Jalaun
(b) Kanpur Dehat
(c) Sant Ravidas Nagar
(d) Kushinagar
List-II (Headquarters)
1. Akbarpur
2. Navgarh (Bhadohi)
3. Padrauna
4. Orai
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (A)
76. The first Woman General Secretary of SAARC, elected in January 2011, comes from—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Maldives
(D) Bhutan
Ans : (C)
77. The 18th Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhawana Award has been given to—
(A) Shabana Azmi
(B) Maulana Wahiduddin Khan
(C) Javed Akhtar
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
78. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel Agricultural University is located at—
(A) Faizabad
(B) Meerut (Modipuram)
(C) Kanpur
(D) Jhansi
Ans : (B)
79. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below—
List-I (City)
(a) Lucknow
(b) Varanasi
(c) Kanpur
(d) Agra
List-II (Aerodrome)
1. Babatpur
2. Kheria
3. Amausi
4. Chakeri
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (D)
80. The official bird of Uttar Pradesh is—
(A) Peacock
(B) Saras
(C) Parrot
(D) Cuckoo
Ans : (B)
81. The most popular religious magazine ‘Kalyan’ is published from—
(A) Mathura
(B) Rishikesh
(C) Gorakhpur
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (C)
82. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Vrindavan Mandir : Mathura
(B) J. K. Temple : Lucknow
(C) Vishwanath Mandir : Varanasi
(D) Devipatan Mandir : Tulsipur
Ans : (B)
83. Which one of the following statements regarding Uttar Pradesh, according to the provisional figures of 2011 Census is not correct ?
(A) It accounts for 16•5 per cent of the country’s population.
(B) It has the largest number of children in the country.
(C) Its decadal growth rate is 18•4%.
(D) Its sex ratio is 908.
Ans : (C)
84. Famous Charkula dance is associated with—
(A) Avadh
(B) Bundelkhand
(C) Brij Bhumi
(D) Rohilkhand
Ans : (C)
85. In ICC Cricket World Cup 2011 the ‘man of the tournament’ was—
(A) Kumar Sangakkara
(B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Tilakratne Dilshan
(D) Yuvraj Singh
Ans : (D)
86. The winner of All England Badminton Championship, 2011, Men’s Singles Title, was—
(A) Chen Jin
(B) Lee Chong Wei
(C) Lee Yong Dae
(D) Lin Dan
Ans : (B)
87. The winner of Australian Open 2011, Men’s Singles, was—
(A) Andy Murray
(B) David Ferrer
(C) Novak Djokovic
(D) Roger Federer
Ans : (C)
88. The Captain of the Indian Hockey Team for Azlan Shah Cup Hockey Tournament, 2011, was—
(A) Arjun Halappa
(B) Rajesh Kumar
(C) Rajpal Singh
(D) Shivendra Singh
Ans : (A)
89. Farrukhabad is known for—
(A) Carpet weaving
(B) Glassware
(C) Perfume manufacture
(D) Hand printing
Ans : (C)
90. In which of the following crops Uttar Pradesh is not the largest producer in India ?
(A) Potato
(B) Rice
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Wheat
Ans : (B)
91. ‘Stanley Cup’ is associated with—
(A) Badminton
(B) Basketball
(C) Golf
(D) Ice Hockey
Ans : (D)
92. The ‘Laureus World Sportsman of the Year’ award for 2010 was given to—
(A) Lionel Messi
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Ronaldo
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
Ans : (B)
93. ‘Smash’ is associated with which of the following sports ?
(A) Boxing
(B) Wrestling
(C) Football
(D) Volleyball
Ans : (D)
94. Bula Chaudhary is well-known in which of the following sport disciplines ?
(A) Swimming
(B) Hockey
(C) Football
(D) Archery
Ans : (A)
95. Tejaswini Sawant is the first Indian woman to be crowned World Champion in—
(A) Athletics
(B) Boxing
(C) Shooting
(D) Wrestling
Ans : (C)
96. The correct descending order of the four winners of the highest number of gold medals in the 34th National Games 2011 is—
(A) Services, Manipur, Haryana, Maharashtra
(B) Services, Haryana, Manipur, Maharashtra
(C) Services, Manipur, Mahara-shtra, Haryana
(D) Services, Haryana, Mahara-shtra, Manipur
Ans : (A)
97. In the 34th National Games, 2011 which State won the team title in Badminton in Men’s Section ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)
98. Which one of the following will come next in the series given below ?
LXF MTJ NPN OLR ...........
(A) PHV
(B) PPV
(C) PTV
D) PJW
Ans : (A)
99. If COMPUTER is coded as RFUVQNPC, the code for MEDICINE will be—
(A) MFEDJJOE
(B) MFEJDJOE
(C) EOJDEJFM
(D) EOJDJEFM
Ans : (D)
100. Introducing a girl Mohan said, “Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law.” How is Mohan related to that girl ?
(A) Brother
(B) Father
(C) Husband
(D) Uncle
Ans : (B)
101. The following series has a wrong number :
1 12 65 264 795 1590 1593
The wrong number is—
(A) 65
(B) 264
(C) 795
(D) 1590
Ans : (D)
102. Govind is 3 years older than his wife Shyama and four times as old as his son Raghu. If Raghu becomes 15 years old after 3 years, what is the present age of Shyama ?
(A) 60 years
(B) 51 years
(C) 48 years
(D) 45 years
Ans : (D)
103. Ten years ago Ram’s age was half of Moti’s age. If the ratio of their present ages is 3 : 4, what is the total of their present ages ?
(A) 25
(B) 28
(C) 32
(D) 35
Ans : (D)
104. Sonu bought a watch with 30 per cent discount on the labelled price. He sold it with 20 per cent profit on the labelled price. Approximately, what was his percentage of profit on the price he bought ?
(A) 50
(B) 65
(C) 70
(D) 85
Ans : (C)
105. The surface area of a cube is 384 m2. Its volume will be—
(A) 512 m3
(B) 516 m3
(C) 1032 m3
(D) 216 m3
Ans : (A)
106. There are four prime numbers. The product of first three is 385 and the product of the last three is 1001. First and the last numbers are respectively—
(A) 5, 11
(B) 5, 13
(C) 7, 11
(D) 7, 13
Ans : (B)
107. If the number 1 X 5 X 01 is divisible by 11, then X is equal to—
(A) 2
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 3
Ans : (C)
108. Avinash spent 2/5 of his income for a month on rent and 3/4 th of the remainder on other expenses. The balance of Rs. 180 he put in his savings account. How much was his income for the month ?
(A) Rs. 1,200
(B) Rs. 1,400
(C) Rs. 1,600
(D) Rs. 1,800
Ans : (A)
109. The author of ‘Green Development’ is—
(A) M. J. Bradshaw
(B) M. Nicolson
(C) R. H. Whittakar
(D) W. M. Adams
Ans : (D)
110. The missing number in the following series :
0, 4, 18, 48, ?, 180 is—
(A) 58
(B) 68
(C) 84
(D) 100
Ans : (D)
111. Manas started a business investing Rs. 42,000. After 7 months, Kamal joined him with a capital of Rs. 50,000. At the end of the year, the total profit was Rs. 30,160. What is Kamal’s share in the profit ?
(A) Rs. 10,000
(B) Rs. 20,160
(C) Rs. 10,160
(D) Rs. 8,000
Ans : (A)
112. The author of ‘Nuclear Reactor Time Bomb’ is—
(A) C. C. Park
(B) E. P. Odum
(C) S. Polasky
(D) Takashi Hirose
Ans : (D)
113. The World Water Conservation Day is observed on—
(A) February 28
(B) March 22
(C) June 5
(D) July 11
Ans : (B)
114. The Periyar Game Sanctuary is renowned by—
(A) Lions
(B) Spotted deers
(C) Tigers
(D) Wild Elephants
Ans : (C)
115. Which one of the following cities has the largest slum population ?
(A) Bangalore
(B) Chennai
(C) Delhi
(D) Surat
Ans : (C)
116. Which one of the following is the most urbanized country of West Asia ?
(A) Israel
(B) Kuwait
(C) Qatar
(D) Saudi Arabia
Ans : (B)
117. Which of the following countries suffer from the acid rains ?
1. Canada
2. France
3. Norway
4. Germany
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Ans : (C)
118. The World Tiger Summit 2010 was held at—
(A) Bangkok
(B) Nairobi
(C) New Delhi
(D) Petersburg
Ans : (D)
119. According to the provisional figures of 2011 Census the lowest sex ratio in India is found in—
(A) Chandigarh
(B) Daman and Diu
(C) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(D) Haryana
Ans : (B)
120. Which one of the following States of India has recorded the maximum increase in literacy rate during 2001-11 ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Gujarat
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)
121. As per the provisional figures of 2011 Census the second most populous State of India is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Maharashtra
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)
122. Which of the following statements are correct according to the provisional figures of Census of India 2011 ? Use the codes given below to select the correct answer—
1. The lowest population is found in Lakshadweep.
2. Chandigarh has the highest population density.
3. Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density.
4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli has the highest decadal growth of population.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
123. According to the provisional figures of Census 2011 arrange the following districts of Uttar Pradesh in descending order of their population size and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
1. Allahabad
2. Azamgarh
3. Ghaziabad
4. Lucknow
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 1, 4, 3, 2
(C) 2, 3, 1, 4
(D) 4, 1, 2, 3
Ans : (A)
124. Buddha had delivered maximum sermons at—
(A) Vaishali
(B) Sravasti
(C) Kaushambi
(D) Rajgriha
Ans : (B)
125. The first Gupta ruler who issued coins was—
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta I
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Chandragupta II
Ans : (B)
126. The Prince who was responsible for the death of his father was—
(A) Ajatasatru
(B) Chandapradyota
(C) Prasenjit
(D) Udayana
Ans : (A)
127. Who among the following was the earliest Sufi Saint to have settled at Ajmer ?
(A) Sheikh Moinuddin Chisti
(B) Sheikh Qutbuddin Bakhti-yar Qaki
(C) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya
(D) Sheikh Salim Chisti
Ans : (A)
128. With which Mughal General did Shivaji sign the famous ‘Treaty of Purandhar’ in 1665 A.D. ?
(A) Jaswant Singh
(B) Jai Singh
(C) Shaishta Khan
(D) Diler Khan
Ans : (B)
129. During the 13th and 14th Centuries A.D. the Indian peasants did not cultivate—
(A) Wheat
(B) Barley
(C) Rice
(D) Maize
Ans : (D)
130. The writer of Mahabhasya ‘Patanjali’ was a contemporary of—
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Ashoka
(C) Pushyamitra Sunga
(D) Chandragupta-I
Ans : (C)
131. Gautama Buddha had attained Mahaparinibban in the State of—
(A) Anga
(B) Magadha
(C) Malla
(D) Vatsa
Ans : (C)
132. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ajmer : Quuwal-al-Islam
(B) Jaunpur : Atala Mosque
(C) Malwa : Jahaz Mahal
(D) Gulbarga : Jama Masjid
Ans : (A)
133. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Vikram Samvat began in 58 BC.
2. Saka Samvat began in 78 AD.
3. Gupta era began in 319 AD.
4. The era of Muslim rule in India began in 1192 AD.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
134. Which one of the following rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines ?
(A) Haider Ali
(B) Mir Qasim
(C) Shah Alam II
(D) Tipu Sultan
Ans : (D)
135. Who among the following was the one to have escaped being hanged in the ‘Kakori Conspiracy Case’ ?
(A) Ashfaqullah Khan
(B) Rajendra Lahiri
(C) Ram Prasad Bismil
(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad
Ans : (D)
136. Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D) Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (B)
137. Which Sultan of Delhi imposed Jaziya on the Brahmins also ?
(A) Balban
(B) Firoz Tughlaq
(C) Allauddin Khilji
(D) Mohammad bin Tughlaq
Ans : (B)
138. Who among the following was the founder of Agra ?
(A) Balban
(B) Bahlol Lodhi
(C) Sikandar Lodhi
(D) Firoz Tughlaq
Ans : (C)
139. The only session of the Indian National Congress which was addressed by Mahatma Gandhi was held at—
(A) Amravati
(B) Belgaum
(C) Karachi
(D) Nagpur
Ans : (B)
140. Who among the following leaders of the Revolution of 1857 had the real name of Ram Chandra Pandurang ?
(A) Kunwar Singh
(B) Nana Saheb
(C) Tatiya Tope
(D) Mangal Pandey
Ans : (C)
141. Who among the following led the agitation against the Partition of Bengal (1905) ?
(A) Surendranath Banerjee
(B) C. R. Das
(C) Ashutosh Mukherjee
(D) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Ans : (A)
142. Who among the following leaders escaped from the prison and organized underground activities during the ‘Quit India Movement’ ?
(A) J. B. Kriplani
(B) Ram Manohar Lohia
(C) Achyut Patwardhan
(D) Jai Prakash Narayan
Ans : (D)
143. Arrange the following in the chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. The August Offer
2. The Cabinet Mission Plan
3. The Cripps Mission Plan
4. The Wavell Plan
Codes :(A) 1, 2, 4, 3
(B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2
(D) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans : (C)
144. After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in—
(A) Champaran
(B) Chauri-Chaura
(C) Bardoli
(D) Dandi
Ans : (A)
145. Who among the following had led the Swadeshi Movement in Delhi ?
(A) Balgangadhar Tilak
(B) Ajit Singh
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) Syed Haider Raza
Ans : (D)
146. Who among the following had moved the Non cooperation resolution in the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress in 1920 ?
(A) C. R. Das
(B) Annie Besant
(C) B. C. Pal
(D) Madan Mohan Malviya
Ans : (A)
147. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Durga Das —The life of Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Louis Fischer —India From Curzon to Nehru and After
(C) Frank Moraes —Jawahar Lal Nehru (A Biography)
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad —India Divided
Ans : (C)
148. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) James Watt : Steam Engine
(B) A. G. Bell : Telephone
(C) J. L. Baird : Television
(D) J. Perkins : Penicillin
Ans : (D)
149. Who among the following had started ‘Mitra Mela’ Association ?
(A) Shyamji Krishna Verma
(B) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
(C) Lala Hardayal
(D) Sohan Singh Bhakna
Ans : (B)
150. The statement “I am a socialist and a republican and am no believer in Kings and Princes” is associated with—
(A) Narendra Dev
(B) Achyut Patwardhan
(C) Jai Prakash Narayan
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ans : (D)
Monday, September 26, 2011
Wednesday, September 21, 2011
Ecological Roles of Wetlands
Wetlands are among the most productive ecosystems in the world, comparable to rainforests and coral reefs. An immense variety of species of microbes, plants, insects, amphibians, reptiles, birds, fish, and mammals can be part of a wetland ecosystem. Physical and chemical features such as climate, landscape shape (topology), geology, and the movement and abundance of water help to determine the plants and animals that inhabit each wetland. The complex, dynamic relationships among the organisms inhabiting the wetland environment are referred to as food webs.
The functions of a wetland and the values of these functions to human society depend on a complex set of relationships between the wetland and the other ecosystems in the Watershed. A watershed is a geographic area in which water, sediments, and dissolved materials drain from higher elevations to a common low-lying outlet or basin a point on a larger stream, lake, underlying aquifer or estuary.
Wetlands play an integral role in the Ecology of the watershed. The combination of shallow water, high levels of nutrients, and primary productivity is ideal for the development of organisms that form the base of the food web and feed many species of fish, amphibians, shellfish, and insects. Many species of birds and mammals rely on wetlands for food, water, and shelter, especially during migration and breeding.
Wetlands' microbes, plants, and wildlife are part of global cycles for water, nitrogen, and sulfur. Furthermore, scientists are beginning to realize that atmospheric maintenance may be an additional wetlands function. Wetlands store Carbon within their plant communities and soil instead of releasing it to the atmosphere as carbon dioxide. Thus wetlands help to moderate global climate conditions.
Economic benefits of wetlands
Only recently have we begun to understand the importance of the functions that wetlands perform. Far from being useless, disease-ridden places, wetlands provide values that no other ecosystem can, including natural water quality improvement, flood protection, shoreline erosion control, opportunities for recreation and aesthetic appreciation, and natural products for our use at no cost. Wetlands can provide one or more of these functions. Protecting wetlands in turn can protect our safety and welfare. Water Quality and Hydrology
Wetlands have important filtering capabilities for intercepting surface water run off from higher dry land before the runoff reaches open water. As the runoff water passes through, the wetlands retain excess nutrients and some pollutants, and reduce sediment that would clog waterways and affect fish and amphibian egg development. In performing this filtering function, wetlands save us a great deal of money. For example, a 1990 study showed that without the Congaree Bottom land Hardwood Swamp in South Carolina, the area would need a US$5 million waste water treatment plant.
In addition to improving water quality through filtering, some wetlands maintain stream flow during dry periods, and many replenish Ground Water. Many Americans and yes, most of Indians depend on groundwater for drinking.
E – WASTE MANAGEMENT
Electronic waste or E-waste is one of the rapidly growing environmental problems of the World. In India, the electronic waste management assumes greater significance not only due to the generation of our own waste but also dumping of E-waste particularly computer waste from the developed countries.
Electronic waste which is popularly known as E-waste can be defined as electronic equipments, products connected with power plugs, batteries which have become obsolete etc. E-waste also encompasses ever growing range of obsolete electronic devices such as computers, servers, main frames, monitors, TVs and display devices, telecommunication devices such as cellular phones and pagers, calculators, audio and video devices, printers, scanners, copiers and fax machines besides refrigerators, air conditioners, washing machines, and microwave ovens. E-waste also covers recording devices such as DVDs, CDs, floppies, tapes, printing cartridges, military electronic waste, automobile catalytic converters, electronic components such as chips, processors, mother boards, printed circuit boards, industrial electronics such as sensors, alarms, sirens, security devices. E-waste contains over 1000 different substances many of which are toxic and require to be handled in an environmentally sound manner.Indian Scenario
There is an estimate that the total obsolete computers originating from offices, business houses, industries and household is of the order of 2 million. Manufactures and assemblers in a single calendar year are estimated to produce around 1200 tonnes of electronic scrap. The consumers finds it convenient to buy a new computer rather than upgrade the old one due to the changing configuration, technology and the attractive offers of the manufacturers. Due to the lack of governmental legislations on E-waste and standards for disposal, these toxic hi-tech products mostly end up in landfills or are partly recycled in a unhygienic conditions or thrown into waste streams.
The Government has notified the Hazardous Waste [Management & Handling] Rules, 1989 which were amended in 2000 and 2003 under the Environment [Protection] Act, 1986. These Rules regulate the generation, collection, storage, treatment, disposal, export and import of hazardous waste. According to these Rules, all hazardous wastes are required to be treated and disposed off in specially designed secured landfills. These Rules provide for the development of common hazardous waste treatment, storage and disposal facility thorough joint venture partnership. These industries are required to obtain authorization from the State Pollution Control Boards(SPCBs). Under the Rules, no import of hazardous waste is allowed for disposal and the same is only allowed for recycling, reuse or reprocessing.
Initiatives for Management of E-waste
The Ministry of Environment & Forests constituted a Task Force in August, 2007 to finalize the Guidelines for Environmentally Sound Management of E-waste. The Guidelines have been approved and placed on the web-site of the Ministry [www.envfor.nic.in] and Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) (cpcb.nic.in). They shall apply to all those who handle E-waste, which include generators, collectors, transporters, dismantlers, recyclers and stakeholders of E-waste irrespective of their scale of operation.E-waste contains several different substances many of which are toxic and potentially hazardous for environment and human health, if these are not handled in an environmentally sound manner. Classification of E-waste shall depend upon the extent of presence of hazardous constituents in it.
E-waste contains toxic substances such as lead and cadmium in circuit boards; lead oxide and cadmium in monitor Cathode Ray Tubes (CRTs); mercury in switches and flat biphenyls (PCBs) in capacitors and transformers and brominated flame retardant on printed circuit boards, plastic casing, cable and polyvinyl chloride (PVC) cable insulation that release highly toxic dioxins and furans when burned to retrieve copper from the wires.
The provisions under the Hazardous Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules 1989 as amended in 2000 and 2003 include E-waste. The residues and wastes generated from the operators in electronic industry are considered as hazardous wastes. All electronic manufacturing units are required to have authorization under these rules. Further, as per the provisions of these Rules, Electrical and Electronic Assemblies are covered under category B 1110 of the Schedule 2 applicable for Import and Export of Hazardous Wastes, and the wastes under this category are only permitted for direct reuse and not for recycling or final disposal.
The manufacture of electronic goods can lead to air pollution due to gaseous emission comprising of solvent vapours, emission from doping materials, particulate matter and other toxic emissions. And water pollution due to the effluents generated during the manufacturing processes along with the solid waste such as residues, sludge, filter cake, etc. during the manufacturing processes.
Release of Draft Guidelines for Green Large Area Development
Secretary, Ministry of New and Renewable Energy Shri Deepak Gupta released the “Draft Guidelines and benchmarks for green large area developments such as townships, neighbourhoods, educational and institutional campuses, special economic zones and medical college hospitals”. The Guidelines have been formulated by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy in association with the Association for Research and Development of Sustainable Habitats, ADaRSH. These guidelines will be useful for developing a campus or a township as a “Green Campus/Township”. The Guidelines include details of various incentives which are available under different schemes of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy for deployment of Solar Hot Water Systems, Roof Top PV System, Waste Recycling for Energy Generation, Solar Power Plants etc. while constructing green buildings and green campuses.
The large developments such as townships, educational and institutional campuses, medical colleges and hospitals and special economic zones go beyond building level and several macro issues need to be addressed if they have to be planned in a green way. Some of these issues are socioeconomics, hydrogeology & watershed development, urban ecology, comprehensive energy resource planning with effective utilisation of renewable energy resources, sustainable mobility systems, and project & construction management.
The National Mission on Sustainable Habitats intends to address holistic environment friendly development by harmonising Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) with building bye laws, mainstreaming efficient transportation modes and solid waste management programmes. The National Building Code of India is introducing a section on Sustainable Buildings and the Low Carbon Strategies for Inclusive growth spearheaded by the Planning Commission lays a road map for low carbon growth in the country. The Solar Cities programme of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is another flagship initiative to mainstream energy efficient solar cities.
The MNRE is also promoting Green Building and GRIHA Rating System through some promotional incentives under which 117 projects have been registered with 4.98 million sq. m built up area. All Central Government Buildings are to be constructed as green buildings with GRIHA rating. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is providing financial support for capacity building, awareness, exemption in rating-cum-evaluation fees, promotional incentives for architects, engineers etc. under the scheme.
The large developments such as townships, educational and institutional campuses, medical colleges and hospitals and special economic zones go beyond building level and several macro issues need to be addressed if they have to be planned in a green way. Some of these issues are socioeconomics, hydrogeology & watershed development, urban ecology, comprehensive energy resource planning with effective utilisation of renewable energy resources, sustainable mobility systems, and project & construction management.
The National Mission on Sustainable Habitats intends to address holistic environment friendly development by harmonising Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) with building bye laws, mainstreaming efficient transportation modes and solid waste management programmes. The National Building Code of India is introducing a section on Sustainable Buildings and the Low Carbon Strategies for Inclusive growth spearheaded by the Planning Commission lays a road map for low carbon growth in the country. The Solar Cities programme of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is another flagship initiative to mainstream energy efficient solar cities.
The MNRE is also promoting Green Building and GRIHA Rating System through some promotional incentives under which 117 projects have been registered with 4.98 million sq. m built up area. All Central Government Buildings are to be constructed as green buildings with GRIHA rating. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is providing financial support for capacity building, awareness, exemption in rating-cum-evaluation fees, promotional incentives for architects, engineers etc. under the scheme.
National River Conservation Plan (NRCP)
The Centrally sponsored Scheme of National River Conservation Plan (NRCP) is being implemented by the central Government jointly with the State Government on a cost-sharing basis. The pollution abatement works under NRCP presently cover identified polluted stretches of 39 major rivers in 185 towns spread over 20 States in the country. The sanctioned cost of the projects under NRCP is Rs . 8100.48 crore (including Rs.433 croreincurred under GAP-I). A sewage treatment capacity of 4417 mld has been created under River Action Plans.
Pollution Abatement Works So far
The following pollution abatement works are taken up:
(i) Interception and Diversion works to capture the raw sewage flowing into the river through open drains and divert them for treatment . (I&D)
(ii) Sewage Treatment Plants for treating the diverted sewage. (STP)
(iii) Low Cost Sanitation works to prevent open defecation on river banks . (LCS)
(iv) Electric Crematoria and Improved Wood Crematoria and Improved Wood Crematoria to conserve the use of wood and help in ensuring proper cremation of bodies brought to the buring ghats. (EC&IWC)
(v) River Front Development works such as improvement of bathing ghats etc. (RED)
(vi) Other Measures like plantation, public awareness etc.
Funding Pattern for NRCP
The funding pattern for the river cleaning programme has undergone several changes over the years. The GAP Phase I which started in 1985 was a 100% Centrally funded scheme. The funding pattern has changed to 50:50 between the Central Government and the State Governments in 1993. This was revised again to 100% GOI funding w.e.f. 01.04.1997. The funding pattern is 70:30 between Centre and States with effect from 01.04.2001. The Yamuna Action Plan is being implemented with a funding pattern of 85:15 between the Central Government and the State Governments.
Fund Outlay for NRCP in XI Plan
An amount of Rs. 2065 crore has been provided in the XI Plan (2007-2012) for works under NRCP against the estimated requirement of Rs. 8303 crores, as assessed in the Report by the Working Group on Rivers, Lakes and Aquifers constituted by the Planning Commission.
Shortcomings in Implementation
A town approach adopted instead of a holistic river basin approach before constitution of the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA).
(i) Increasing gap between requirement of Sewage treatment infrastructure and actual pollution load being tackled due to continuous increase in population in towns along the river banks, inadequate financial resources invested in river cleaning.
(ii) Delays in completion of schemes due to lack of inter-agency coordination at field level, delays in acquisition of land for STPs & Pumping stations, contractual problems, court cases, etc. leading to cost overruns.
(iii) Shortage of Skilled manpower and regular staff and inadequate provision of funds by the States and ULBs for O&M of the sewage treatment infrastructure.
(iv) Erratic/ non-availability of power supply for operation of operation of assets, under – utilization of STPs, in some cases , due to non-conveyance of sewage generated in the absence of upstream systems such as branch sewers & house connections.
(v) Lack of involvement of civil society in the programme.
Pollution Abatement Works So far
The following pollution abatement works are taken up:
(i) Interception and Diversion works to capture the raw sewage flowing into the river through open drains and divert them for treatment . (I&D)
(ii) Sewage Treatment Plants for treating the diverted sewage. (STP)
(iii) Low Cost Sanitation works to prevent open defecation on river banks . (LCS)
(iv) Electric Crematoria and Improved Wood Crematoria and Improved Wood Crematoria to conserve the use of wood and help in ensuring proper cremation of bodies brought to the buring ghats. (EC&IWC)
(v) River Front Development works such as improvement of bathing ghats etc. (RED)
(vi) Other Measures like plantation, public awareness etc.
Funding Pattern for NRCP
The funding pattern for the river cleaning programme has undergone several changes over the years. The GAP Phase I which started in 1985 was a 100% Centrally funded scheme. The funding pattern has changed to 50:50 between the Central Government and the State Governments in 1993. This was revised again to 100% GOI funding w.e.f. 01.04.1997. The funding pattern is 70:30 between Centre and States with effect from 01.04.2001. The Yamuna Action Plan is being implemented with a funding pattern of 85:15 between the Central Government and the State Governments.
Fund Outlay for NRCP in XI Plan
An amount of Rs. 2065 crore has been provided in the XI Plan (2007-2012) for works under NRCP against the estimated requirement of Rs. 8303 crores, as assessed in the Report by the Working Group on Rivers, Lakes and Aquifers constituted by the Planning Commission.
Shortcomings in Implementation
A town approach adopted instead of a holistic river basin approach before constitution of the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA).
(i) Increasing gap between requirement of Sewage treatment infrastructure and actual pollution load being tackled due to continuous increase in population in towns along the river banks, inadequate financial resources invested in river cleaning.
(ii) Delays in completion of schemes due to lack of inter-agency coordination at field level, delays in acquisition of land for STPs & Pumping stations, contractual problems, court cases, etc. leading to cost overruns.
(iii) Shortage of Skilled manpower and regular staff and inadequate provision of funds by the States and ULBs for O&M of the sewage treatment infrastructure.
(iv) Erratic/ non-availability of power supply for operation of operation of assets, under – utilization of STPs, in some cases , due to non-conveyance of sewage generated in the absence of upstream systems such as branch sewers & house connections.
(v) Lack of involvement of civil society in the programme.
Tuesday, September 13, 2011
CIRUS reactor
CIRUS (Canada India Research Utility Services) is a research reactor at the Bhabha Atomic Research Center (BARC) in Trombay near Mumbai, India. CIRUS was supplied by Canada in 1954, but uses heavy water supplied by the U.S.. It is the second oldest reactor in India. It is modeled on the Canadian Chalk River National Research X-perimental (NRX) reactor.The 40 MW reactor burns natural uranium fuel, while using heavy water (deuterium) as a moderator. It is a tank reactor type with a core size of 3.14 m (H)x2.67 m (D). It first went critical July 10, 1960.
The reactor is not under IAEA safeguards (which did not exist when the reactor was sold), although Canada stipulated, and the U.S. supply contract for the heavy water explicitly specified, that it only be used for peaceful purposes. Nonetheless CIRUS has produced some of India's initial weapon plutonium stockpile, as well as the plutonium for India's 1974 Pokhran-I (Codename Smiling Buddha) nuclear test, the country's first nuclear test. At a capacity factor of 50-80%, CIRUS can produce 6.6-10.5 kg of plutonium a year.
CIRUS was shut down in September 1997 for refurbishment and was scheduled to resume operation in 2003. The reactor was brought back into operation two years late in 2005. During refurbishing, a low temperature vacuum evaporation-based desalination unit was also coupled to the reactor to serve as demonstration of using waste heat from a research reactor for sea desalination. Even if the reactor has a life of twenty more years, India has declared that this reactor will be shut down by 2010 in accordance with the Indo-US nuclear accord reached between Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and US President George W. Bush. The reactor was shut down on 31st December 2010.
The reactor is not under IAEA safeguards (which did not exist when the reactor was sold), although Canada stipulated, and the U.S. supply contract for the heavy water explicitly specified, that it only be used for peaceful purposes. Nonetheless CIRUS has produced some of India's initial weapon plutonium stockpile, as well as the plutonium for India's 1974 Pokhran-I (Codename Smiling Buddha) nuclear test, the country's first nuclear test. At a capacity factor of 50-80%, CIRUS can produce 6.6-10.5 kg of plutonium a year.
CIRUS was shut down in September 1997 for refurbishment and was scheduled to resume operation in 2003. The reactor was brought back into operation two years late in 2005. During refurbishing, a low temperature vacuum evaporation-based desalination unit was also coupled to the reactor to serve as demonstration of using waste heat from a research reactor for sea desalination. Even if the reactor has a life of twenty more years, India has declared that this reactor will be shut down by 2010 in accordance with the Indo-US nuclear accord reached between Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and US President George W. Bush. The reactor was shut down on 31st December 2010.
History of Rajya Sabha
Ans: On 3 April 1952.
Ans: On 13 May 1952.
Ans: On 23 August 1954. The Chairman, Rajya Sabha made an announcement in the House that the Council of States would now be called ‘Rajya Sabha’ in Hindi.
Ans: Dr. S. Radhakrishnan. He was the only Chairman to have two terms (13.5.1952-12.5.1962).
Ans: Shri S.V.Krishnamoorthy Rao (31.5.1952 - 2.4.1956 & 25.4.1956 - 1.3.1962).
Composition of Rajya Sabha
Ans: Two hundred and fifty (250), of which 238 are to be elected and 12 are to be nominated by the President of India.
Ans: Two hundred and forty five (245), of which 233 are elected and 12 are nominated.
Ans: The allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha to the States is based on population. It is given in the Fourth Schedule to the Constitution, which is as follows:
States | No. of seats |
Andhra Pradesh | 18 |
Arunachal Pradesh | 1 |
Assam | 7 |
Bihar | 16 |
Chhattisgarh | 5 |
Goa | 1 |
Gujarat | 11 |
Haryana | 5 |
Himachal Pradesh | 3 |
Jammu and Kashmir | 4 |
Jharkhand | 6 |
Karnataka | 12 |
Kerala | 9 |
Madhya Pradesh | 11 |
Maharashtra | 19 |
Manipur | 1 |
Meghalaya | 1 |
Mizoram | 1 |
Nagaland | 1 |
Orissa | 10 |
Punjab | 7 |
Rajasthan | 10 |
Sikkim | 1 |
Tamil Nadu | 18 |
Tripura | 1 |
| Uttarakhand | 3 |
Uttar Pradesh | 31 |
West Bengal | 16 |
Ans: In total four members are elected from the Union territories (3 from Delhi and 1 from Puducherry). However, currently one seat from Delhi and one from Puducherry is vacant. Other Union territories are not represented in Rajya Sabha.
Ans: Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution; as nearly as possible, one-third of its members retire every second year.
Ans: It is six years; but a member elected in a bye-election serves for the remainder of the term of the vacancy caused.
Ans: It is one-tenth of the total members of the House, i.e., 25 members.
Ans: Indian National Congress.
Officers of Rajya Sabha
Ans: The Vice-President is the ex officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Ans: The Vice-President is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
Ans: The Vice-President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
Ans: Shri Mohammad Hamid Ansari
Ans: The Deputy Chairman is elected by the members of Rajya Sabha from amongst its members.
Ans: While the office of Chairman is vacant, or during any period when the Vice-President is acting as, or discharging the functions of the President, the duties of the office of the Chairman are performed by the Deputy Chairman.
Ans: Shri K. Rahman Khan
Who presides over the proceedings of the Rajya Sabha in the absence of both the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman?Ans: Under Rule 8 of the of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha),the Chairman, Rajya Sabha nominates six members on the panel of Vice-Chairmen, one of whom presides over the House in the absence of both the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman. When neither the Chairman nor the Deputy Chairman and none of the Vice Chairmen is present to preside, the House may decide about any other member present to preside.
Ans: Dr. Manmohan Singh
Ans: Leader of the House plays an important role in drawing up the programme of official business in the House. Normally, the Prime Minister nominates a Minister who is a member of the Rajya Sabha as Leader of the House, but if the Prime Minister himself is a member of Rajya Sabha, he will act as the Leader of the House.
Ans: Shri Arun Jaitley.
Ans: Dr. Vivek Kumar Agnihotri
Ans: The Secretary-General is appointed by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha and holds a rank equivalent to the Cabinet Secretary, the highest civil servant of the Union Government.
Ans: He assists the Presiding Officers in conducting the proceedings of the House by giving them advice and expert opinion. He does not participate in the debate except for reporting messages from the Lok Sabha about Bills or any other matter. All notices under the rules are addressed to him. He is the custodian of the records of the House. He prepares full report of the proceedings of the House and also issues the List of Business for the day. He is the administrative head of the Rajya Sabha Secretariat.
Members of Rajya Sabha
Ans: Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Assemblies of States and Union territories in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
Ans: He should be a citizen of India above 30 years of age and possessing such other qualifications as may be prescribed by law of Parliament.
Ans: No. It is no longer essential. He has to be an elector in a parliamentary constituency anywhere in India .
Ans: Yes, there are twelve members nominated by the President of India from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art and social service.
Ans: While the nominated members of Rajya Sabha have a right to vote in the election of the Vice-President of India, they are not entitled to vote in the election of the President of India.
Ans: Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale (1952-56 and 1956-62).
Ans: Eleven(11).Shri Shyam Benegal , Smt. Shobhana Bhartia , Prof. M. S. Swaminathan and Dr. (Smt.) Kapila Vatsyayan, Shri H. K. Dua, Dr. Ashok Sekhar Ganguly, Shri Mani Shankar Aiyar, Shri Javed Akhtar, Smt. B. Jayashree, Dr. Ram Dayal Munda and Dr. Bhalchandra Mungekar.
Ans: Fourteen(14). They are: Dr. Manmohan Singh, Shri Anand Sharma, Shri A. K. Antony, Smt. Ambika Soni, Shri G. K. Vasan, Shri Ghulam Nabi Azad, Shri Jairam Ramesh, Dr. M.S.Gill, Shri Mukul Roy, Shri Murli Deora, Shri Prithviraj Chavan,Shri Vilasrao Deshmukh, Shri S.M. Krishna and Shri Vayalar Ravi.
Ans. A Minister who is a Member of Lok Sabha has the right to speak in and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of Rajya Sabha but has no right to vote in Rajya Sabha and vice versa.
Ans: Twenty-five (25); 10.5%
Ans: Shri Saman Pathak
Ans: Shri Rishang Keishing.
Ans: : Shri S.S. Ahluwalia.
Ans: Shri Rishang Keishing.
Ans: If any question arises as to whether a member of the House has become subject to disqualification under article 102 (1), the question is referred for the decision of the President and his decision is final. Before giving any decision on any such question, the President obtains the opinion of the Election Commission of India and acts according to such opinion. If under article 102 (2) any question arises as to whether a member of the House has become subject to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, the question is referred to the Chairman, Rajya Sabha and his decision is final.
Role and functions of Rajya Sabha
Ans: Rajya Sabha being a federal chamber - representing States/Union territories, enjoys certain special powers: (i) to empower Parliament to make laws in respect of any matter enumerated in the State List in the national interest by adopting a resolution to this effect (article 249), (ii) creation of All India Services (article 312) and (iii) approving Proclamations (issued under article 352 or article 356 or article 360) if the Lok Sabha stand dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for the approval of the Proclamation by Parliament.
Ans: In legislative matters, Rajya Sabha enjoys almost equal powers with Lok Sabha, except in the case of Money Bills where the latter has overriding powers. Such Bills cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha and are deemed to have been passed if these are not returned to Lok Sabha within fourteen days.
Ans: Yes. In the case of Bills, a disagreement between the two Houses may arise when a Bill passed by one House is rejected by the other House; or the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the Bill; or more than six months lapse from the date of the reception of the Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it.
Ans: A joint sitting of the Houses is convened for this purpose. In the case of Money Bills, there is no question of a deadlock as the Rajya Sabha has a limited say in such matters. There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of a deadlock over a Constitution Amendment Bill.
Ans: In the history of Parliament of India, there have been three occasions when both Houses of Parliament held a joint sitting to resolve deadlock on Bills between them, i.e., (i) 6 and 9 May 1961 on the Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1959; (ii) 17 May 1978 on the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1977; and (iii) 26 March 2002 on the Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002.
Ans: A Money Bill is introduced only in Lok Sabha and after it is passed by that House, it is transmitted to Rajya Sabha for its concurrence or recommendation. Rajya Sabha has to return the Money Bill to Lok Sabha within a period of fourteen days from its receipt. Rajya Sabha cannot amend the Money Bill directly; it can only recommend amendments to the Bill. Lok Sabha may either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha. If Lok Sabha accepts any of the recommendations made by Rajya Sabha, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses with the amendments so recommended and accepted. If, however, Lok Sabha does not accept any of the recommendations of Rajya Sabha, the Money Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses of Parliament in the form in which it was passed by Lok Sabha without any of the amendments recommended by Rajya Sabha.
Committees
Ans. Parliamentary Committees of the Rajya Sabha may be categorized as ad hoc Committees and Standing Committees.
What are ad hoc Committees?Ans: Ad hoc Committees are those Committees which may be constituted by the House or by the Chairman or by the Presiding Officers of both Houses jointly to consider and report on specific matters. Such Committees become functus officio as soon as they complete their work. These Committees may be divided into two categories: (a) Select/Joint Committees on Bills constituted by the House(s) on specific motion to consider and report on Bills; and (b) Committees which are constituted from time to time to enquire into and report on specific subjects.
Ans: Standing Committees are permanent Committees whose members are either elected by the House or nominated by the Chairman every year or from time to time. These are: Business Advisory Committee, General Purposes Committee, Committee on Government assurances, House Committee, Committee on Petitions, Committee on Subordinate Legislation, Committee on Papers Laid on the Table, Committee of Privileges, Committee on Rules, Committee on Ethics, Committee on Provision of Computers to Members of Rajya Sabha, Committee on Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme and the Department-related Standing Committees.
Ans. DRSCs were set up in 1993 to scrutinize the functioning of the various Ministries/ Departments of the Union Government assigned to them in order to further strengthen the accountability of the Government to Parliament.
Ans: Twenty-four DRSCs have been constituted consisting of not more than thirty-one members, out of which twenty-one members are nominated by the Speaker, Lok Sabha and ten members are nominated by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha.
Ans: These Committees are entrusted with the following functions:
(a) to consider the Demands for Grants of the related Ministries/ Departments and report thereon;
(b) to examine Bills, pertaining to the related Ministries/ Departments, referred to the Committee and report thereon;
(c) to consider the annual reports of the Ministries/ Departments and report thereon; and
(d) to consider national basic long term policy documents and report thereon.
Ans: Eight DRSCs function under the control and direction of the Chairman, Rajya Sabha, while sixteen such Committees function under the control and direction of the Speaker, Lok Sabha.
Ans: Details of the Committees and the Ministries/Departments under them are given as under:
Sl. No. | Name of the Committee | Ministries/ Departments |
1 | Committee on Commerce | Commerce and Industry |
2 | Committee on Home Affairs | (1) Home Affairs (2) Development of North- Eastern Region |
3 | Committee on Human Resource Development | (1) Human Resource Development (2) Youth Affairs and Sports (3) Women and Child Development |
4 | Committee on Industry | (1) Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises (2) Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME) |
5 | Committee on Science & Technology, Environment & Forests | (1) Science and Technology (2) Space (3) Ocean Development (4) Atomic Energy (5) Environment and Forests (6) Earth Sciences |
6 | Committee on Transport, Tourism & Culture | (1) Civil Aviation (2) Shipping, Road Transport and Highways (3) Tourism and Culture |
7 | Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law & Justice | (1)Law and Justice (2)Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions |
8 | Committee on Health and Family Welfare | Health and Family Welfare |
Ans: The Chairman, Rajya Sabha is the Chairman of the Business Advisory Committee, General Purposes Committee and Committee on Rules. The Deputy Chairman is the Chairman of the Committee of Privileges. In the case of other Standing Committees, namely, Committee on Petitions, Committee on Government Assurances, Committee on Subordinate Legislation, Committee on Papers Laid on the Table and the House Committee, the Chairmanship is shared between the ruling and the opposition parties in proportion to their numerical strength in the House. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha appoints Chairman of Committees in consultation with the leaders of parties/groups concerned. The Chairmanship of Committees allotted to the opposition parties may rotate amongst themselves.
What are the functions of the Committee on Ethics?
Ans. Under Rule 290 of the Rule of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States, the Committee on Ethics has the following functions:
(i) to oversee the moral and ethical conduct of members:
(ii) to prepare a Code of Conduct for members and to suggest amendments or additions to the Code from time to time in the form of reports to the Council;
(iii) to examine cases concerning the alleged breach of the Code of Conduct by members as also cases concerning allegations of any other ethical misconduct of members; and
(iv) to tender advice to members from time to time on questions involving ethical standards either suo motu or on receiving specific requests.
Ans The Committee may recommend imposition of one or more of the following sanctions, viz.
(a) censure;
(b) reprimand;
(c) suspension from the Council for a specific period; and
(d) any other sanction determined by the Committee to be appropriate.
Is there any Code of Conduct for Members enumerated by the Committee on Ethics which was adopted by Rajya Sabha?Ans: Yes. The Code of Conduct is as follows:
The Members of Rajya Sabha should acknowledge their responsibility to maintain the public trust reposed in them and should work diligently to discharge their mandate for common good of the people. They must hold in high esteem the Constitution, the Law, Parliamentary Institutions and above all the general public. They should constantly strive to translate the ideals laid down in the Preamble to the Constitution into a reality. The following are the principles which they should abide by in their dealings:
(i) Members must not do anything that brings disrepute to the Parliament and affects their credibility.
(ii) Members must utilise their position as Members of Parliament to advance general well-being of the people.
(iii) In their dealing if Members find that there is a conflict between their personal interests and the public trust which they hold, they should resolve such a conflict in a manner that their private interests are subordinated to the duty of their public office.
(iv) Members should always see that their private financial interests and those of the members of their immediate family do not come in conflict with the public interest and if any such conflict ever arises, they should try to resolve such a conflict in a manner that the public interest is not jeopardised.
(v) Members should never expect or accept any fee, remuneration or benefit for a vote given by them on the floor of the House, for introducing a Bill, for moving a resolution or desisting from moving a resolution, putting a question or abstaining from asking a question or participating in the deliberations of the House or a Parliamentary Committee.
(vi) Members should not take a gift which may interfere with honest and impartial discharge of their official duties. They may, however, accept incidental gifts or inexpensive mementoes and customary hospitality.
(vii) Member holding public offices should use public resources in such a manner as may lead to public good.
(viii) If Members are in possession of a confidential information owing to their being Members of Parliament or Members of Parliamentary Committees, they should not disclose such information for advancing their personal interests.
(ix) Members should desist from giving certificates to individuals and institutions of which they have no personal knowledge and are not based on facts.
(x) Members should not lend ready support to any cause of which they have no or little knowledge.
(xi) Members should not misuse the facilities and amenities made available to them.
(xii) Members should not be disrespectful to any religion and work for the promotion of secular values.
(xiii) Members should keep uppermost in their mind the Fundamental Duties listed in Part IVA of the Constitution.
(xiv) Members are expected to maintain high standards of morality, dignity, decency and values in public life.
In pursuance of the Rajya Sabha (Declaration of Assets and Liabilities) Rules, 2004, what information is required to be furnished by Members to the Chairman, Rajya Sabha?Ans: Under Rule 3 of the Members of the Rajya Sabha (Declaration of Assets and Liabilities) Rules, 2004, every elected member of Rajya Sabha is required to furnish the following information to the Chairman, Rajya Sabha within 90 days from the date of his taking oath/affirmation –
(a) the movable and immovable property of which he, his spouse and his dependent children are jointly or severally owners or beneficiaries;
(b) his liabilities to any public financial institution; and
(c) his liabilities to the Central Government or to the State Governments.
What arethe pecuniary interests and the ingredients thereof, identified by the Committee on Ethics, in respect of which information is to be furnished by Members? Ans: The Committee on Ethics has identified the following five pecuniary interests and the ingredients thereof, in respect of which information is to be furnished by Members for registration in the ‘Register of Member’s Interests’ under sub-rule (1) of Rule 293 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States:-
I. Remunerative Directorship
Name and address of the company
Nature of company business
Salary/fees/allowance/benefits or
any other receipts which are taxable (per annum)
II. Regular Remunerated Activity
Name and address of the Establishment
Nature of business
Position held
Amount of remuneration received (per annum)
III. Shareholding of Controlling Nature
Name and address of the company
Nature of business of the company
Percentage of shares held
IV. Paid Consultancy
Name of consultancy
Business activity of the organisation
Where engaged as Consultant
Total value of benefits derived from the
Consultancy
V. Professional Engagement
Description
Fee/Remuneration earned therefrom (per annum)
Ans: Yes. Under the said Rule, information that Members furnish has to be in respect of their pecuniary interests, whether held within the country or outside.
Legislation
Ans: A Bill is a legislative proposal brought before the House for its approval.
Ans: The Bills initiated by Ministers are called Government Bills and those introduced by Members who are not Ministers, are known as Private Members’ Bills. Depending on their contents, Bills may further be classified broadly into (a) original Bills which embody new proposals, (b) amending Bills which seek to amend existing Acts, (c) consolidating Bills which seek to consolidate existing law on a particular subject, (d) Expiring Laws (Continuance) Bills which, otherwise, would expire on a specified date, (e) repealing Bills, (f) Bills to replace Ordinances, (g) Money and financial Bills and (h) Constitution Amendment Bills.
Ans: A Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament becomes an Act only after it has been assented to by the President.
Ans: A Bill while being considered has to undergo three stages in each House of Parliament. The first stage is the Introduction, which is done on a motion moved by either a Minister or a Member.
During the second stage any of the following motions can be moved: that the Bill be taken into consideration; or that it be referred to a Select Committee of Rajya Sabha; or that it be referred to a Joint Committee of the two Houses; or that it be circulated for the purpose of eliciting opinion thereon. Thereafter, the Bill is taken up for the clause-by-clause consideration as introduced or as reported by the Select/Joint Committee.
The third stage is confined to the discussion on the motion that the Bill be passed and the Bill is passed/rejected either by voting or voice vote (or returned to Lok Sabha, in the case of a Money Bill).
Ans: The Chairman has a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.
Ans: In Rajya Sabha, generally four methods of voting are adopted: Voice vote, Counting, Division by automatic vote recorder and Division by going into the Lobbies
Ans:
a. Bills originating in Rajya Sabha which are still pending in that House do not lapse on the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
b. Bills originating in Rajya Sabha which having been passed by the House and transmitted to Lok Sabha and pending there lapse on the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
c. Bills originating in Lok Sabha which having been passed by that House and transmitted to Rajya Sabha and still pending there on the date of dissolution of Lok Sabha, lapse.
d. Bills originating in Rajya Sabha and returned to that House by Lok Sabha with amendments and still pending there on the date of its dissolution, lapse.
e. A Bill upon which the Houses have disagreed and the President has notified his intention to summon a Joint Sitting of the Houses to consider the Bill prior to dissolution does not lapse on dissolution of Lok Sabha.
f. A Bill passed by the two Houses of Parliament and sent to the President for assent does not lapse on the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
g. A Bill returned by the President to Rajya Sabha for reconsideration of the Houses does not lapse if the dissolution of Lok Sabha takes place without the Houses having considered the Bill
Procedure for raising Matters of Public Interest
Ans: Rule 180 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Rajya Sabha provides that a Member may with the previous permission of the Chairman call the attention of a Minister to any matter of urgent public importance and the Minister may make a brief statement or ask for time to make a statement at a later hour or date. The Calling Attention is an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure.
Ans: Under Rules 180A - 180E, a Member may mention a matter of public importance in the House; he has to give a notice in writing along with the text of the matter to be raised not exceeding 250 words. No member is permitted to make more than one Special Mention during a week.
Ans: Rules 167-174 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Rajya Sabha provide that no discussion on a matter of general public interest shall take place except on a motion made with the consent of the Chairman.
The term ‘motion’ in parliamentary parlance means any proposal made for the purpose of eliciting a decision of the House. It is phrased in such a way that, if passed, it will purport to express the will of the House.
Ans: Motions may be classified as Substantive or Subsidiary. A substantive motion is a self-contained proposal made in reference to a subject which the mover wishes to bring forward. A subsidiary motion as its name suggests, relates to a substantive motion.
Ans: If the Chairman admits notice of a motion and no date is fixed for the discussion on such a motion, it is immediately notified in the Bulletin Pt. II under the heading‘No-Day-Yet-Named-Motion’ Date and time is allotted for discussion on such motions by the Chairman, in consultation with the Leader of the House after taking into consideration the state of business before the House.
Ans: The House declares its own opinions and purposes by its resolutions. Every question, when agreed to, by the House, assumes the form of either a resolution or an order.
Resolutions may be categorized as: Private Members’ Resolutions (which are moved by a member not a Minister); Government Resolutions (which are moved by Ministers); and Statutory Resolutions (which are moved in pursuance of a provision contained in the Constitution or an Act of Parliament).
Ans: The President of India addresses both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session after a new Lok Sabha has been constituted and also at the commencement of first session each year. The matters referred to in the President’s Address to the Houses are discussed on a Motion of Thanks moved by a Member and seconded by another Member.
Ans: A Point of Order is a point relating to the interpretation or enforcement of the Rules of Procedure or such articles of the Constitution as regulate the business of the House and submitted to the decision of the Chair. Rule 258 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Rajya Sabha makes a provision to enable a member to raise a point of order. Any member may at any time submit a point of order for the decision of the Chairman, but in doing so, shall confine himself to stating the point. The Chairman shall decide all points of order which may arise, and his decision shall be final.
Ans: Rule 230 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Rajya Sabha explains Dilatory motion. At any time after a motion has been made, a member may move that the debate on the motion be adjourned. If the Chairman is of opinion that a motion for the adjournment of a debate is an abuse of the rules of the Council, he may either forthwith put the question thereon from the Chair or decline to propose the question.
Ans: Rules 176-179 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Rajya Sabha explains about the short duration discussion. If the Chairman is satisfied, after calling for such information from the member who has given notice and from the Minister as he may consider necessary, that the matter is urgent and is of sufficient public importance to be raised in the Council at an early date, he may admit the notice and in consultation with the Leader of the Council fix the date on which such matter may be taken up for discussion and allow such time for discussion, not exceeding two and a half hours, as he may consider appropriate in the circumstances.
Ans: He has to give a notice about it on a prescribed form at least 15 days before he wants to ask question.
Ans: A question for which an oral answer is desired by a member is distinguished by an asterisk and is called a starred question. A question without an asterisk is called unstarred and is admitted for written answers.
Ans: The Chairman, Rajya Sabha decides whether a question or a part thereof is or is not admissible. He may disallow any question or a part thereof when, in his opinion, it is an abuse of the right of questioning or calculated to obstruct or prejudicially affect the procedure of the House or is in contravention of the rules under the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of the Council of States(Rajya Sabha). The Chairman may direct that a question be placed on the list of questions for answers, on a date later than that specified by a member in his notice, if he is of the opinion that a longer period is necessary to decide whether the question is or is not admissible.
Ans: The total number of questions to be admitted for any one day shall be limited to 175, of which 20 would be for oral answers and 155 for written answers.
Questions on Parliamentary Privileges
Ans: Each House of Parliament collectively and the Members individually, enjoy certain powers and privileges without which they may not be able to discharge their functions, efficiently and effectively. Article 105 of the Constitution deals with such powers, privileges and immunities of Members of Parliament.
Ans: No law so far has been enacted by Parliament (and State Legislatures) to define the powers, privileges and immunities available to each House, its Members and Committees thereof.
Ans: When any of the privileges either of the Members individually or of the House in its collective capacity are disregarded or attacked by any individual or authority, the offence is called a breach of privilege.
Any obstruction or impediment put before Houses or its Members in due discharge of their duties, or which have a tendency of producing such result, may amount to contempt of the House.
Ans: The procedure for dealing with a question of privilege is laid down in Rule 187 – 203 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Rajya Sabha. A question of privilege may either be considered and decided by the House itself or it may be referred to the Committee of Privileges by the Chairman for examination, investigation and report.
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