1. The creator of Sherlock Holmes' was-
(a) Shakespeare (b) Dr. Watson
(c) Ian Fleming (d) Arthur Conan Doyle
2. Which of the following is not written by Munshi Premchand ?
(a) Gaban (b) Godan
(c) Mansarovar (d) Guide
3. The Parliament of Afghanistan is-
(a) Senate (b) Majlis
(c) Shora (d) National Assembly
4. Amnesty International has its headquarters at-
(a) New York (b) London (NDA
(c) Washington (d) Berlin
5. The first Secretary General of UNO was-
(a) U. Thant (b) Trygve Lie
(c) Kurtt Waldheim (d) Dag Hamarskjoeld
6. The first multipurpose project of India is-
(a) Damodar Valley Project (b) Rihand Project
(c) Bhakra-Nangal Project (d) Hirakund Project
7. The International Rice Research Institute is located in-
(a) Malaysia (b) Thailand
(c) Indonesia (d) Philippines
8. The Yellow Stone National Park is in-
(a) U. S. A. (b) France
(c) China (d) Maldives
9. World Resources Institute is located at-
(a) Oslo (b) Brussels
(c) New York (d) None of these
10. Which of the following cities was known earlier as 'Pearl of the An tiles' ?
(a) Mumbai (b) Cuba
(c) Manila (d) Shanghai
11. The famous Sphinx is located at-
(a) Saudi Arabia (b) Egypt
(c) Italy (d) Thailand
12. First Olympic games were held in-
(a) 776 B. C. (b) 798 B. C.
(c) 876 B. C. (d) 898 B. C.
13. With which sport the term 'Caddie' is associated ?
(a) Polo (b) Golf
(c) Bridge (d) Billiards
14. India first took part of the Olympic Games in the year-
(a) 1920 (b) 1928
(c) 1972 (d) 1974
15. R. K. Laxman is a renowned-
(a) Journalist (b) Writer
(c) Cartoonist (d) None of these
16. Which of the following animals was not native to India ?
(a) Elephant (b) Horse
(c) Rhinoceros (d) Tiger
17. Which of the following states is highly flood prone as well as drought prone ?
(a) West Bengal (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Bihar
18. Which one of the following is known as the "Manchester of India" ?
(a) Ahmadabad (b) Sholapur
(c) Coimbator (d) Mumbai
19. In which city the telephone instruments manufactured ?
(a) Hyderabad (b) Chennai
(c) Bangalore (d) Patna
20. The largest coal producing state in India is-
(a) Jharkhand (b) West Bengal
(c) Bihar (d) Orissa
21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley ?
(a) Cauvery (b) Narmada
(c) Kosi (d) Godavari
22. Which of the following countries is the largest producer of coal ?
(a) Russia (b) China
(c) S. Africa (d) India
23. The average elevation of Tibetan Plateau above sea level is-
(a) 2 Km (b) 3 Km
(c) 4 Km (d) 5 Km
24. The equator passes through which of the following continents ?
(a) Africa (b) Australia
(c) Europe (d) North America
25. The smallest country in the south America is-
(a) Uruguay (b) Guiana
(c) Surinam (d) Equador
26. The strait which separates Africa from Europe is-
(a) Hook strait (b) Strait of Gibralter
(c) Palk strait (d) Bering strait
27. Days and Nights are equal throughout the globe when the sun is above-
(a) Poles (b) Tropic of cancer
(c) Equator (d) Tropic of Capricorn
28. In which of the following industries is the maximum number of women employed in India ?
(a) Textiles (b) Jute
(c) Tea (d) Coal
29. Seasonal unemployment refers to-
(a) Banks (b) Agriculture
(c) Public Sector (d) Private Sector
30. Bank rate policy is a component of-
(a) Trade Policy (b) Fiscal Policy
(c) Monetary Policy (d) None of these
31. The goals of monetary policy do not include-
(a) price stability (b) maximum tax revenue
(c) full employment (d) maximum output
32. In a short run a producer contains his production as long as he covers-
(a) variable cost (b) fixed cost
(c) average cost (d) marginal cost
33. The profounder of the 'Law of market' is-
(a) J. B. Say (b) A. C. Pigou
(c) T. R. Malthus (d) Ricardo
34. Which is at the apex of the three tier system of Panchayati Raj system ?
(a) Gram Sabha (b) Gram Panchayat
(c) Zila Parishad (d) Panchayat Samiti
35. Which one of the following was an associated state of India before becoming a full fledged state ?
(a) Meghalaya (b) Mizoram
(c) Sikkim (d) Manipur
36. A common High Court for two or more states and /or union Territory may be established by-
(a) President (b) Parliament by law
(c) Governor of the state (d) Chief Justice of India
37. Railway is a subject on the-
(a) concurrent list (b) union list
(c) state list (d) residual list
38. The President of India can be removed from his office by the-
(a) Prime Minister (b) Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India (d) Parliament
39. The Chairman and members of state Public Service Commission are appointed by the-
(a) President (b) Prime Minister
(c) Governor (d) Chairman
40. How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post ?
(a) Once (b) 2 times
(c) 3 times (d) Any number of times
41. The Ilbert Bill controversy during Lord Lytton's time related to the concepts of-
(a) Judicial equality (b) political representation
(c) economic justice (d) revenue allocation
42 Minto-Morley Reforms aimed at-
(a) Grant of Dominion status to Indians (b) Separate electrorates for the Muslims
(c) Special powers to the government to deal with anti-government elements
(d) Full development of education
43. Who amongst the following was involved in the Alipur Bomb case ?
(a) S. N. Banerjee (b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Jatin Das (d) Aurobindo Ghosh
44. Which of the following was the oldest Dravidian Language ?
(a) Kannada (b) Tamil
(c) Telugu (d) Malyalam
45. The Invasion of Huns first took place during the reign of-
(a) Mauryas (b) Nandas
(c) Kushanas (d) Guptas
46. The first to invade India out of the following were-
(a) Afghans (b) Turks
(c) Mongols . (d) Arabs
47. Which of the following gases is used for refrigeration ?
(a) Chlorine (b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Phosphine (d) Ammonia
48. Aspirin is the common name of-
(a) salicylic acid (b) salicylate
(c) methyl salicylate (d) acetyl salicylic acid
49. Sun's heat reaches earth by which of the following of transmission ?
(a) conduction (b) convection
(c) radiation (d) heat exchange
50. Ion-exchange is a process of-
(a) fermentation (b) metal extraction
(c) water softening (d) heavy water production
Answers
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a)
7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (b)
12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c)
16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (c)
26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (c)
36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (d)
46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (c)
Monday, February 6, 2012
PRODUCERS OF DIFFERENT CROPS IN WORLD
- The Largest producer of groundnut in World =India
- The Largest producer of Tobacco in World = China
- The Largest Quantity of Barley produced in World = Russia
- The Largest producer of Long Staple Cotton in World = USA
- The Largest Cattle production in World = India
- The Largest producer of Butter & Ghee in World = India
- The Largest producer of Rice in World = India & USA
- The Largest producer of Fish in World = China
- The Largest producer of Mutton in World = New Zealand & Australia.
- The Largest producer of Mercury in World = Spain
- The Largest producer of Rock Phosphate in World = USA & Russia.
- The Leading producer of Uranium in World = Canada
- The Leading producer of Automobiles in World = USA
- The Leading producer of Cement in World = USA
- The Country that Manufactures Maximum number of Locomotives in World = USA
- The US city known for Locomotive = Philadelphia
- The City famous for Petroleum = Baku
- The City famous for Wollen textiles in World = Leeds.
- The Country known as Sugar Bowl in World = Cuba.
GENERAL STUDIES PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements: The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact
1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3
(d) 1 and 2
3. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court.
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature.
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person.
(d) None of the statements given above is correct.
4. The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Extent of executive power of State
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of India
5. In the context of governance, consider the following:
1. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows
2. Privatization of higher educational Institutions
3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy
4. Selling/offloading the shares of Public Sector Undertakings
Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
6. Who of the following shall cause every recommendationmade by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
7. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of UnionJBudget to the Parliament?
(a) Department of Revenue
(b) Department of Economic Affairs
(c) Department of Financial Services
(d) Department of Expenditure
8. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?
(a) District Planning Committees
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Finance Ministry of that State
(d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State
9. Which one of the following is not related to United Nations?
(a) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
(b) International Finance Corporation
(c) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
(d) Bank for International Settlements
10. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international treaty drawn at
(a) United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972
(b) UN Conference on Environment and Development, Rio de Janeiro, 1992
(c) World Summit on Sustainable Development, Johannesburg, 2002
(d) UN Climate Change Conference, Copenhagen 2009
11. With reference to the United Nations Convention on theRights of the Child, consider the following:
1. The Right to Development
2. The Right to Expression
3. The Right to Recreation
Which of the above is/are the Rights of the child?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
12. Consider the following statements: 1. The Commonwealth has no charter, treaty or constitution.
2. All the territories/countries once under the British empire (jurisdiction/rule/ mandate) automatically joined the Commonwealth as its members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
13. The International Development Association a lending agency, is administered by the
(a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(b) International Fund for Agricultural Development
(c) United Nations Development Programme
(d) United Nations Industrial Development Organization
14. Consider the following statements:
The Cripps Proposals include the provision for
1. Full independence for India.
2. Creation of Constitution-making body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. During the freedom struggle, Aruna Asaf Ali was amajorwoman organizer of underground activity in
(a) Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Quit India Movement
(d) Swadeshi Movement
16. Withwhose permission did the English set up their first factory in Surat?
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Aurangzeb
17. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
List-l (Famous List-II Temple) (State)
A. Vidyashankara 1. Andhra temple Pradesh
B. Rajarani temple 2 Karnataka
C. Kandariya 3. Madhya Pradesh Mahadeo temple
D. Bhimes vara 4. Orissa temple
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 4 3 4 1
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 1 3 4 2
18. Where is the famous Virupaksha temple located?
(a) Bhadrachalam
(b) Chidambaram
(c) Hampi
(d) Srikalahasti
19. Consider the following statements:
1. The discussions in the Third Round Table Conference eventually led to the passing of the Government of India Act of 1935.
2. The government of India Act of 1935 providedWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both land2
(d) Neither 1 nor2
20. In collaboration with David Hare and Alexander Duff, Who of the following establishedHindu College at Calcutta?
(a) Henry Louis Vivian Derozio
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(c) Keshab Chandra Sen
(d) Raja Rammohan Roy
21. Who of the following Prime Ministers sent Cripps Mission to India?
(a) James Ramsay MacDonald
(b) Stanley Baldwin
(c) Neville Chamberlain
(d) Winston Churchill
22. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did Rowlatt Act arouse popular indignation?
(a) It curtailed the freedom of religion
(b) It suppressed the Indian traditional education
(c) It authorized the government to imprison people without trial
(d) It curbed the trade union activities
23. Which one of the following beganwith the Dandi March?
(a) Home Rule Movement
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement
24. Anekantavada is a core theory and philosophy of which one of the following?
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Sikhism
(d) Vaishnavism
25. With which one of the following movements is the slogan “Do or die” associated?
(a) Swadeshi Movement
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement
26. Who of the following founded the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) N.M. Joshi
(d) J.B. Kripalani
27. In the context of the Indian freedom straggle, 16th October 1905 is well known for which one of the following reasons?
(a) The formal proclamation of Swadeshi Movement was made in Calcutta town hall
(b) Partition of Bengal took effect
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji declared that the goal of Indian National Congress was Swaraj
(d) Lokmanya Tilak started Swadeshi Movement in Poona
28. Which one of the following planets has largest number of natural satellites or moons?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Saturn
(d) Venus
29. Consider the following regions:
1. Eastern Himalayas
2. Eastern Mediterranean region
3. North-western Australia
Which of the above is/are Biodiversity Hotspot(s)?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
30. In India, which one of the following states has the largest inland saline wetland?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Haryana
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
31. In India, the ports are categorized as major and non-major, ports. Which one of the following is a non-major port?
(a) Kochi (Cochin)
(b) Dahej
(c) Paradip
(d) New Mangalore
32. Consider the following pairs: Famous place Country
1. Cannes : France
2. Davos : Denmark
3. Roland Garros : The Netherlands
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctlymatched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
33. The Dul Hasti Power Station is based on which one of the following rivers?
(a) Beas
(b) Chenab
(c) Ravi
(d) Sutlej
34. Which one of the following is the country’s administrative capital/new federal administrative centre of Malaysia?
(a) Kota Bharu
(b) Kuala Terengganu
(c) Putrajaya
(d) Taiping
35. Elephant pass, which is frequently in the news, is mentioned in the context of the affairs of which one of the following?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) India
(c) Nepal
(d) Sri Lanka
36. Consider the following countries:
1. Australia 2. Namibia
3. Brazil 4. Chile
Through which of the above does the Tropic of Capricorn pass?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
37. In the structure of planet Earth, below the mantle, the core is mainly made up of which one of the following?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Chromium
(c) Iron
(d) Silicon
38. Which one of the following pairs is not correctlymatched?
City River
(a) Berlin : Rhine
(b) London : Thames
(c) New York : Hudson
(d) Vienna : Danube
39. Consider the following statements:
1. In the world, the tropical deserts occur along the westernmargins of continents within the trade wind belt.
2. In India, the East Himalayan region gets high rainfall from north-east winds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
List-I List-II
(Geographic feature) (Country)
A. Great Victoria 1. Australia Desert
B. Grand Canyon 2. Canada
C. Lake Winnipeg 3. New Zealand
D. Southern Alps 4. USA
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 4 2 1
41. Which one of the following rivers does not originate in India?
(a) Beas
(b) Chenab
(c) Ravi
(d) Sutlej
42. Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttles are launched is located on the coast of
(a) Florida
(b) Virginia
(c) North Carolina
(d) South Carolina
43. At which one of the following places do two important rivers of India originate; while one of them flows towards north and merges with another important rivers flowing towards Bay of Bengal, the other one flows towards Arabian Sea?
(a) Amarkantak
(b) Badrinath
(c) Mahabaleshwar
(d) Nasik
44. Which among the following has the world’s largest reserves of Uranium?
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Russian Federation
(d) USA
45. Consider the following statements:
1. India does not have any deposits of thorium.
2. Kerala’s monazite sands contain Uranium
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
46. Which one among the following South Asian countries has the highest population density?
(a) India
(b) Nepal
(c) Pakistan
(d) Sri Lanka
47. Consider the following statements:
1. There are no east flowing rivers in Kerala.
2. There are no west flowing rivers in Madhya Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
48. Consider the following statements:
1. Infant mortality rate takes into account the death of infants within amonth after birth.
2. Infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths in a particular year per 100 live births during that year.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
49. In which one of the following places is the Shompen tribe found?
(a) Nilgiri Hills
(b) Nicobar Islands
(c) Spiti Valley
(d) Lakshadweep Islands
50. Consider the following statements:
1. The first telegraph line in India was laid between Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) and Diamond Harbour
2. The first Export Processing Zone in India was set up in Kandla.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. What does Baudhayan theorem (Baudhayan Sulva Sutras) relate to?
(a) Lengths of sides of a right angled triangle
(b) Calculation of the value of pi
(c) Logarithmic calculations
(d) Normal distribution curve
52. Who among the following rejected the title of Knighthood and refused to accept a position in the Council of the Secretary of State for India?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) M G Ranade
(c) G K Gokhale
(d) B G Tilak
53. During the time of which Mughal Emperor did the English East India Company establish its first factory in India?
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Aurangzeb
54. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who of the following raised an army called ‘Free Indian Legion’?
(a) Lala Hardayal
(b) Rashbehari Bose
(c) Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) V D Savarkar
55. Which one of the following suggested the reconstitution of the Viceroy Executive Council inwhich all the portfolios including that of War Memberswere to be held by the Indian leaders?
(a) Simon Commission
(b) Simla Conference
(c) Cripps Proposal
(d) Cabinet Mission
56. Match List-1with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe Lists:
List-I (Author) List-II (Work)
A. Bankimchandra 1. Shatranj Ke Khilari
B. Dinabandhu Mitra 2. Debi Chaudhurani
C Premchand 3. Nil-Darpan
4. Chandrakanta
Codes:
A B C
(a) 2 4 1
(b) 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 3 1 4
57. Who among the following gave a systematic critique of the moderate politics of the Indian National Congress in a series of articles entitled New Lamps for Old?
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) R C Dutt
(c) Syed Ahmad Khan
(d) Viraraghavachari
68. Who among the following used the phrase ‘Un-British’ to criticize the English colonial control of India?
(a) Anandmohan Bose
(b) Badruddin Tyabji
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Pherozeshah Mehta
59. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Rowlatt Act was passed?
(a) Lord Irwin
(b) Lord Reading
(c) Lord Chelmsford
(d) Lord Wavell
60. Who among the following Gandhian followerswas a teacher by profession?
(a) A N Sinha
(b) Braj Kishore Prasad
(c) J B Kriplani
(d) Rajendra Prasad
61. Which one of the following was a journal brought out by Abul Kalam Azad?
(a) Al-Hilal
(b) Comrade
(c) The Indian Sociologist
(d) Zamindar
62. Where was the First Session of the Indian National Congress held in December 1885?
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Bombay
(c) Calcutta
(d) Delhi
63. Who among the following wrote the poem, Subh-e Azadi?
(a) Sahir Ludhiyanvi
(b) Faiz Ahmed Faiz
(c) Muhammad Iqbal
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
64. Which of the following pairs in respect of current power generation in India is/are correctlymatched?
(Rounded Figure)
1. Installed electricity : 100000 MW Generation capacity
2. Electricity generation : 660 billion kWh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
65. As per India’s National Population Policy, 2000, by which one of the following years is it our long-term objective to achieve population stabilization?
(a) 2025
(b) 2035
(c) 2045
(d) 2055
66. Which one of the following is not essentially a species of the Himalayan vegetation?
(a) Juniper
(b) Mahogany
(c) Silver fir
(d) Spruce
67. Which of the following hills are found where the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet?
(a) Anaimalai Hills
(b) Cardamom Hills
(c) Nilgiri Hills
(d) Shevoroy Hills
68. Consider the following pairs:
Tributary River Main River
1. Chambal : Narmada
2. Sone : Yamuna
3. Manas : Brahmaputra
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctlymatched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
69. Consider the following statements:
1. Salt-water crocodile is found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
2. Shrew and tapir are found in the Western Ghats of the Malabar region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
70. Which one amongst the following has the largest livestock population in the world?
(a) Brazil
(b) China
(c) India
(d) USA
71. Inwhich one of the following isMalta located?
(a) Baltic Sea
(b) Mediterranean Sea
(c) Black Sea
(d) North Sea
72. In which one of the following states are Namchik-Namphuk Coalfields located?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Manipur
(d) Mizoram
73. Consider the following statements:
1. The albedo of an object determines its visual brightness when viewed with reflected light.
2. The albedo of Mercury is much greater than me albedo of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
74. Which of the followingminerals found in a natural way in the State of Chhattisgarh?
1. Bauxite 2. Dolomite
3. Iron ore 4. Tin
Select the correct answer using code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
75. On which one of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located?
(a) Alaknanda
(b) Bhagirathi
(c) Dhauliganga
(d) Mandakini
76. Which of the following cities is nearest to the equator?
(a) Colombo
(b) Jakarta
(c) Manila
(d) Singapore
77. Which of the following pairs are correctlymatched?
Waterfalls River
1. Kapildhara Falls : Godavari
2. Jog Falls : Sharavati
3. Sivasamudram Falls : Cauvery
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
78. Which one of the following straits is nearest to the InternationalDate Line?
(a) Malacca Strait
(b) Bering Strait
(c) Strait of Florida
(d) Strait of Gibraltar
79. Which of the following pairs are correctlymatched?
Irrigation Project State
1. Damanganga : Gujarat
2. Gima : Maharashtra
3. Pamba : Kerala
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
80. Which of the following countries share borders withMoldova?
1. Ukraine 2. Romania
3. Belarus
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
81. Consider the following statements:
1. Ajman is one of the seven Emirates of the UAE
2. Ras al-Khaimah was the last Sheikhdom to join the UAE.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
82. For India, China, the UK and the USA, which one of the following is the correct sequence of themedian age of their populations?
(a) China< India < UK < USA
(b) India < China < USA < UK
(c) China < India < USA < UK
(d) India < China < UK < USA
83. Consider the following statements:
1. Chikmagalur is well-known for sugar production.
2. Mandya is well-known as a coffee producing region
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
84. Where are Tapovan and Vishnugarh Hydroelectric Project located?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Rajasthan
85. In order of their distances from the Sun,which of the following planets lie between Mars and Uranus?
(a) Earth and Jupiter
(b) Jupiter and Saturn
(c) Saturn and Earth
(d) Saturn and Neptune
86. What is the approximate percentage of persons above 65 years of age in India’s current population?
(a) 14–15%
(b) 11–12%
(c) 8–9%
(d) 5–6%
87. Out of all the Biosphere Reserves in India, four have been recognized on theWorld Network by UNESCO. Which one of the following is not one of them?
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) Sunderbans
88. Which two countries followChina and India in the descreasing order of their populations?
(a) Brazil and USA
(b) USA and Indonesia
(c) Canada and Malaysia
(d) Russia and Nigeria
89. Amongst the following States, which one has the highest percentage of rural population to its total population (on the basis of the Census, 2001)?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Orissa
(d) Uttar Pradesh
90. Which of the following are among the million-plus cities in India on the basis of data of the Census, 2001?
1. Ludhiana 2. Kochi
3. Surat 4. Nagpur
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and4
91. Among the following, which one has theminimumpopulation on the basis of data of Census of India, 2001?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Mizoram
(c) Puducherry
(d) Sikkim
92. With which one of the following rivers is the Omkareshwar Project associated?
(a) Chambal
(b) Narmada
(c) Tapi
(d) Bhima
93. In India, how many States share the coastline?
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
94. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe Lists:
List-I List-II
(Board) (Headquarters)
A. Coffee Board 1. Bengaluru
B. Rubber Board 2. Guntur
C Tea Board 3. Kottayam
D. Tobacco Board 4. Kolkata
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
95. Which one among the following has the maximum number of National Parks?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Meghalaya
96. Which of the following are public sector undertakings of the Government of India?
1. Balmer Lawrie and Company Ltd.
2. Dredging Corporation of India
3. Educational Consultants of India Ltd.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
97. Which of the following pairs about India’s economic indicator and agricultural production (all in rounded figures) are correctly matched?
1. GDP per capita (current prices): 37,000
2. Rice: 180 million tons
3. Wheat: 75 million tons
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
98. Consider the following statements with reference to Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS):
1. All persons of 60 years or above belonging to the households below poverty line in rural areas are eligible.
2. The Central Assistance under this Scheme is at the rate of ` 300 per month per beneficiary. Under the Scheme, States have been urged to give matching amounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
99. What is the name of the scheme which provides training and skills to women in traditional and nontraditional trades?
(a) Kishori Shakti Yojna
(b) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
(c) Swayamsiddha
(d) Swawlamban
100. What does S & P 500 relate to?
(a) Supercomputer
(b) A new technique in e-business
(c) A new technique in bridge building
(d) An index of stocks of large companies
101. Who among the following discovered heavy water?
(a) Heinrich Hertz
(b) H C Urey
(c) G Mendel
(d) Joseph Priestley
102. Which one of the following laser types is used in a laser printer?
(a) Dye laser
(b) Gas laser
(c) Semiconductor laser
(d) Excimer laser
103. Consider the following statements:
1. A widely used musical scale called diatonic scale has seven frequencies.
2 The frequency of the note Sa is 256 Hz and that of Nifty is 512 Hz
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 )
104. What is Bisphenol A (BPA)?
(a) A medical test for detecting cancer
(b) A test for testing the use of drugs to improve performance by athletes
(c) A chemical used for the development of food-packaging materials
(d) A special type of alloy steel
105. Consider the following:
1. Rice fields
2. Goal mining
3. Domestic Animals
4. Wetlands
Which of the above are sources of methane, amajor greenhouse gas?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
106. Forwhich one of the following kinds of organisms is the phenomenon found wherein the female kills the male after copulation?
(a) Dragonfly
(b) Honeybee
(c) Spider
(d) Pit viper
107. Forwhich one of the following snakes is the dietmainly composed of other snakes?
(a) Krait
(b) Russell’s viper
(c) Rattlesnake
(d) King cobra
108. Which one of the following is an insectivorous plant?
(a) Passion flower plant
(b) Pitcher plant
(c) Night queen
(d) Flame of the forest
109. What is the pH level of blood of a normal person?
(a) 4.5–4.6
(b) 6.45–655
(c) 7.35–7.45
(d) 8.25–8.35
110. Consider the following statements about probiotic food:
1. Probiotic food contains live bacteria
which are considered beneficial to humans.
2. Probiotic food helps in maintaining gut flora.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
111. Which of the following pairs is/are correctlymatched?
Theory/Law Associated Scientist
1. Continental Drift : Edwin Hubble
2. Expansion of Universe : Alfred Wegener
3. Photoelectric Effect : Albert Einstein
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Codes:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 only
112. What are Rubies and Sapphires chemically known as?
(a) Silicon dioxide
(b) Aluminium oxide
(c) Lead tetroxide
(d) Boron nitride
113. Which one of the following is also called Stranger Gas?
(a) Argon
(b) Neon
(c) Xenon
(d) Nitrous oxide
114. Mixture ofwhich one of the following pairs of gases is the cause of occurrence ofmost of the explosions inmines?
(a) Hydrogen and Oxygen
(b) Oxygen and acetylene
(c) Methane and air
(d) Carbon dioxide and methane
115. Which one of the following pairs ofmetals constitutes the lightestmetal and the heaviestmetal, respectively?
(a) Lithium and mercury
(b) Lithium and osmium
(c) Aluminium and osmium
(d) Aluminium and mercury
116. A person is sitting in a carwhich is at rest. The reaction from the road at each of the four wheels of the car is
R. When the car runs on a straight level road, how will the reaction at either of the front wheels vary?
(a) It will be greater than R
(b) It will be less than R
(c) It will be equal to R
(d) It shall depend on the material of the road
117. Among the following,which one lays eggs and does not produce young ones directly?
(a) Echidna
(b) Kangaroo
(c) Porcupine
(d) Whale
118. The release of which one of the following into ponds andwells helps in controlling themosquitoes?
(a) Crab
(b) Dog fish
(c) Gambusia fish
(d) Snail
119. Among the following, which one is not an ape?
(a) Gibbon
(b) Gorilla
(c) Langur
(d) Orangutan
120. The term “Prisoner’s Dilemma” is associated with which one of the following?
(a) A technique in glass manufacture
(b) A term used in shipping industry
(c) A situation under the Game Theory
(d) Name of a supercomputer
121. Consider the following statements:
1. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) in respect of carbon credits is one of the Kyoto Protocol Mechanisms.
2. Under the CDM, the projects handled pertain only to the Annex-I countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
122. Which one of the following Union Ministries is implementing the Biodiesel Mission (as Nodal Ministry)?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Science and Technology
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
123. Selene-1, the lunar orbiter mission belongs to which one of the Followings?
(a) China
(b) European Union
(c) Japan
(d) USA
124. From which one of the following did India buy the Barak anti-missile defence systems?
(a) Israel
(b) France
(c) Russia
(d) USA
125. ISROsuccessfully conducted a rocket test using cryogenic engines in the year 2007. Where is the test- stand used for the purpose, located?
(a) Balasore
(b) Thiruvananthapuram
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Karwar
126. Which one of the following is a spacecraft?
(a) Apophis
(b) Cassini
(c) Spitzer
(d) TechSar
127. In which one of the following locations is the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) project to be built?
(a) Northern Spain
(b) Southern France
(c) Eastern Germany
(d) Southern Italy
128. What is the purpose of the US Space Agency’s ThemisMission,which was recently in the news?
(a) To study the possibility of life on Mars
(b) To study the satellites of Saturn
(c) To study the colourful of display of high latitude skies
(d) To build a space laboratory to study the stellar explosions
129. Consider the following statements in respect of a jet engine and a rocket:
1. A jet engine uses the surrounding air for its oxygen supply and so is unsuitable for motion in space.
2. A rocket carries its own supply of oxygen in the gas form, and fuel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
130. How can the height of a person who is six feet tall be expressed (approximately) in nanometers?
(a) 183 × 106 nanometres
(b) 234 × 106 nanometres
(c) 183 × 107 nanometres
(d) 234 × 107 nanometres
131. The context of the Indian defence, what is ‘Dhruv’?
(a) Aircraft-carrying warship
(b) Missile-carrying submarine
(c) Advanced light helicopter
(d) Intercontinental ballistic missile
132. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
List-I List-II
(Person) (Known As)
A. Bhajan Sopori 1. Bharatnatyam dancer
B. Birju Maharaj 2. Exponent of Santoor
C. Priyadarsini 3. Mridangam maestro
D. T V Go Dalakrishnan 4. Kathak dancer
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
133. Who among the following is considered as the inventor of table WorldWideWeb (WWW}?
(a) Edward Kasrier
(b) Bill Gates
(c) Tim Berners-Lee
(d) Vinod Dham
134. Where are the headquarters of the’ Organization of the Islamic Conference (OIC) located?
(a) Dubai
(b) Jeddah
(c) Islamabad
(d) Ankara
135. Which one of the following is not a member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization?
(a) Russia
(b) Kazakhstan
(c) Ukraine
(d) Uzbekistan
136. Who among the following wrote the book - Ayodhya: 6 December 1992?
(a) Chandra Shekhar
(b) P V Narasimha Rao
(c) Jaswant Sttygh
(d) Arun Shourie
137. Wangari Maathai, the Nobel Prize winner from Kdnya is known for her Contribution to which one of the following?
(a) Journalism
(b) International economics
(c) Sustainable development
(d) Child development
138. How is Gabriel Garcia Marquez wellknown as?
(a) Known for research in agriculture
(b) A renowned football coach
(c) A great writer who won the Nobel Prize for literature
(d) Known for research in railway engineering
139. Wherewas the first conference of the Pugwash Conferences on Science and World Affairs held in the year 1957?
(a) Minnowbrook (USA)
(b) Rhode Island (USA)
(c) Nova Scotia (Canada)
(d) Nagasaki (Japan)
140. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following?
(a) Environmental protection
(b) Olympics Games
(c) Journalism
d) Civil Aviation
141. RaghuRai iswell-known forwhich one of the following areas?
(a) Research in Mathematics
(b) Photography
(c) Water harvesting
(d) Pollution control
142. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
List-I List-II
(Eminent Person) (Known As)
A. Bhanu Bharti 1. Music Composer
B. Mike Pandey 2. Poet and litterateur
C. Mohd Zahur 3. Theatre Khayyam director
D. Vinda Karandikar 4. Wildlife film maker
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
143. Whowrote the book—‘The Story of the Integration of the Indian States’?
(a) B N Rau
(b) C Rajagopalchari
(c) Krishna Menon
(d) V P Menon
144. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
List-I (Winter) List-II (Book)
A. V S Naipaul 1. The Siege of Krishnapur
B. Salman Rushdie 2. In a Free State
C. Paul Scott 3. Midnight’s Children
D. J G Farrell 4. Staying On
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
145. Consider the following statements:
1. The series of the International Paper Sizes is based on A0 size whose area is 0.5 m2 (approximately).
2. The area of A4 size paper is 1/8th of that of the A0 size paper.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
146. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) T S : Former Chief Krishnamurthy Election Commissioner of India
(b) K C Pant : Chairman, Tenth Finance Commission of India
(c) A M Khusro : Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
(d) R C Lahoti : Former Chief Justice of India
147. Consider the following statements:
1. The Judges (Inquiry) Bi ll 2006 contemplates to establish a Judicial Council which will receive complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justipe of India, High Court Chief Justices and Judges
2. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act’, 2005, a women can file a petition before a 1st Class Judicial Magistrate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
148. Consider the following statements:
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both, 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
149. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following as full States of the Indian Union?
(a) Sikkim—Arunachal Pradesh—Nagaland - Haryana
(b) Nagaland—Har yana—Sik kim— Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Sikk im—Haryana—Nagal and— Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Nagaland—Arunachal Pradesh—Sikkim
150. Who among the following have been the Union Finance Ministers of India?
1. V P Singh 2. Venkataraman
3. Y B Chavan 4. Pranab Mukherjee
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and4
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements: The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact
1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3
(d) 1 and 2
3. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court.
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature.
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person.
(d) None of the statements given above is correct.
4. The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Extent of executive power of State
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of India
5. In the context of governance, consider the following:
1. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows
2. Privatization of higher educational Institutions
3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy
4. Selling/offloading the shares of Public Sector Undertakings
Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
6. Who of the following shall cause every recommendationmade by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
7. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of UnionJBudget to the Parliament?
(a) Department of Revenue
(b) Department of Economic Affairs
(c) Department of Financial Services
(d) Department of Expenditure
8. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?
(a) District Planning Committees
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Finance Ministry of that State
(d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State
9. Which one of the following is not related to United Nations?
(a) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
(b) International Finance Corporation
(c) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
(d) Bank for International Settlements
10. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international treaty drawn at
(a) United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972
(b) UN Conference on Environment and Development, Rio de Janeiro, 1992
(c) World Summit on Sustainable Development, Johannesburg, 2002
(d) UN Climate Change Conference, Copenhagen 2009
11. With reference to the United Nations Convention on theRights of the Child, consider the following:
1. The Right to Development
2. The Right to Expression
3. The Right to Recreation
Which of the above is/are the Rights of the child?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
12. Consider the following statements: 1. The Commonwealth has no charter, treaty or constitution.
2. All the territories/countries once under the British empire (jurisdiction/rule/ mandate) automatically joined the Commonwealth as its members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
13. The International Development Association a lending agency, is administered by the
(a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(b) International Fund for Agricultural Development
(c) United Nations Development Programme
(d) United Nations Industrial Development Organization
14. Consider the following statements:
The Cripps Proposals include the provision for
1. Full independence for India.
2. Creation of Constitution-making body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. During the freedom struggle, Aruna Asaf Ali was amajorwoman organizer of underground activity in
(a) Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Quit India Movement
(d) Swadeshi Movement
16. Withwhose permission did the English set up their first factory in Surat?
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Aurangzeb
17. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
List-l (Famous List-II Temple) (State)
A. Vidyashankara 1. Andhra temple Pradesh
B. Rajarani temple 2 Karnataka
C. Kandariya 3. Madhya Pradesh Mahadeo temple
D. Bhimes vara 4. Orissa temple
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 4 3 4 1
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 1 3 4 2
18. Where is the famous Virupaksha temple located?
(a) Bhadrachalam
(b) Chidambaram
(c) Hampi
(d) Srikalahasti
19. Consider the following statements:
1. The discussions in the Third Round Table Conference eventually led to the passing of the Government of India Act of 1935.
2. The government of India Act of 1935 providedWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both land2
(d) Neither 1 nor2
20. In collaboration with David Hare and Alexander Duff, Who of the following establishedHindu College at Calcutta?
(a) Henry Louis Vivian Derozio
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(c) Keshab Chandra Sen
(d) Raja Rammohan Roy
21. Who of the following Prime Ministers sent Cripps Mission to India?
(a) James Ramsay MacDonald
(b) Stanley Baldwin
(c) Neville Chamberlain
(d) Winston Churchill
22. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did Rowlatt Act arouse popular indignation?
(a) It curtailed the freedom of religion
(b) It suppressed the Indian traditional education
(c) It authorized the government to imprison people without trial
(d) It curbed the trade union activities
23. Which one of the following beganwith the Dandi March?
(a) Home Rule Movement
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement
24. Anekantavada is a core theory and philosophy of which one of the following?
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Sikhism
(d) Vaishnavism
25. With which one of the following movements is the slogan “Do or die” associated?
(a) Swadeshi Movement
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement
26. Who of the following founded the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) N.M. Joshi
(d) J.B. Kripalani
27. In the context of the Indian freedom straggle, 16th October 1905 is well known for which one of the following reasons?
(a) The formal proclamation of Swadeshi Movement was made in Calcutta town hall
(b) Partition of Bengal took effect
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji declared that the goal of Indian National Congress was Swaraj
(d) Lokmanya Tilak started Swadeshi Movement in Poona
28. Which one of the following planets has largest number of natural satellites or moons?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Saturn
(d) Venus
29. Consider the following regions:
1. Eastern Himalayas
2. Eastern Mediterranean region
3. North-western Australia
Which of the above is/are Biodiversity Hotspot(s)?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
30. In India, which one of the following states has the largest inland saline wetland?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Haryana
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
31. In India, the ports are categorized as major and non-major, ports. Which one of the following is a non-major port?
(a) Kochi (Cochin)
(b) Dahej
(c) Paradip
(d) New Mangalore
32. Consider the following pairs: Famous place Country
1. Cannes : France
2. Davos : Denmark
3. Roland Garros : The Netherlands
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctlymatched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
33. The Dul Hasti Power Station is based on which one of the following rivers?
(a) Beas
(b) Chenab
(c) Ravi
(d) Sutlej
34. Which one of the following is the country’s administrative capital/new federal administrative centre of Malaysia?
(a) Kota Bharu
(b) Kuala Terengganu
(c) Putrajaya
(d) Taiping
35. Elephant pass, which is frequently in the news, is mentioned in the context of the affairs of which one of the following?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) India
(c) Nepal
(d) Sri Lanka
36. Consider the following countries:
1. Australia 2. Namibia
3. Brazil 4. Chile
Through which of the above does the Tropic of Capricorn pass?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
37. In the structure of planet Earth, below the mantle, the core is mainly made up of which one of the following?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Chromium
(c) Iron
(d) Silicon
38. Which one of the following pairs is not correctlymatched?
City River
(a) Berlin : Rhine
(b) London : Thames
(c) New York : Hudson
(d) Vienna : Danube
39. Consider the following statements:
1. In the world, the tropical deserts occur along the westernmargins of continents within the trade wind belt.
2. In India, the East Himalayan region gets high rainfall from north-east winds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
List-I List-II
(Geographic feature) (Country)
A. Great Victoria 1. Australia Desert
B. Grand Canyon 2. Canada
C. Lake Winnipeg 3. New Zealand
D. Southern Alps 4. USA
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 4 2 1
41. Which one of the following rivers does not originate in India?
(a) Beas
(b) Chenab
(c) Ravi
(d) Sutlej
42. Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttles are launched is located on the coast of
(a) Florida
(b) Virginia
(c) North Carolina
(d) South Carolina
43. At which one of the following places do two important rivers of India originate; while one of them flows towards north and merges with another important rivers flowing towards Bay of Bengal, the other one flows towards Arabian Sea?
(a) Amarkantak
(b) Badrinath
(c) Mahabaleshwar
(d) Nasik
44. Which among the following has the world’s largest reserves of Uranium?
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Russian Federation
(d) USA
45. Consider the following statements:
1. India does not have any deposits of thorium.
2. Kerala’s monazite sands contain Uranium
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
46. Which one among the following South Asian countries has the highest population density?
(a) India
(b) Nepal
(c) Pakistan
(d) Sri Lanka
47. Consider the following statements:
1. There are no east flowing rivers in Kerala.
2. There are no west flowing rivers in Madhya Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
48. Consider the following statements:
1. Infant mortality rate takes into account the death of infants within amonth after birth.
2. Infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths in a particular year per 100 live births during that year.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
49. In which one of the following places is the Shompen tribe found?
(a) Nilgiri Hills
(b) Nicobar Islands
(c) Spiti Valley
(d) Lakshadweep Islands
50. Consider the following statements:
1. The first telegraph line in India was laid between Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) and Diamond Harbour
2. The first Export Processing Zone in India was set up in Kandla.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. What does Baudhayan theorem (Baudhayan Sulva Sutras) relate to?
(a) Lengths of sides of a right angled triangle
(b) Calculation of the value of pi
(c) Logarithmic calculations
(d) Normal distribution curve
52. Who among the following rejected the title of Knighthood and refused to accept a position in the Council of the Secretary of State for India?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) M G Ranade
(c) G K Gokhale
(d) B G Tilak
53. During the time of which Mughal Emperor did the English East India Company establish its first factory in India?
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Aurangzeb
54. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who of the following raised an army called ‘Free Indian Legion’?
(a) Lala Hardayal
(b) Rashbehari Bose
(c) Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) V D Savarkar
55. Which one of the following suggested the reconstitution of the Viceroy Executive Council inwhich all the portfolios including that of War Memberswere to be held by the Indian leaders?
(a) Simon Commission
(b) Simla Conference
(c) Cripps Proposal
(d) Cabinet Mission
56. Match List-1with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe Lists:
List-I (Author) List-II (Work)
A. Bankimchandra 1. Shatranj Ke Khilari
B. Dinabandhu Mitra 2. Debi Chaudhurani
C Premchand 3. Nil-Darpan
4. Chandrakanta
Codes:
A B C
(a) 2 4 1
(b) 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 3 1 4
57. Who among the following gave a systematic critique of the moderate politics of the Indian National Congress in a series of articles entitled New Lamps for Old?
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) R C Dutt
(c) Syed Ahmad Khan
(d) Viraraghavachari
68. Who among the following used the phrase ‘Un-British’ to criticize the English colonial control of India?
(a) Anandmohan Bose
(b) Badruddin Tyabji
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Pherozeshah Mehta
59. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Rowlatt Act was passed?
(a) Lord Irwin
(b) Lord Reading
(c) Lord Chelmsford
(d) Lord Wavell
60. Who among the following Gandhian followerswas a teacher by profession?
(a) A N Sinha
(b) Braj Kishore Prasad
(c) J B Kriplani
(d) Rajendra Prasad
61. Which one of the following was a journal brought out by Abul Kalam Azad?
(a) Al-Hilal
(b) Comrade
(c) The Indian Sociologist
(d) Zamindar
62. Where was the First Session of the Indian National Congress held in December 1885?
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Bombay
(c) Calcutta
(d) Delhi
63. Who among the following wrote the poem, Subh-e Azadi?
(a) Sahir Ludhiyanvi
(b) Faiz Ahmed Faiz
(c) Muhammad Iqbal
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
64. Which of the following pairs in respect of current power generation in India is/are correctlymatched?
(Rounded Figure)
1. Installed electricity : 100000 MW Generation capacity
2. Electricity generation : 660 billion kWh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
65. As per India’s National Population Policy, 2000, by which one of the following years is it our long-term objective to achieve population stabilization?
(a) 2025
(b) 2035
(c) 2045
(d) 2055
66. Which one of the following is not essentially a species of the Himalayan vegetation?
(a) Juniper
(b) Mahogany
(c) Silver fir
(d) Spruce
67. Which of the following hills are found where the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet?
(a) Anaimalai Hills
(b) Cardamom Hills
(c) Nilgiri Hills
(d) Shevoroy Hills
68. Consider the following pairs:
Tributary River Main River
1. Chambal : Narmada
2. Sone : Yamuna
3. Manas : Brahmaputra
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctlymatched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
69. Consider the following statements:
1. Salt-water crocodile is found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
2. Shrew and tapir are found in the Western Ghats of the Malabar region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
70. Which one amongst the following has the largest livestock population in the world?
(a) Brazil
(b) China
(c) India
(d) USA
71. Inwhich one of the following isMalta located?
(a) Baltic Sea
(b) Mediterranean Sea
(c) Black Sea
(d) North Sea
72. In which one of the following states are Namchik-Namphuk Coalfields located?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Manipur
(d) Mizoram
73. Consider the following statements:
1. The albedo of an object determines its visual brightness when viewed with reflected light.
2. The albedo of Mercury is much greater than me albedo of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
74. Which of the followingminerals found in a natural way in the State of Chhattisgarh?
1. Bauxite 2. Dolomite
3. Iron ore 4. Tin
Select the correct answer using code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
75. On which one of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located?
(a) Alaknanda
(b) Bhagirathi
(c) Dhauliganga
(d) Mandakini
76. Which of the following cities is nearest to the equator?
(a) Colombo
(b) Jakarta
(c) Manila
(d) Singapore
77. Which of the following pairs are correctlymatched?
Waterfalls River
1. Kapildhara Falls : Godavari
2. Jog Falls : Sharavati
3. Sivasamudram Falls : Cauvery
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
78. Which one of the following straits is nearest to the InternationalDate Line?
(a) Malacca Strait
(b) Bering Strait
(c) Strait of Florida
(d) Strait of Gibraltar
79. Which of the following pairs are correctlymatched?
Irrigation Project State
1. Damanganga : Gujarat
2. Gima : Maharashtra
3. Pamba : Kerala
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
80. Which of the following countries share borders withMoldova?
1. Ukraine 2. Romania
3. Belarus
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
81. Consider the following statements:
1. Ajman is one of the seven Emirates of the UAE
2. Ras al-Khaimah was the last Sheikhdom to join the UAE.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
82. For India, China, the UK and the USA, which one of the following is the correct sequence of themedian age of their populations?
(a) China< India < UK < USA
(b) India < China < USA < UK
(c) China < India < USA < UK
(d) India < China < UK < USA
83. Consider the following statements:
1. Chikmagalur is well-known for sugar production.
2. Mandya is well-known as a coffee producing region
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
84. Where are Tapovan and Vishnugarh Hydroelectric Project located?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Rajasthan
85. In order of their distances from the Sun,which of the following planets lie between Mars and Uranus?
(a) Earth and Jupiter
(b) Jupiter and Saturn
(c) Saturn and Earth
(d) Saturn and Neptune
86. What is the approximate percentage of persons above 65 years of age in India’s current population?
(a) 14–15%
(b) 11–12%
(c) 8–9%
(d) 5–6%
87. Out of all the Biosphere Reserves in India, four have been recognized on theWorld Network by UNESCO. Which one of the following is not one of them?
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) Sunderbans
88. Which two countries followChina and India in the descreasing order of their populations?
(a) Brazil and USA
(b) USA and Indonesia
(c) Canada and Malaysia
(d) Russia and Nigeria
89. Amongst the following States, which one has the highest percentage of rural population to its total population (on the basis of the Census, 2001)?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Orissa
(d) Uttar Pradesh
90. Which of the following are among the million-plus cities in India on the basis of data of the Census, 2001?
1. Ludhiana 2. Kochi
3. Surat 4. Nagpur
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and4
91. Among the following, which one has theminimumpopulation on the basis of data of Census of India, 2001?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Mizoram
(c) Puducherry
(d) Sikkim
92. With which one of the following rivers is the Omkareshwar Project associated?
(a) Chambal
(b) Narmada
(c) Tapi
(d) Bhima
93. In India, how many States share the coastline?
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
94. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe Lists:
List-I List-II
(Board) (Headquarters)
A. Coffee Board 1. Bengaluru
B. Rubber Board 2. Guntur
C Tea Board 3. Kottayam
D. Tobacco Board 4. Kolkata
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
95. Which one among the following has the maximum number of National Parks?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Meghalaya
96. Which of the following are public sector undertakings of the Government of India?
1. Balmer Lawrie and Company Ltd.
2. Dredging Corporation of India
3. Educational Consultants of India Ltd.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
97. Which of the following pairs about India’s economic indicator and agricultural production (all in rounded figures) are correctly matched?
1. GDP per capita (current prices): 37,000
2. Rice: 180 million tons
3. Wheat: 75 million tons
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
98. Consider the following statements with reference to Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS):
1. All persons of 60 years or above belonging to the households below poverty line in rural areas are eligible.
2. The Central Assistance under this Scheme is at the rate of ` 300 per month per beneficiary. Under the Scheme, States have been urged to give matching amounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
99. What is the name of the scheme which provides training and skills to women in traditional and nontraditional trades?
(a) Kishori Shakti Yojna
(b) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
(c) Swayamsiddha
(d) Swawlamban
100. What does S & P 500 relate to?
(a) Supercomputer
(b) A new technique in e-business
(c) A new technique in bridge building
(d) An index of stocks of large companies
101. Who among the following discovered heavy water?
(a) Heinrich Hertz
(b) H C Urey
(c) G Mendel
(d) Joseph Priestley
102. Which one of the following laser types is used in a laser printer?
(a) Dye laser
(b) Gas laser
(c) Semiconductor laser
(d) Excimer laser
103. Consider the following statements:
1. A widely used musical scale called diatonic scale has seven frequencies.
2 The frequency of the note Sa is 256 Hz and that of Nifty is 512 Hz
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 )
104. What is Bisphenol A (BPA)?
(a) A medical test for detecting cancer
(b) A test for testing the use of drugs to improve performance by athletes
(c) A chemical used for the development of food-packaging materials
(d) A special type of alloy steel
105. Consider the following:
1. Rice fields
2. Goal mining
3. Domestic Animals
4. Wetlands
Which of the above are sources of methane, amajor greenhouse gas?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
106. Forwhich one of the following kinds of organisms is the phenomenon found wherein the female kills the male after copulation?
(a) Dragonfly
(b) Honeybee
(c) Spider
(d) Pit viper
107. Forwhich one of the following snakes is the dietmainly composed of other snakes?
(a) Krait
(b) Russell’s viper
(c) Rattlesnake
(d) King cobra
108. Which one of the following is an insectivorous plant?
(a) Passion flower plant
(b) Pitcher plant
(c) Night queen
(d) Flame of the forest
109. What is the pH level of blood of a normal person?
(a) 4.5–4.6
(b) 6.45–655
(c) 7.35–7.45
(d) 8.25–8.35
110. Consider the following statements about probiotic food:
1. Probiotic food contains live bacteria
which are considered beneficial to humans.
2. Probiotic food helps in maintaining gut flora.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
111. Which of the following pairs is/are correctlymatched?
Theory/Law Associated Scientist
1. Continental Drift : Edwin Hubble
2. Expansion of Universe : Alfred Wegener
3. Photoelectric Effect : Albert Einstein
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Codes:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 only
112. What are Rubies and Sapphires chemically known as?
(a) Silicon dioxide
(b) Aluminium oxide
(c) Lead tetroxide
(d) Boron nitride
113. Which one of the following is also called Stranger Gas?
(a) Argon
(b) Neon
(c) Xenon
(d) Nitrous oxide
114. Mixture ofwhich one of the following pairs of gases is the cause of occurrence ofmost of the explosions inmines?
(a) Hydrogen and Oxygen
(b) Oxygen and acetylene
(c) Methane and air
(d) Carbon dioxide and methane
115. Which one of the following pairs ofmetals constitutes the lightestmetal and the heaviestmetal, respectively?
(a) Lithium and mercury
(b) Lithium and osmium
(c) Aluminium and osmium
(d) Aluminium and mercury
116. A person is sitting in a carwhich is at rest. The reaction from the road at each of the four wheels of the car is
R. When the car runs on a straight level road, how will the reaction at either of the front wheels vary?
(a) It will be greater than R
(b) It will be less than R
(c) It will be equal to R
(d) It shall depend on the material of the road
117. Among the following,which one lays eggs and does not produce young ones directly?
(a) Echidna
(b) Kangaroo
(c) Porcupine
(d) Whale
118. The release of which one of the following into ponds andwells helps in controlling themosquitoes?
(a) Crab
(b) Dog fish
(c) Gambusia fish
(d) Snail
119. Among the following, which one is not an ape?
(a) Gibbon
(b) Gorilla
(c) Langur
(d) Orangutan
120. The term “Prisoner’s Dilemma” is associated with which one of the following?
(a) A technique in glass manufacture
(b) A term used in shipping industry
(c) A situation under the Game Theory
(d) Name of a supercomputer
121. Consider the following statements:
1. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) in respect of carbon credits is one of the Kyoto Protocol Mechanisms.
2. Under the CDM, the projects handled pertain only to the Annex-I countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
122. Which one of the following Union Ministries is implementing the Biodiesel Mission (as Nodal Ministry)?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Science and Technology
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
123. Selene-1, the lunar orbiter mission belongs to which one of the Followings?
(a) China
(b) European Union
(c) Japan
(d) USA
124. From which one of the following did India buy the Barak anti-missile defence systems?
(a) Israel
(b) France
(c) Russia
(d) USA
125. ISROsuccessfully conducted a rocket test using cryogenic engines in the year 2007. Where is the test- stand used for the purpose, located?
(a) Balasore
(b) Thiruvananthapuram
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Karwar
126. Which one of the following is a spacecraft?
(a) Apophis
(b) Cassini
(c) Spitzer
(d) TechSar
127. In which one of the following locations is the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) project to be built?
(a) Northern Spain
(b) Southern France
(c) Eastern Germany
(d) Southern Italy
128. What is the purpose of the US Space Agency’s ThemisMission,which was recently in the news?
(a) To study the possibility of life on Mars
(b) To study the satellites of Saturn
(c) To study the colourful of display of high latitude skies
(d) To build a space laboratory to study the stellar explosions
129. Consider the following statements in respect of a jet engine and a rocket:
1. A jet engine uses the surrounding air for its oxygen supply and so is unsuitable for motion in space.
2. A rocket carries its own supply of oxygen in the gas form, and fuel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
130. How can the height of a person who is six feet tall be expressed (approximately) in nanometers?
(a) 183 × 106 nanometres
(b) 234 × 106 nanometres
(c) 183 × 107 nanometres
(d) 234 × 107 nanometres
131. The context of the Indian defence, what is ‘Dhruv’?
(a) Aircraft-carrying warship
(b) Missile-carrying submarine
(c) Advanced light helicopter
(d) Intercontinental ballistic missile
132. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
List-I List-II
(Person) (Known As)
A. Bhajan Sopori 1. Bharatnatyam dancer
B. Birju Maharaj 2. Exponent of Santoor
C. Priyadarsini 3. Mridangam maestro
D. T V Go Dalakrishnan 4. Kathak dancer
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
133. Who among the following is considered as the inventor of table WorldWideWeb (WWW}?
(a) Edward Kasrier
(b) Bill Gates
(c) Tim Berners-Lee
(d) Vinod Dham
134. Where are the headquarters of the’ Organization of the Islamic Conference (OIC) located?
(a) Dubai
(b) Jeddah
(c) Islamabad
(d) Ankara
135. Which one of the following is not a member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization?
(a) Russia
(b) Kazakhstan
(c) Ukraine
(d) Uzbekistan
136. Who among the following wrote the book - Ayodhya: 6 December 1992?
(a) Chandra Shekhar
(b) P V Narasimha Rao
(c) Jaswant Sttygh
(d) Arun Shourie
137. Wangari Maathai, the Nobel Prize winner from Kdnya is known for her Contribution to which one of the following?
(a) Journalism
(b) International economics
(c) Sustainable development
(d) Child development
138. How is Gabriel Garcia Marquez wellknown as?
(a) Known for research in agriculture
(b) A renowned football coach
(c) A great writer who won the Nobel Prize for literature
(d) Known for research in railway engineering
139. Wherewas the first conference of the Pugwash Conferences on Science and World Affairs held in the year 1957?
(a) Minnowbrook (USA)
(b) Rhode Island (USA)
(c) Nova Scotia (Canada)
(d) Nagasaki (Japan)
140. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following?
(a) Environmental protection
(b) Olympics Games
(c) Journalism
d) Civil Aviation
141. RaghuRai iswell-known forwhich one of the following areas?
(a) Research in Mathematics
(b) Photography
(c) Water harvesting
(d) Pollution control
142. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
List-I List-II
(Eminent Person) (Known As)
A. Bhanu Bharti 1. Music Composer
B. Mike Pandey 2. Poet and litterateur
C. Mohd Zahur 3. Theatre Khayyam director
D. Vinda Karandikar 4. Wildlife film maker
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
143. Whowrote the book—‘The Story of the Integration of the Indian States’?
(a) B N Rau
(b) C Rajagopalchari
(c) Krishna Menon
(d) V P Menon
144. Match List-Iwith List-II and select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
List-I (Winter) List-II (Book)
A. V S Naipaul 1. The Siege of Krishnapur
B. Salman Rushdie 2. In a Free State
C. Paul Scott 3. Midnight’s Children
D. J G Farrell 4. Staying On
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
145. Consider the following statements:
1. The series of the International Paper Sizes is based on A0 size whose area is 0.5 m2 (approximately).
2. The area of A4 size paper is 1/8th of that of the A0 size paper.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
146. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) T S : Former Chief Krishnamurthy Election Commissioner of India
(b) K C Pant : Chairman, Tenth Finance Commission of India
(c) A M Khusro : Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
(d) R C Lahoti : Former Chief Justice of India
147. Consider the following statements:
1. The Judges (Inquiry) Bi ll 2006 contemplates to establish a Judicial Council which will receive complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justipe of India, High Court Chief Justices and Judges
2. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act’, 2005, a women can file a petition before a 1st Class Judicial Magistrate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
148. Consider the following statements:
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both, 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
149. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following as full States of the Indian Union?
(a) Sikkim—Arunachal Pradesh—Nagaland - Haryana
(b) Nagaland—Har yana—Sik kim— Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Sikk im—Haryana—Nagal and— Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Nagaland—Arunachal Pradesh—Sikkim
150. Who among the following have been the Union Finance Ministers of India?
1. V P Singh 2. Venkataraman
3. Y B Chavan 4. Pranab Mukherjee
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and4
Answers:
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c)24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (d) 31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a)40. (b) 41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (c) 51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (c) 61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (b) 76. (d) 77. (b) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (a) 81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (b) 86. (d) 87. (b) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (d) 91. (d) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (d) 97. (d) 98. (d) 99. (d) 100. (d) 101. (b) 102. (c) 103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (c) 107. (d) 108. (b) 109. (c) 110. (c) 111. (b) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (c) 20. (c) 121. (a) 122. (d) 123. (c) 124. (a) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (b) 128. (c) 129. (a) 130. (c) 131. (c) 132. (c) 133. (c) 134 (b) 135. (c) 136. (b) 137. (c) 138. (c) 139. (c) 140. (c) 141. (b) 142. (d) 143.(d) 144. (a) 145. (d) 146. (c) 147. (b) 148. (a) 149. (b) 150. (d)
Average Resting Heart beats per Minute
- Adult Males about 72
- Adult Females 76 to 80
- Newborns up to 140
- Children about 90
- Elderly 50 to 65
Public Administration Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as "the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends" ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)
2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)
3. 'Good Governance' and 'Participating Civil Society for Development' were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)
4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)
5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)
6. By whom was the 'Managerial Grid' developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)
7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)
8. The concept of the 'zone of indifference' is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)
9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of 'circular response' ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)
10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)
11. Who wrote the book 'Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective' ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)
12. Who rejected the principles of administration as 'myths' and 'proverbs' ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)
13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)
14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)
15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)
16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)
17. 'Job loading' means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
18. The theory of 'Prismatic Society' in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)
19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following is not included in 'hygiene' factors in the Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company's policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)
21. The 'Gang-Plank' refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)
22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)
23. Henry Fayol's General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)
24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)
26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
Ans : (C)
27. The principle of 'span of control' means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
Ans : (B)
28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
Ans : (D)
29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
Ans : (D)
30. In hierarchy, the term 'scalar' means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
Ans : (B)
31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
Ans : (D)
32. One who tells one's supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
Ans : (B)
34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)
36. The most effective means of citizen's control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)
37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
Ans : (D)
38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
Ans : (C)
39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
40. 'Habeas Corpus' literally means—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
41. The system of 'Rule of Law' was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (A)
42. Who says that "Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely" ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
Ans : (C)
43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
Ans : (B)
44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
Ans : (B)
45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)
46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
Ans : (C)
47. 'Grand Corps' in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans : (C)
48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Ans : (D)
49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)
50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
Ans : (A)
51. The term 'Performance Budget' was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)
52. During passing of budget in the Parliament 'Guilotine' is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)
53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)
55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)
56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)
57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)
58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)
59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)
60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)
61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)
62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)
63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)
64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)
65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)
66. 'Position classification' is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)
67. The civil service was defined as "professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled" by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)
68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)
69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)
70. The 'spoils system' in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)
71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)
72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)
73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)
74. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Ans : (C)
75. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Ans : (B)
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)
2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)
3. 'Good Governance' and 'Participating Civil Society for Development' were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)
4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)
5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)
6. By whom was the 'Managerial Grid' developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)
7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)
8. The concept of the 'zone of indifference' is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)
9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of 'circular response' ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)
10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)
11. Who wrote the book 'Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective' ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)
12. Who rejected the principles of administration as 'myths' and 'proverbs' ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)
13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)
14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)
15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)
16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)
17. 'Job loading' means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
18. The theory of 'Prismatic Society' in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)
19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following is not included in 'hygiene' factors in the Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company's policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)
21. The 'Gang-Plank' refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)
22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)
23. Henry Fayol's General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)
24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)
26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
Ans : (C)
27. The principle of 'span of control' means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
Ans : (B)
28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
Ans : (D)
29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
Ans : (D)
30. In hierarchy, the term 'scalar' means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
Ans : (B)
31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
Ans : (D)
32. One who tells one's supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
Ans : (B)
34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)
36. The most effective means of citizen's control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)
37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
Ans : (D)
38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
Ans : (C)
39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
40. 'Habeas Corpus' literally means—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
41. The system of 'Rule of Law' was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (A)
42. Who says that "Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely" ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
Ans : (C)
43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
Ans : (B)
44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
Ans : (B)
45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)
46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
Ans : (C)
47. 'Grand Corps' in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans : (C)
48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Ans : (D)
49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)
50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
Ans : (A)
51. The term 'Performance Budget' was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)
52. During passing of budget in the Parliament 'Guilotine' is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)
53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)
55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)
56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)
57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)
58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)
59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)
60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)
61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)
62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)
63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)
64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)
65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)
66. 'Position classification' is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)
67. The civil service was defined as "professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled" by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)
68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)
69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)
70. The 'spoils system' in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)
71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)
72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)
73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)
74. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Ans : (C)
75. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Ans : (B)
List of National Security Advisors
| # | Name | Term of Office | Prime Minister(s) served under | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Start | End | |||
| 1 | Brajesh Mishra | 27 May 1998 | 27 May 2004 | Atal Bihari Vajpayee |
| 2 | J N Dixit | 27 May 2004 | 25 January 2005 | Manmohan Singh |
| 3 | M K Narayanan | 25 January 2005 | 24 January 2010 | Manmohan Singh |
| 4 | Shivshankar Menon | 24 January 2010 | Incumbent | Manmohan Singh |
ZERO HOUR IN LOK SABHA
The time immediately following the Question Hour and laying of papers and before any listed business is taken up in the House has come to be popularly known as `zero hour'. As it starts around 12 noon, this period is euphemistically termed as `zero hour'. For raising matters during the so-called zero hour in Lok Sabha, members give notice before 10 a.m. everyday to the Speaker stating clearly the subject which they consider to be important and wish to raise in the House. It is, of course, for the Speaker to allow or not allow raising of such matters in the House. The term `zero hour' is not formally recognised in parliamentary procedures.
So the maximum duration of the zero hour is unspecified.
So the maximum duration of the zero hour is unspecified.
SOME IMPORTANT QUESTIONS ON LOKSABHA
Question 1. | No. of MPs in Fifteenth Lok Sabha |
| Answer. | 544 (as on 21.12.2009) |
| Question 2. | No. of MPs in each party |
| Answer. | |
| Question 3. | No. of male MPs |
| Answer. | 485 |
| Question 4. | No. of woman MPs |
| Answer. | 59 |
| Question 5. | Oldest MP |
| Answer. | Das, Shri Ram Sundar – 88 (9.1.1921) |
| Question 6. | Youngest MP |
| Answer. | Sayeed, Shri Hamdullah – 27 (11.4.1982) |
About Lok Sabha and its History
Question 7. When was the Lok Sabha (the House of the People) first constituted?
Answer. The Lok Sabha (House of the People) was duly constituted for the first time on 17 April 1952 after the first General Elections held from 25 October 1951 to 21 February 1952.
Question 8. When was the first Session of the Lok Sabha held?
Answer. The first Session of the First Lok Sabha commenced on 13 May 1952.
Question 9. Why is the Lok Sabha called the popular chamber?
Answer. The Lok Sabha is composed of representatives of the people chosen by direct election on the basis of adult suffrage. That is why it is called the popular chamber.
Question 10. How many General Elections to the Lok Sabha have been held till date?
Answer. As many as fifteen General Elections[1] to the Lok Sabha have been held till date. The first General Elections were held from 25 October 1951 to 21 February 1952; the second from 24 February to 14 March 1957; the third from 19 to 25 February 1962; the fourth from 17 to 21 February 1967; the fifth from 1 to 10 March 1971; the sixth from 16 to 20 March 1977; the seventh from 3 to 6 January 1980; the eighth from 24 to 28 December 1984; the ninth from 22 to 26 November 1989; the tenth from 20 May to 15 June 1991; the eleventh from 27 April to 30 May 1996; the twelfth from 16 to 23 February 1998; the thirteenth from 5 September to 6 October 1999; the fourteenth from 20 April to 10 May 2004; and the fifteenth General Elections from 16 April to 13 May 2009.
Question 11.Who was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha?
Answer. Shri G.V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha (15 May 1952- 27 February 1956).
Question 12.Who was the first Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha?
Answer. Shri M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar was the first Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha (30 May 1952-7 March 1956).
Questions on the Composition of Lok Sabha
Question 13.What is the strength of the Lok Sabha as prescribed in the Constitution?
Answer. The Lok Sabha, as per the Constitution, consists of not more than five hundred and thirty members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the States, not more than twenty members to represent the Union Territories [Article 81] and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the President, if he/she is of the opinion that the Anglo-Indian Community is not adequately represented in the Lok Sabha [Article 331]. The limit on the maximum number of members chosen directly from territorial constituencies in States may be exceeded if such an increase is incidental to the reorganisation of States by an Act of Parliament.
Question 14.What is the life of the Lok Sabha?
Answer. Unless sooner dissolved by the President, the Lok Sabha continues for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer, as the expiration of the period of five years operates as a dissolution of the House. However, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, this period may be extended by Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time and not exceeding in any case beyond a period of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate.
Question 15. What is the quorum to constitute a sitting of the Lok Sabha?
Answer. The quorum to constitute a sitting of the House is one-tenth of the total number of members of the House under article 100(3) of the Constitution.
Question 16. Which is the party having the largest number of members in the Fifteenth Lok Sabha?
Answer. The Indian National Congress is the party having the largest number of members (206) in the Fifteenth Lok Sabha followed by the Bharatiya Janata Party (116). (as on 21.12.2009)
Question 17. Who is the Presiding Officer of the Lok Sabha?
Answer. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are the Presiding Officers of the Lok Sabha.
Question 18. What is the term of Office of the Speaker?
Answer. The Speaker holds office from the date of his/her election till the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after the dissolution of the one to which he/she was elected.
Question 19. Who presides over the Lok Sabha when the Speaker is absent from the sitting of the House?
Answer. The Deputy Speaker presides over the Lok Sabha when the Speaker is absent from the sitting of the House.
Question 20. Who presides over the Lok Sabha when both the Speaker's and the Deputy Speaker's offices fall vacant?
Answer. When the Offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant, the duties of the Office of the Speaker are performed by such member of the Lok Sabha as the President may appoint for the purpose. The person so appointed is known as the Speaker pro tem.
Question 21. Who presides over the House in the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker?
Answer. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha provide that at the commencement of the House or from time to time, as the case may be, the Speaker shall nominate from amongst the members a Panel of not more than ten Chairmen, any one of whom may preside over the House in the absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker when so requested by the Speaker or, in his/her absence, by the Deputy Speaker. A Chairman so nominated, holds office until a new Panel of Chairmen is nominated, unless he/she resigns earlier from the Panel or is appointed a Minister or elected as Deputy Speaker. Generally, a Chairman from the Panel holds Office for one year but the same person may be renominated from time to time.
Question 22. Who is the present Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
Answer. Smt. Meira Kumar.
Question 23. Who is the present Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
Answer Shri Kariya Munda.
Question 24. Who is the Leader of the House in the Fifteenth Lok Sabha?
Answer. Shri Pranab Mukherjee.
Question 25. Who is the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha?
Answer. Smt. Sushma Swaraj.
Question 26. Who is the Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha?
Answer. Shri T. K. Viswanathan.
Question 27. How are the members of the Lok Sabha elected?
Answer. The members of the Lok Sabha are elected through General Elections, held on the basis of universal adult suffrage. Parliament, from time to time, by law makes provision with respect to all matters relating to, or in connection with, elections to the Lok Sabha, including the preparation of electoral rolls, the delimitation of constituencies and all other matters necessary for securing the due constitution of the Lok Sabha. When the seat of a member elected to the House becomes vacant or is declared vacant, or his/her election is declared void, the same is filled through bye-election.
Question 28.What are the qualifications to become a member of the Lok Sabha?
Answer. To become a member of the Lok Sabha, a person should be a citizen of India, not less than 25 years of age and possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament [Art. 84]
Question 29. Who are the nominated members of the Fifteenth Lok Sabha?
Answer. In the Fifteenth Lok Sabha, two members, i.e. Smt. Ingrid Mcleod and Shri Charles Dias are the nominated members.
Question 30. Who is the longest serving member in the Fifteenth Lok Sabha?
Answer. Shri Basudeb Acharia and Shri Manikrao Hodlya Gavit are the longest serving members in the Lok Sabha.
Question 31. Which member of the Lok Sabha has become the Speaker of the House in his very first term?
Answer. The members of the Lok Sabha who became the Speaker of the House in their first term itself are:
Sl.No | Name of the Speaker | Period | Lok Sabha |
1. | Shri Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar | 15.5.1952 to 27.2.1956 | First |
2. | Shri M.Ananthasayanam Ayyangar | 8.3.1956 to 10.5.1957 | First * |
3. | Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy | 17.3.1967 to 19.7.1969 | Fourth |
4. | Dr. Gurdial Singh Dhillon | 8.8.1969 to 19.3.1971 | Fourth ** |
5. | Shri Kawdoor Sadananda Hegde | 21.7.1977 to 21.1.1980 | Sixth |
6. | Dr. Bal Ram Jakhar | 22.1.1980 to 15.1.1985 | Seventh |
7. | Shri Manohar Joshi | 10.5.2002 to | Thirteenth |
* Shri M.A. Ayyangar became the Speaker in the first Lok Sabha due to the sudden demise of the then Speaker, Shri G.V. Mavalankar
** Following the resignation of the then Speaker Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy to contest the Presidential elections, Dr.G.S. Dhillon was unanimously elected as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha on 8 August 1969.
Questions on Role and Functions of Lok Sabha
Question 32. What are the powers of Lok Sabha relating to Money Bills?
Answer. A Bill is deemed to be a 'Money Bill' if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters: (a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax; (b) the regulation of the borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India; (c) the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund; (d) the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India; (e) the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the increasing of the amount of any such expenditure; (f) the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a State; or (g) any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f) [Art.110].
A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha cannot make amendments in a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and transmitted to it. It can, however, recommend amendments in a Money Bill. It is open to the Lok Sabha to accept or reject any or all of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha with regard to a Money Bill. If the Lok Sabha accepts any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha, the Money Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses with amendments recommended by the Rajya Sabha and accepted by the Lok Sabha and if the Lok Sabha does not accept any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha, the Money Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the Lok Sabha without any of the amendments recommended by the Rajya Sabha. If a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and transmitted to the Rajya Sabha is not returned to the Lok Sabha within the said period of fourteen days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses at the expiration of the said period in the form in which it was passed by the Lok Sabha.
Question 33.What is the legislative relationship between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
Answer. In legislative matters, both the Houses enjoy almost equal powers except in the case of Money Bills. The main function of both the Houses is to pass laws. Every Bill has to be passed by both the Houses and assented to by the President before it becomes law. In case of Money Bills, the Lok Sabha has overriding powers.
Question 34. Is any deadlock between the two Houses possible?
Answer. Yes. In the case of Bills other than Money Bills and Constitution Amendment Bills, a disagreement between the two Houses may arise when a Bill passed by one House is rejected by the other House; or the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the Bill; or more than six months have elapsed from the date of receipt of the Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it.
Question 35. What is the mechanism for resolving such a deadlock between the two Houses?
Answer. A joint sitting of both Houses is convened by the President for this purpose. [Article 108]
Question 36. How many joint sittings of the Houses have been convened so far?
Answer. So far, joint sittings of the two Houses have taken place on three occasions. The first joint sitting was held on 6 May 1961 following a disagreement between the two Houses over certain amendments to the Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1959. This was followed by another sitting on 9 May 1961 when the Bill, as amended, was finally passed. The second joint sitting was held on 16 May 1978, following the rejection by the Rajya Sabha of the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1977 and the Bill was passed. The third joint sitting was held on 26 March 2002 when the motion to consider the Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002, seeking to replace the Prevention of Terrorism Ordinance (POTO) as passed by the Lok Sabha was rejected by the Rajya Sabha. At this sitting held for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002, the Bill was passed.
Question 37. Who presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses?
Answer. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses. [Article 118(4)]
Question 38. Does the Speaker have the right to vote?
Answer. The Speaker has a casting vote in the event of a tie. It is customary for the Presiding Officer to exercise the casting vote in such a manner as to maintain the status quo.
Question 39. How many Sessions of the Lok Sabha are held in a year?
Answer. Normally three Sessions of the Lok Sabha are held in a year, viz.,
· Budget Session - February - May
· Autumn or Monsoon Session - July - August
· Winter Session - November - December
Question 40.What is meant by Adjournment, Prorogation and Dissolution of the Lok Sabha?
Answer. ‘Adjournment’ is a postponement of the sitting or proceedings of the House from one time to another specified for the reassembling of the House. During the course of a Session, the Lok Sabha may be adjourned from day to day or for more than a day. It may also be adjourned sine die which means the termination of a sitting of the House without any definite date being fixed for its next sitting.
‘Prorogation’ means the termination of a Session of the House by an order made by the President under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution. The Prorogation of the House may take place any time, even while the House is sitting. However, usually, prorogation follows the adjournment of the sitting of the House sine die.
‘Dissolution’ of the House means the end of the life of the Lok Sabha either by an order made by the President under article 85 (2) (b) of the Constitution or on the expiration of the period of five years from the date appointed for its first meeting. Dissolution puts an end to the representative character of the individuals who at the time compose the Lok Sabha.
On adjournment of the Lok Sabha or its adjournment sine die, the pending business does not lapse. Bills pending before either House or Select/Joint Committee, Motions, Resolutions, and amendments which have already been moved and pending in the House, and business pending before a Parliamentary Committee do not lapse on prorogation whereas all business pending before the House or any of its Committee lapse on dissolution. Prorogation terminates a Session and does not constitute an interruption in the continuity of life of the Lok Sabha which is brought to an end only by dissolution.
Question 41. What are the methods of voting in the Lok Sabha?
Answer. The procedure regarding Voting and Divisions in the House is governed by article 100(1) of the Constitution and Rules 367, 367A, 367AA and 367B of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. The various methods adopted for voting in the Lok Sabha are:
(i) Voice Vote: It is a simple method for deciding a question put by the Chair on a motion made by a member. Under this method, the question before the House is determined by the `Ayes' or the `Noes', as the case may be.
(ii) Division: There are three methods of holding a Division, i.e. (a) by operating the Automatic Vote Recording Equipment; (b) by distributing `Ayes' and `Noes' slips in the House; and (c) by members going into the Lobbies. The Speaker directs the members for ‘Ayes’ to go to the right Lobby and those for ‘Noes’ to the left Lobby where their votes are recorded. However, the method of recording of votes in the Lobbies has become obsolete ever since the installation of the Automatic Vote Recording Machine.
(iii) Secret Ballot: During an 'open' voting period, the individual results are shown by the three characters 'A', 'N' and 'O' on the Individual Result Display Panel. Secret voting, if any, is on similar lines except that the Light Emitting Diode (LED) on the Individual Result Display Panel shows ‘P’ sign in amber light to show that the vote has been recorded.
(iv) Recording of votes by distribution of slips: The method of recording of votes by members on `Aye' and `No' slips is generally resorted to in the eventuality of (i) sudden failure of the working of the Automatic Vote Recording Equipment; and (ii) at the commencement of the new Lok Sabha, before the seats/division numbers have been allotted to members.
(v) Physical count of Members in their places instead of a formal division: If in the opinion of the Chair, a Division is unnecessarily claimed, he/she may ask the members who are for `Aye' and those for `No', respectively, to rise in their places and on a count being taken, he/she may declare the determination of the House. In such a case, the particulars of voting of the members are not recorded.
(vi) Casting Vote: If in a Division the number of `Ayes' and `Noes' is equal, the question is decided by the casting vote of the Chair. Under the Constitution, the Speaker or the person acting as such cannot vote in a Division; he/she has only a casting vote which he/she must exercise in the case of equality of votes.
Question 42. What is meant by the Question Hour?
Answer. Generally, the first hour of every sitting of the House, devoted to asking and answering questions, is called the `Question Hour'.
Question 43. What are the various types of Questions?
Answer. There are Starred Questions, Unstarred Questions, Short Notice Questions and Questions to Private Members. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House, which is distinguished by an asterik. To a starred question, members can put supplementaries, answers to which are given by the Minister on the floor of the House.
Unstarred Question is one to which a written answer is desired by the member and is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by the Minister.
A Short Notice Question is a question relating to a matter of public importance asked for oral answer by a member with notice shorter than ten clear days. If the Speaker is of the opinion that the question is of an urgent nature, the Minister concerned is asked if he/she is in a position to reply to the question at a shorter notice, and if so, on which date. If the Minister concerned agrees to reply, such a question is answered on a day to be indicated by him/her immediately after the questions which appeared on the list of questions for oral answer are disposed of.
A question may also be addressed to a Private Member provided the subject matter of the question relates to some Bill, Resolution or other matter connected with the business of the House for which that member is responsible. The procedure in regard to such questions is the same as that followed in the case of questions addressed to a Minister with such variations as the Speaker may consider necessary or convenient. Supplementary questions are not generally permitted on such questions. On being asked, clarifications may, however, be permitted.
Question 44. What is the maximum number of Questions admitted for a particular day?
Answer. The maximum number of Questions to be placed on the list of Questions for oral answers (Starred Question) on a particular day is 20, while the maximum number of questions to be placed on the list of Unstarred Question is 230. However, the number may exceed by a maximum of 25 Questions pertaining to State/States under President’s Rule.
Question 45. Is there any restriction regarding the number of notices that each member may give with regard to Questions?
Answer. Under the Rules, there is no restriction on the number of notices of Starred and Unstarred Questions which a member can give. But not more than five admitted questions, both Starred and Unstarred combined, by one member are placed on the list of questions for any one day. Out of these 5 questions, not more than one question distinguished by the member with asterisk* as Starred is placed on the list of questions for oral answer. This limit of one question for oral answer does not include any short notice question of the member which may have been admitted for answer on that day. Also, a member can have more than one Starred question in the list if another question from any other day is transferred to the list on transfer or postponement.
Question 46. Who decides the admissibility of Questions?
Answer. Admissibility of questions is governed by Rules, Directions by the Speaker as also precedents. The Speaker, Lok Sabha, decides whether a question or a part thereof, is or is not admissible under the Rules. He/she may disallow any question, or a part thereof, when in his/her opinion, it is an abuse of the right of questioning or is calculated to obstruct or prejudicially affect the procedure of the House or is in contravention of the Rules. The right to ask a question is governed by certain conditions like it should be pointed, specific and confined to one issue only. It should not contain arguments, inferences, ironical expressions, imputations, epithets or defamatory statements.
Question 47. How many types of Committees are there in the Lok Sabha?
Answer By nature, Parliamentary Committees are of two kinds: Ad hoc Committees and Standing Committees.
Ad hoc Committees are constituted by the House or by the Presiding Officers, singly or jointly, for a specific purpose and cease to exist when they finish the task assigned to them and submit a report. The usual Ad hoc committees are the Select/Joint Committees on Bills and others like the Railway Convention Committee, set up to review the rate of dividend payable by Railways to the General Revenues, and those constituted to enquire into and report on specific subjects.
Standing Committees are those Committees which are either elected by the House or nominated by the Presiding Officer(s) (i.e., the Speaker in the case of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman in the case of the Rajya Sabha) periodically and are permanent in nature. The Standing Committees of the Lok Sabha are: the Business Advisory Committee, Committee of Privileges, Committee on Absence of Members from the Sittings of the House, Committee on Government Assurances, Committee on Papers Laid on the Table, Petitions Committee, Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions, Committee on Subordinate Legislation, Estimates Committee, General Purposes Committee, House Committee, and Rules Committee.
Some of the Standing Committees of Lok Sabha are Joint Committees as members of both the Houses of Parliament are nominated/elected to them. Such Committees include: Committee on Empowerment of Women, Committee on Public Undertakings, Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, Joint Committee on Offices of Profit, Joint Committee on Salaries and Allowances of Members of Parliament, Library Committee, and Public Accounts Committee.
Besides, there are Departmentally related Standing Committees (DRSCs).
Question 48.What are Departmentally-related Standing Committee (DRSCs)?
Answer. The DRSC System, introduced in April 1993, brings all the Ministries /Departments of the Government of India under their purview.
There are 24 such Committees, each consisting of not more than 31 members, out of which 21 members are nominated by the Speaker, Lok Sabha, and 10 members are nominated by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha. Of the 24 DRSCs, 16 Committees function under the administrative control of the Speaker, Lok Sabha, and 8 Committees under the administrative control of the Chairman, Rajya Sabha.
Question 49.What are the functions of the DRSCs?
Answer. With reference to the Ministries/Departments under their purview, the functions of the Departmentally Related Standing Committees are: (a) consideration of Demands for Grants; (b) examination of Bills referred to them by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha, or the Speaker, Lok Sabha, as the case may be; (c) consideration of Annual Reports; and (d) consideration of national, basic, long-term policy documents presented to the House and referred to the Committee by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha, or the Speaker, Lok Sabha, as the case may be. These Committees do not generally consider matters related to the day-to-day administration of the Ministries/Departments concerned and matters which are under consideration by other Parliamentary Committees.
Question 50.Which are the Departmentally related Standing Committees attached to the Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha?
Answer. The sixteen Departmentally related Standing Committees functioning under the administrative control of the Speaker, Lok Sabha, are: Committee on Agriculture; Committee on Chemicals and Fertilizers; Committee on Coal and Steel; Committee on Defence; Committee on Energy; Committee on External Affairs; Committee on Finance; Committee on Food, Consumer Affairs and Public Distribution; Committee on Information Technology; Committee on Labour; Committee on Petroleum and Natural Gas; Committee on Railways; Committee on Rural Development; Committee on Social Justice and Empowerment; Committee on Urban Development; and Committee on Water Resources.
The eight DRSCs functioning under the administrative control of the Chairman, Rajya Sabha, are: Committee on Commerce; Committee on Health & Family Welfare; Committee on Home Affairs; Committee on Human Resource Development; Committee on Industry; Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law & Justice; Committee on Science & Technology, and Environment & Forests; and Committee on Transport, Tourism & Culture.
Question 51. What are Parliamentary Forums and what are their objectives?
Answer. Parliamentary Forums have been constituted with the objective of equipping members with information and knowledge on specific issues of national concern and in assisting them to adopt a result-oriented approach towards related issues. These Forums provide an opportunity to members to come together and discuss a particular issue and its wider ramifications.
Question 52. How many Parliamentary Forums have been constituted so far?
Answer. The first Parliamentary Forum – on Water Conservation and Management – was constituted by the Speaker, Lok Sabha, on 12 August 2005. Subsequently, four more Parliamentary Forums were constituted, namely the Parliamentary Forum on Youth, which has four sub-Forums, viz. on Sports and Youth Development, on Health, on Education, and on Employment; Parliamentary Forum on Children; Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health; and Parliamentary Forum on Global Warming and Climate Change.
Question 53. What is the structure of the Parliamentary Forums?
Answer. Each Parliamentary Forum consists of not more than 31 members, excluding the Speaker of Lok Sabha, who is the ex officio President, and the Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha, the Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha, the Ministers-in-charge of the Ministries concerned with the subject and the Chairman of the Departmentally Related Standing Committee concerned who are the ex officio Vice-Presidents. Each Forum has 21 members from the Lok Sabha and 10 members from the Rajya Sabha.
Questions relating to Legislation
Question 54. What is a Bill?
Answer. A Bill is the draft of a legislative proposal brought before the House for its approval.
Question 55. What are the different types of Bills?
Answer. Bills initiated by Ministers are called Government Bills and those introduced by members who are not Ministers are known as Private Members' Bills. Depending on their contents, Bills may further be classified broadly into (a) Original Bills (Bills embodying new proposals, ideas or policies); (b) Amending Bills (Bills which seek to modify, amend or revise the existing Acts); (c) Consolidating Bills (Bills which seek to consolidate existing laws on a particular subject; (d) Expiring Laws (Continuance) Bills (Bills to continue an expiring Act); (e) Repealing Bills (Bills seeking to repeal existing Acts); (f) Bills to replace Ordinances; (g) Constitution (Amendment) Bills; and (h) Money and Financial Bills.
Question 56. Who decides whether a Bill is an ordinary Bill or a Money Bill?
Answer. In case any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker, Lok Sabha, thereon, is final. When a Bill is held by the Speaker to be a Money Bill, he/she endorses a certificate thereon signed by him/her to that effect that it is a Money Bill before the bill is sent to the Rajya Sabha or presented to the President for assent.
Question 57. What is the difference between a Bill and an Act?
Answer A Bill is a draft legislative proposal before the House. It becomes an Act only when passed by both the Houses of Parliament and assented to by the President.
Question 58. What are the various steps involved in the passage of a Bill?
Answer. A Bill while being considered has to undergo three stages in each House of Parliament. The first stage consists of the introduction of the Bill which is done on a motion moved by either a Minister or a member.
During the second stage, any of the following motions can be moved: that the Bill be taken into consideration; that it be referred to a Select Committee of the House; that it be referred to a Joint Committee of the two Houses; or that it be circulated for the purpose of eliciting opinion thereon. Thereafter, the Bill is taken up for clause-by-clause consideration as introduced or as reported by the Select/Joint Committee.
The third stage is confined to the discussion on the motion that the Bill be passed and the Bill is passed/rejected either by voting or voice vote (or returned to the Lok Sabha by the Rajya Sabha in the case of a Money Bill).
Question 59. What is Budget?
Answer. Budget is the `Annual Financial Statement' or the Statement of the Estimated Receipts and Expenditure of the Government of India in respect of each financial year, presented to the Lok Sabha on such day as the President may direct. A copy of the Budget is laid in the Rajya Sabha soon after its presentation in the Lok Sabha. The preparation and presentation of the Budget for the approval of the Legislature is a constitutional obligation on the part of the Government, both at the Centre and in the States.
Question 60. When is the Budget Session of Parliament held?
Answer. The Budget Session of Parliament is normally held during February to May of the year. During this period, the Budget comes before the Parliament for its deliberation, voting and approval; the Departmentally related Standing Committees consider the Demands for Grants of Ministries/Departments and report on the same to the Houses of Parliament.
Question 61. Who presents the Budget in the House?
Answer. Two types of Budgets are usually presented in the House namely, the General Budget and the Railway Budget. The General Budget is presented by the Minister of Finance and the Railway Budget by the Minister of Railways.
Question 62. What is a Calling Attention ?
Answer. Under this procedural device, a member may, with the prior permission of the Speaker, call the attention of a Minister to any matter of urgent public importance and the Minister may make a brief statement or ask for time to make a statement later. There can be no debate on such a statement at the time it is made. But, brief clarifications can be sought from the Minister by the member who has initiated the Calling Attention and other members who are called by the Speaker. Only those matters which are primarily the concern of the Union Government can be raised through a Calling Attention notice. The Calling Attention procedure is an Indian innovation which combines asking a question with supplementaries and making brief comments; the Government also gets adequate opportunity to state its case. The Calling Attention matter is not subject to the vote of the House.
Question 63. What is a Motion?
Answer. The term `motion' in parliamentary parlance means any formal proposal made to the House by a member for the purpose of eliciting a decision of the House. It is phrased in such a way that, if adopted, it will purport to express the judgement or will of the House. Any matter of importance can be the subject matter of a motion. The mover of a motion frames it in a form in which he/she wishes it ultimately to be passed by the House and on which a vote of the House can conveniently be taken.
Question 64. What are the different types of Motion?
Answer. Motions may be classified into three broad categories, namely, substantive motions, substitute motions and subsidiary motions.
A substantive motion is a self-contained, independent proposal made in reference to a subject which the mover wishes to bring forward. All Resolutions, Motions for election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker, and Motion of Thanks on the Address by the President, etc. are examples of substantive motions.
A substitute motion, as its name suggests, is moved in substitution of the original motion for taking into consideration a policy or situation or statement or any other matter. Amendments to substitute motions are not permissible.
Subsidiary motions depend upon or relate to other motions or follow up on some proceedings in the House. By itself, it has no meaning and is not capable of stating the decision of the House without reference to the original motion or the proceedings of the House.
Question 65. What is an Adjournment Motion?
Answer. Adjournment Motion is the procedure for adjournment of the business of the House for the purpose of discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance, which can be moved with the consent of the Speaker. The Adjournment Motion, if admitted, leads to setting aside of the normal business of the House for discussing the matter mentioned in the motion. To be in order, an adjournment motion must raise a matter of sufficient public importance to warrant interruption of normal business of the House and the question of public importance is decided on merit in each individual case. The purpose of an Adjournment Motion is to take the Government to task for a recent act of omission or commission having serious consequences. Its adoption is regarded as a sort of censure of the Government.
Question 66. What is a Motion of No-confidence?
Answer. The Government must always enjoy majority support in the popular House to remain in power. If need be, it has to demonstrate its strength on the floor of the House by moving a Motion of Confidence and winning the confidence of the House. In view of the express constitutional provision regarding collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha, a motion expressing want of confidence in an individual Minister is out of order; under the Rules, only a motion expressing want of confidence in the Council of Ministers as a body is admissible. Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha lays down the procedure for moving a Motion of No-Confidence in the Council of Ministers. The usual format of such a motion is that "this House expresses its want of confidence in the Council of Ministers". A Motion of No-confidence need not set out any grounds on which it is based. Even when grounds are mentioned in the notice and read out in the House, they do not form part of the No-confidence Motion.
Question 67. What is a No-Day-Yet-Named Motion?
Answer If the Speaker admits notice of a motion and no date is fixed for its discussion, it is called a ‘No-Day-yet-Named Motion’ and a copy of the admitted motion is forwarded to the Minister concerned with the subject matter of the motion.
Admitted notices of such motions may be placed before the Business Advisory Committee for selecting the motions for discussion in the House according to the urgency and importance of the subject-matter thereof, and allotting time for the same.
Question 68. What is a Half-an-Hour Discussion?
Answer. The procedure regarding Half-an-hour discussion is regulated by Rule 55 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha and Direction 19 of the Directions by the Speaker. Under this, a member may give notice to raise a discussion on a matter of sufficient public importance which has been the subject of a recent question, Starred, Unstarred or Short Notice Question, and the answer to which needs further elucidation on a matter of fact. A notice is also required to be accompanied by an explanatory note stating the reasons for raising discussion and should also be signed. Only one notice of Half-an-hour discussion is put down for a sitting and no formal motion is moved in the House nor does voting take place. The member who has given notice makes a short statement and the members who have previously intimated the Speaker and have secured one of the four places in the ballot are permitted to put a question each for the purpose of further elucidating any matter of fact. Thereafter, the Minister concerned replies briefly. Half-an-hour discussions are held on such days as may be recommended by the Business Advisory Committee and approved by the House.
Question 69. What is meant by “Discussion under Rule 193”?
Answer. Discussion under Rule 193 does not involve a formal motion before the House. Hence no voting can take place after discussion on matters under this rule. The member who gives notice may make a short statement and such of the members as have previously intimated to the Speaker, may be permitted to take part in the discussion. The member who raises the discussion has no right of reply. At the end of the discussion, the Minister concerned gives a brief reply.
Question 70. What is a Short Duration Discussion?
Answer. In order to provide opportunities to members to discuss matters of urgent public importance, a convention was established in March 1953 which was incorporated later into the Rules of Procedure and conduct of Business in Lok Sabha under Rule 193 as Short Duration Discussion. Under this Rule, members can raise discussion for short durations without a formal motion or vote thereon.
Question 71. What is meant by matters under Rule 377?
Matters, which are not points of order can be raised by way of Special Mentions under Rule 377. This procedural device, framed in 1954, provides opportunity to the members to raise matters of general public interest. At present, the number of matters that can be raised by members under Rule 377 on a single day is 20.
Question 72. What is ‘Zero Hour’?
Answer. The time immediately following the Question Hour and laying of papers and before any listed business is taken up in the House has come to be popularly known as the `Zero Hour'. As it starts around 12 noon, this period is euphemistically termed as `Zero Hour'. For raising matters during the so-called ‘Zero Hour’ in Lok Sabha, members give notice before 10 a.m. everyday to the Speaker stating clearly the subject which they consider to be important and wish to raise in the House. It is, of course, for the Speaker to allow or not allow raising of such matters in the House. The term `Zero Hour' is not formally recognised in our parliamentary procedure.
Question 73. How many matters are allowed to be raised under ‘Zero Hour’?
Answer. At present, twenty matters per day as per their priority in the ballot are allowed to be raised during ‘Zero Hour’. The order in which the matters will be raised is decided by the Speaker at his/her discretion. In the first phase, 5 matters of urgent national and international importance, as decided by the Chair, are taken up after Question Hour and laying of papers, etc. In the second phase, the remaining admitted matters of urgent public importance are taken up after 6.00 P.M. or at the end of the regular business of the House.
Question 74. What is a Resolution?
Answer A Resolution is a formal expression of the sense, will or action of the Legislative Body. Resolutions may be broadly divided into three categories:
· Resolutions which are expression of opinion by the House – since the purpose of such a Resolution is merely to obtain an expression of opinion of the House, the Government is not bound to give effect to the opinions expressed in these Resolutions.
· Resolutions which have statutory effect – the notice of a Statutory Resolution is given in pursuance of a provision in the Constitution or an Act of Parliament. Such a Resolution, if adopted, is binding on the Government and has the force of law.
· Resolutions which the House passes in the matter of control over its own proceedings. It has the force of law and its validity cannot be challenged in any court of law. The House, by such a Resolution, evolves, sometimes, its own procedure to meet a situation not specifically provided for in the Rules.
Question 75. What is a Point of Order?
Answer: A Point of Order relates to the interpretation or enforcement of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the House or convention or such articles of the Constitution as regulate the business of the House and raises a question which is within the cognizance of the Speaker.
A Point of Order may be raised only in relation to the business before the House at the moment, provided that the Speaker may permit a member to raise a Point of Order during the interval between the termination of one item of business and the commencement of another if it relates to maintenance of order in, or arrangement of business before, the House. A member may formulate a Point of Order and the Speaker shall decide whether the point raised is a Point of Order and if so give his/her decision thereon, which is final.
Question 76. Does the Speaker have the power to adjourn the House or suspend the sitting?
Answer: Under Rule 375, in the case of a grave disorder arising in the House, the Speaker may, if he/she thinks it necessary to do so, adjourn the House or suspend any sitting for a time to be named by him/her.
Question 77. When does the President address the Parliament?
Answer. The Constitution provides for an Address by the President to either House or both Houses assembled together [Article 86(1)]. The Constitution also makes incumbent upon the President to address both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first Session after each General Election to the Lok Sabha and at the commencement of the first Session each year and inform Parliament of the causes of its summons. [Article 87(1)]. The matters referred to in the Address by the President to the Houses are discussed on a Motion of Thanks moved by a member and seconded by another member.
Question 78. Can members raise questions on the Address by the President?
Answer. No member can raise questions on the Address by the President. Any action on the part of a member which mars the occasion or creates disturbance is punishable by the House to which that member belongs. Discussion on matters referred to in the Address takes place on a Motion of Thanks moved by a member and seconded by another member. The scope of discussion on the Address is very wide and the functioning of the entire administration is open for discussion; the limitations inter alia are that members should not refer to matters which are not the direct responsibility of the Government of India, and the name of the President should not be brought in during the debate since the Government, and not the President, is responsible for the contents of the Address.
Question 79. What are parliamentary privileges?
Answer The term `parliamentary privilege' refers to certain rights and immunities enjoyed by each House of Parliament and Committees of each House collectively, and by members of each House individually, without which they cannot discharge their functions efficiently and effectively. The object of parliamentary privileges is to safeguard the freedom, the authority and the dignity of Parliament. The powers, privileges and immunities of either House of Parliament and of its Committees and members have been laid down in article 105 of the Constitution. The House has the power to punish any person who commits a contempt of the House or a breach of any of its privileges.
Question 80. Are the parliamentary privileges codified in India?
Answer. No law has so far been enacted by Parliament in pursuance of article 105(3) of the Constitution to define the powers, privileges and immunities available to each House and its members and the Committees thereof. In the absence of any such law, the powers, privileges and immunities of the Houses of Parliament, and of the members and the Committees thereof, shall be those of that House and of its members and Committees immediately before the coming into force of section 15 of the Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978.
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)