INDIAN CONSTITUTION MCQs

1. Who administers the Oath of Office to the President?
A. The Chief Justice of India
B. The Speaker
C. The Prime Minister
D. The Vice President

2. Who has the authority to proclaim emergency in the States?
A. The Governor
B. The Chief Minister
C. The President
D. The Prime Minister

3. Which of the following amendments relates to the Local Government Institutions?
A. 52nd Amendment
B. 73rd Amendment
C. 66th Amendment
D. 70th Amendment

4. The real executive authority of the State is
A. the Governor
B. the Speaker
C. the Council of Ministers
D. the Chief Justice of High Court

5. The minimum age for being eligible to become the Prime Minister of India is
A. 21 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 35 years

6. When was the President’s Succession Act enacted?
A. 1955
B. 1959
C. 1964
D. 1969

7. Who enjoys the right to impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights?
A. The President
B. The Supreme Court
C. The Parliament
D. The Lok Sabha

8. How many times the President has declared the financial emergency?
A. Once
B. Twice
C. Thrice
D. Never

9. Who decides the disputes regarding the election of the President?
A. The Speaker
B. The Supreme Court
C. The Election Commission
D. The Parliament

10. How many seats are reserved for Union Territories in the Lok Sabha?
A. 10 seats
B. 15 seats
C. 20 seats
D. 30 seats

11. Who is legally competent to declare war?
A. The President
B. The Prime Minister
C. The Lok Sabha
D. The Parliament

12. What is the maximum age prescribed for election as President of India?
A. 58 years
B. 60 years
C. 62 years
D. No such limit

13. The President of India can declare emergency
A. on his own
B. on the recommendations of the Council of Ministers
C. on the recommendations of the Prime Minister
D. on the recommendations of the Parliament

14. The monthly salary of the Vice President of India is
A. Rs.75,000
B. Rs.100,000
C. Rs.150,000
D. Rs.125,000

15. Who has the right to convene the Joint Session of the two Houses of Parliament in India?
A. The Prime Minister
B. The President
C. The Vice President
D. None of them

16. The chief source of political power in India is
A. the people
B. the constitution
C. the Parliament
D. the Parliament and the State Legislatures

17. The Prime Minister is the
A. Head of the State
B. Head of the Government
C. Head of the State and the head of the Government
D. None of these

18. A bill in each House is subject to
A. one reading
B. two readings
C. three readings
D. four readings

19. Consider the Statements:
I. Supreme Court of India is the highest court of appeals
II. Supreme Court is the custodian of the Constitution
III. Supreme Court’s advice is binding on the President of India
IV. Supreme Court is empowered to appoing Judges of lower courts
A. I alone is correct
B. I and II are correct
C. I, II and III are correct
D. All are correct

20. The President of India is
A. the head of the Government
B. the head of the State
C. the head of the Parliament
D. the head of the Judiciary

21. The Chairman of the Planning Commission in India is
A. President
B. Vice President
C. Speaker
D. Prime Minister

22. The modern State is described as
A. a police state
B. a welfare state
C. a laissez faire state
D. autocratic state

23. Which of the following States does not have a bi-cameral legislature?
A. Bihar
B. Karnataka
C. Rajasthan
D. Maharashtra

24. The Ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to approval by
A. the President
B. the Chief Minister
C. the Parliament
D. the State Legislature

25. Can one person act as Governor for more than one State?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Only for three months
D. Only for six months

26. Right to free education within certain limits is
A. guaranteed as a fundamental right
B. enshrined in the Directive Principles of State policy
C. outlined in the Preamble of the constitution
D. ignored by constitution

27. Now Tamil Nadu has
A. Unicameral Legislature
B. Bicameral Legislature
C. Tricameral Legislature
D. None of the above

28. Select the correct sequence in ascending order.
A. Deputy Ministers, Ministers of State and Cabinet Ministers
B. Ministers of State, Deputy Ministers and Cabinet Ministers
C. Ministers of State, Cabinet Ministers and Deputy Ministers
D. Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers

29. Vice President of India presides over
A. House of People
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Both A & B
D. Union Cabinet

30. Which was the lengthiest amendment to the Constitution of India?
A. 24th Amendment
B. 30th Amendment
C. 42nd Amendment
D. Union Cabinet

31. Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of
A. the President
B. Parliament
C. Comptroller and Auditor-General
D. Finance Minister

32. Planning Commission is established by
A. The Cabinet resolution
B. The Parliament resolution
C. The President
D. The Prime Minister

33. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin.
Reason (R): It is not the duty of the state to maintain the rights of the citizens.
Now select the answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true

34. A bill for alteration of boundaries of States shall not be introduced in the Parliament without
the recommendation?
A. the presiding officers of both houses of parliament
B. the legislatures of the States concerned
C. the Supreme Court
D. the President

35. In a federal state
A. state are more powerful than the centre
B. centre is more powerful than states
C. a presidential form of government functions
D. constitution effects division of powers between the center and states with safeguards
against transgression of jurisdiction

36. Who holds the power of Judicial Review in India?
A. The President
B. The Prime Minister
C. Supreme Court
D. The Parliament

37. Which of the following State Governors enjoys special powers with regard to the administration
of tribal areas?
A. Orissa
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Bihar
D. Assam

38. The Governor of a State
A. enjoys office for five years
B. enjoys the confidence of the President
C. enjoys the confidence of the Chief Minister
D. enjoys the confidence of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

39. Under what circumstances can some of the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
A. On the orders of a Court
B. When President’s rule is imposed
C. When a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation
D. During financial emergency

40. Who among the following acts as the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
A. Vice President of India
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. One who is elected by the Members of Rajya Sabha
D. The leader of the party having the highest number of members in Rajya Sabha

41. Which one of the following is not matched correctly?
Scheduled in the Indian Costitution Deals with
A. Ninth Schedule Provisions as to disqualification on grounds of defection
B. Eighth Schedule Languages
C. Seventh Schedule Union, Sate and Concurrent
D. Fourth Schedule Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha

42. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. If both the President and the Vice President resign, the Speaker of Sabha will act as President till a new President is elected.
B. The Constitution of India prescribes both the minimum and maximum age limits for contesting the Presidential election
C. In the event of resignation of the President, the Vice-President will act as President for the residual period of the President’s tenure as in the U.S.A.
D. In India, the President a part of Parliament

43. The most essential feature of the Parliamentary Form of Government is the
A. Sovereignty of Parliament
B. Written Constitution
C. Accountability of the Executive to the Legislature
D. Independence of the Judiciary

44. Which one of the following is true regarding the Vice Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
A. One has to be a member of Rajya Sabha for election to the post of Vice-Chairman
B. One need not necessarily be member of Rajya Sabha for election to the post of the Vice Chairman, as is in the case of Chairman
C. One has to be a member of either House of Parliament for election to the post of Vice- Chairman of Rajya Sabha
D. There is an established convention that the Vice Chairman of Rajya Sabha belongs to the main Opposition Party in Rajya Sabha

45. Indian Constitution has been amended how many times since India became a Republic?
A. 75 times
B. 76 times
C. 100 times
D. 80 times

46. Which one of the following first mooted the idea of a constituent assembly to frame a Constitution for India?
A. Swaraj Party in 1934
B. Congress Party in 1936
C. Muslim League in 1942
D. All Parties Conference in 1946

47. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to
A. the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
B. special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
C. discretionary powers of the Governor of the State
D. special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard

48. Consider the following statements:
No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem, since
I. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of speech and expression
II. it will be violative of the Right to Freedom of Conscience and practise and propagation of
religion
III. there is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the National Anthem.
Of these statements
A. I and III are correct
B. II and III are correct
C. I, II and III are correct
D. None is correct

49. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The Prime Minister of India
A. is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are members of either House of the Parliament
B.can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the President of India in this regard
C. has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as minister in his cabinet
D. has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretion ary power vested with the President of India

50. B.R.Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent Assembly from
A. West Bengal
B. the Bombay Presidency
C. the then Madhya Bharat
D. Punjab

51. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (R): The word ‘minority’ is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true

52. Which of the following statements is not true about the National Commission for Women?
A. The Commission was set up by an act of Parliament and started working in 1992
B. The Commission has decided to setup Maha Mahila Adalats across the country very soon
C. The Commission has recommended to amend the dowry Act, Hindu Marriage Act, and Special Marriage Act and the Govt. has accepted the same
D. The Commission has powers to investigate and review functions of various law making agencies in India

53. The Legislative Council in a state may be created or abolished by the
A. President, on the recommendation of the Governor
B. Parliament
C. Parliament after the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect
D. Governor on a recommendation by the State cabinet

54. In which case did the Supreme Court concede the right of Parliament to amend the Constitution,
but denied it the right to amend the basic structure of the Constitution?
A. Keshavananda Bharati Case
B. Golak Nath Case
C. Minerva Mills Case
D. None of these

55. On what ground, the Supreme Court of India can accept the appeal against any High Court Judgement?
A. It is the apex court of the country
B. There is sufficient legal jurisdiction in it
C. That is the Fundamental Right of the person who appeals
D. Law Minister has recommended in the regard

56. When can a bill be referred to the Parliamentary Committee?
A. Just after being placed in the Parliament
B. After general debate/discussion in the second reading
C. After partial debate/discussion
D. After difference between two houses

57. In what way the Finance Commission can recommend to the centre for transfer of resources
to States?
A. Debt, subside and tax share
B. Debt and subsidy
C. Debt and tax share
D. Subsidy and tax share

58. To uphold and protect the sovereignity, unity and integrity of India, a provision has been made in the
A. Directive Principles of State Policy
B. Preamable to the Constitution
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Fundamental Rights

59. Which of the following are Financial Committee of Parliament in India?
I. Public Accounts Committee
II. Union Ministry of Finance
III. Committee of Public Undertakings
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II and III

60. Communal representation presupposes the existence of
A. a joint electorate
B. separate electorates
C. reservation of seats
D. there can be both joint as well as separate electorates

61. How do Directive Principles of State Policy differ from Fundamental Rights?
A. The former are meant for Central Government, whereas the latter are for the States
B. The former are not a part of the Constitution, whereas the latter are the part of the Constitution
C. The Directive Principles are not enforceable, whereas the Fundamental Rights are enforceable
D. None of these

62. The date of 26th January when India became a Rapublic with a new Constitution was adopted, because
A. on that day in 1885, the Indian National Congress was founded
B. on that day in 1919, the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy took place
C. on the day in 1930, the Congress observed the Independence Day in the country
D. on that day in 1941, the Quit India Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi

63. A federal system
A. must have a written costitution
B. must have an unwritten constitution
C. may have either written or unwritten constitution
D. may not have any constitution

64. Which Fundamental Right is concerned with abolition of social distinctions?
A. Right to equality
B. Right against exploitation
C. Right to life and liberty
D. Cultural and educational rights

65. Which part of the Constitution directs the State to establish Panchayati Raj Institution in the country?
A. The Preamble
B. The Directive Principles of State Policy
C. The Fundamental Rights
D. None of these

66. The Supreme Court of India consists of a Chief Justice and
A. 7 judges
B. 9 judges
C. 11 judges
D. 25 judges

67. The phrase ‘procedure’ established by law’
A. gives immense powers in the hands of the courts regarding judicial review
B. limits the authority of the Indian Courts in the matter of judicial review and the courts cannot go into the question as to whether a law is just or not
C. gives the authority to the courts to go into the question as to whether a law is just or not
D. None of these

68. What is the minimum duration of a stay necessary, before a person can apply for Indian
citizenship?
A. 5 years
B. 3 years
C. 7 years
D. 10 years

69. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates
A. the concept of Welfare State
B. Right to Equality
C. a Directive Principle
D. the Right to Freedom

70. The 81st Constitutional Amendment Bill deals with
A. setting up of a Separate State of Uttarakhand
B. reservation for women in Parliament and State Legislatures
C. grant of greater attonomy for Jammu and Kashmir
D. relates to carrying forwards backlog vacancies of Scheduled castes and Scheduled tribes

71. To whom a case of dispute in the election of the President of india be referred?
A. Election Commission
B. Parliament
C. Supreme Court of India
D. Central Cabinet

72. Bills are normally introduced in the Parliament
A. during question hour
B. during zero hour
C. soon after lunch break
D. shortly before the House adjourns for the day

73. In India, with several characteristics of a Federal Government, the supremacy lies in
A. Constitution
B. Parliament
C. Supreme Court
D. Bureaucracy

74. Which one of the Directive of Principles was not included in the Original Constitution, but was added by the 42nd Amendment?
A. To create respect for Inter-National law
B. To avoid concentration of wealth
C. To provide free legal aid
D. To ensure equal wages for equal work

75. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India acts as the Chief Accountant and Auditor for the
A. Union Government
B. State Governments
C. Union and State Governments
D. Neither Union nor State Governments

76. The theory of Check and Balances is a unique feature of the
A. British Constitution
B. Indian Constitution
C. American Constitution
D. Japanese Constitution

77. To which of the following Bills, the President must accord his sanction whithout sending it
back for reconsideration?
A. Ordinary Bills
B. Money Bills
C. Bills passed by both the Houses of Parliament
D. Bills seeking amendment to the Constitution

78. One of the chief defects of Universal Adult Franchise is
A. it gives chance to a common man to be associated with the decisions of the government
B. it protects the rights of minorities
C. it leads to rule by ignorants
D. it lays emphasis on the principle of equality

79. Which one of the following sets of special powers have been conferred on Rajya Sabha by the Constitution?
A. To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
B. To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and creation of one or more All-India Services
C. To amend the elction procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his retirement
D. To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

80. Article 356 of the Constitution of India deals with
A. autonomy of States
B. the proclamation of President’s Rule in a State
C. the removal of a Chief Minister
D. the appointment of a Governor

81. In which of the following situations does the President act in his own discretion?
A. In appointing the Prime Minister
B. In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
C. Both of these
D. None of these

82. To whom should the President of India address the letter of his resignation?
A. The Prime Minister of India
B. The Chief Justice of India
C. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. The Vice-President of India

83. 93rd Constitution Amendment Bill seeks
A. to grant statehood to Uttaranchal
B. to make elementary education compulsory
C. to make army service mandatory
D. None of these

84. Which one of the following right was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution by
Dr.Ambedkar?
A. Freedom of Speech
B. Right to Constitutional Remedies
C. Right to Equality
D. Right to Freedom of Religion

85. Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney General of India:
I. There is no age limit his appointment
II. He can be a member of a Parliamentary Committee
III. He Shall have the right of audience in all the courts
IV. The term of his office is fixed by the Constitution of India
Of the statements
A. I and II are correct
B. I, II and III are correct
C. II, III and IV are correct
D. III and IV are correct

86. The Prime Minister of India resigns when he does not command majority in the Lower
House of Parliament is
A. in accordance with a stipulation in the Constitution
B. not explicitly state in the Constitution but followed as a convention
C. peculiar to Indian democracy
D. a legacy of the Government of India Act, 1919

87. Which of the following pairs of Articles of the Constitution of India and the subjects dealt
with by them are correctly matched?
I. Article 352 Proclamation of emergency
II. Article 370 Special status in respect of Jammu and Kashmir
III. Article 14 Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
IV. Article 40 Organisation of Village Panchayats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
A. I and II
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. I, III and IV

88. Which one of the following is an example of extra-constitutional power of the Governor of a State in India?
A. His role as Chancellor or the Universities in the State
B. His power to dismiss the ministry
C. His power to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly
D. His power to return a Bill to the State Legislative Assembly for reconsideration

89. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament
A. he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
B. he will not be able to speak on the Budget in the Lower House
C. he can make statements only on the Upper House
D. he has become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn-in as
the Prime Minister

90. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : The reservation of thirty-three per cent of seats for women in Parliament
and State Legislatures does not require Constitutional amendment
Reason (R) : Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent
of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional
amendment
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true

91. Which one of the following is/are stated in the Constitution of India?
I. The President shall not be member of either House of Parliament
II. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. Neither I nor II
B. Both I and II
C. I alone
D. II alone

92. Consider the following two statements
Assertion A) : The Rajya Sabha under Article 312 is empowered to create new all-
India service in national interest.
Reason (R) : The Rajya Sabha can define national interest better.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) is true, but (R) is false
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true

93. In the following quotation, “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute
India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought; expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all;
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’… do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this
Constitution.” ‘X’ stands for
A. twenty-sixth day of January, 1950
B. twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
C. twenty-sixth day of January, 1949
D. None of these

94. The Constitution of India is
A. unitary
B. perfectly federal
C. federal with a strong centralising tendency
D. confederal

95. Consider the following Statements
Assertion (A) : Democracy renders minority ineffective ensures the tyranny of the majority
Reason (R) : For all practical purposes, democracy means rule by the majority Of these statements
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true

96. Match List I (Schedule to the Constitution of India) with List II (Subject dealt with by the
Schedule) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I                              List-II
I. First                     a. Territorial extent of Indian States and Union Territories
II. Eighth                b. Languages
III. Ninth               c. Validation of Acts/Regulations passed by the State Legislature
IV. Tenth               d. Disqualification on grounds of defection of members of the House
I II III IV
A. b a d c
B. a b d c
C. b a c d
D. a b c d

97. The day-to-day administration of a Union Territory in India is looked after by a
A. Council of Ministers
B. Lt. Governor
C. Governor
D. The President

98. Which one of the following parts of the Indian Constitution enjoins upon the State “to provide free and compulsory education for children upto 14 years of age”?
A. Directive Principles of State Policy
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Special Provisions related to certain classes

99. Which of the following Commission has been given a statutory status by the Central Government?
A. Central Water Commission
B. Central Vigilance Commission
C. National Human Rights Commission
D. None of these

100.To enable the scheduled cases and scheduled tribes to avail themselves of benefits of the
preferential right conferred on them by the Constitution, the President of India notifies them
as such under
A. Articles 339 and 340
B. Articles 340 and 341
C. Articles 341 and 342
D. Articles 342 and 343

ANSWERS
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. B
11. A 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. B
21. D 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. A 29. B 30. C
31. B 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. A 36. C 37. D 38. A 39. C 40. C
41. D 42. D 43. A 44. A 45. C 46. A 47. B 48. C 49. C 50. B
51. B 52. A 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. B 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. B
61. C 62. C 63. A 64. A 65. B 66. D 67. B 68. A 69. C 70. D
71. C 72. C 73. A 74. C 75. C 76. C 77. B 78. C 79. B 80. B
81. B 82. D 83. B 84. B 85. B 86. A 87. C 88. A 89. A 90. D
91. B 92. C 93. B 94. C 95. A 96. D 97. B 98. A 99. B 100. C

The Constitution of India - HIGHLIGHTS

The Constitution of India was enacted on 26th of January, 1950. The Constituent Assembly of India drafted the nation's Constitution. Being drafted on 26th of November, 1949, the Indian Constitution laid the foundations for establishment of the Democratic Republic of India.

Drafting of the Constitution

The Constitution of India was drafted over a period of 2 years, 11 months and 18 days. The members of Constituent Assembly of India met for the first time in the year 1946 on December 9. The next meeting of the Assembly took place on August 14th, 1947 for the dominion of India in which the proposal of forming various committees was presented. Such committees include Committee on Fundamental Rights, the Union Powers Committee and Union Constitution Committee. One of the unique factors of this meeting was that the Assembly gathered as the Sovereign Constituent Assembly of India.

On 29th August, 1947 a Drafting Committee, with Dr. Ambedkar as the Chairman, was formed on the basis of the various reports submitted by the previous committees. It was in the year 1948 that a Draft Constitution including a range of proposals was formed by the concerned committee. The Constituent Assembly of India held two meetings in February 1948 and October 1949 to go through the clauses of the Draft. Finally, from 14th to 26th of November, 1949 the Constituent Assembly analyzed each and every provision of the Draft. The then President of the Constituent Assembly of India signed the Draft on November 26th, 1949.

Today, there are 12 Schedules and 395 Articles in the Constitution of India. Amendments have been made to the Constitution time and again as per the need of the hour. Till 2006, there have been 94 Amendments made to the constitution.

Constituent Assembly

The Constituent Assembly of India was formed by the elected members of the provincial assemblies of the country. Presided over by Dr. Sachidanand Sinha for the first time, the Indian Constituent Assembly played the most important role in creating the Constitution of India. After Dr. Sinha, Dr. Rajendra Prasad became the President of the Assembly. Comprising over 30 schedule class members, the Constituent Assembly also included sections of Christians, Anglo-Indians and Minority Community. Harendra Coomar Mookerjee, being the Minority Community Chairman, also successfully worked for the Christians. While H P Modi was the representative of the Parsi community, Frank Anthony headed the Anglo-Indian section of the country in the Constituent Assembly.

Some of the prominent female personalities of the Constituent Assembly were Vijaylakshmi Pandit and Sarojini Naidu. From Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, B N Rau and Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad to K M Munshi, Sardar Patel and Alladi Krishnaswami Aiyer, each one had a major contribution towards the present form of the Constituent Assembly.

Preamble

The Preamble is one of the most significant parts of the Constitution of India. Focusing on the core objective of the Indian Constitution, the Preamble includes the following:

• Equality - which connotes equal opportunity for one and all
• Justice - which means fair judgment in the fields of politics, society and economy
• Fraternity - which works towards keeping the integrity and strength of the country intact along with special stress on individual dignity
• Liberty - which assures every citizen of India the freedom of speech and expression, religious independence and choice of going by one's own belief

The Preamble, as it is presented in the Constitution of India, is mentioned below: "WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;

IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION."

Parts of the Constitution

The Constitution of India covers a total of 395 Articles in 22 parts. The parts of the Indian Constitution are mentioned below:

• Part I - The Union and its Territory
• Part II - Citizenship
• Part III - Fundamental Rights
• Part IV - Directive Principles of State Policy
• Part IVA - Fundamental Duties
• Part V - The Union
• Part VI - The States
• Part VII - The States in Part B of the First Schedule
• Part VIII - The Union Territories
• Part IX - Panchayats
• Part IXA - Municipalities
• Part X - The Scheduled and Tribal Areas
• Part XI - Relations Between The Union and The States
• Part XII - Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits
• Part XIII - Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within The Territory of India
• Part XIV - Services Under The Union and The States
• Part XIVA - Tribunals
• Part XV- Elections
• Part XVI - Special Provisions Relating to Certain Classes
• Part XVII - Official Language
• Part XVIII - Emergency Provisions
• Part XIX - Miscellaneous
• Part XX - Amendment of the Constitution
• Part XXI - Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions
• Part XXII - Short Title, Commencement, Authoritative Text in Hindi and Repeals

The Parliamentary form of Government of India was first introduced by the Constitution of the nation. Consisting of the President the Parliament of India has two Houses namely Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The President leads the Executive of the Union as the Constitutional head. The Prime Minister heads the Council of Ministers as per the Article 74(1) of the Indian Constitution. The 7th Schedule of the Constitution of India indicates that the legislative powers are shared by both the State Legislatures and the Parliament of India.

Schedules to Indian Constitution

Schedules to the Constitution of India can be added through the amendments to it. There are twelve schedules to Constitution of India, which are effective at present, are given below:

• First Schedule: This schedule is about the States and Union Territories of India.
• Second Schedule: In this Schedule, provisions made to the President and the Governors of States, Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People, the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States, the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly, the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council of a State, the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
• Third Schedule: Forms of Oaths or Affirmations are mentioned in this Schedule.
• Fourth Schedule: This Schedule specifies the allocation of seats in the Council of States.
• Fifth Schedule: Provisions as to the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes are mentioned in this Schedule. The amendment of the schedule is also included in the Part D of the Schedule.
• Sixth Schedule: This Schedule deals with the provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
• Seventh Schedule: The List I or the Union List, List II or the State List and List III or the Concurrent List are included in this Schedule.
• Eighth Schedule: The 22 languages selected as the official languages of India are mentioned in this Schedule.
• Ninth Schedule: Validation of certain Acts and Regulations is dealt with in this Schedule
• Tenth Schedule: Provisions as to disqualification on ground of defection for the Members of Parliament and Members of the State Legislatures are mentioned in this Schedule.
• Eleventh Schedule: This Schedule talks about the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
• Twelfth Schedule: Powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities are defined in this Schedule.

Lok Sabha- An Introduction

Lok Sabha is composed of representatives of the people chosen by direct election on the basis of the adult suffrage. The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution is 552, which is made up by election of upto 530 members to represent the States, upto 20 members to represent the Union Territories and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the Hon'ble President, if,  in his/her opinion, that community is not adequately represented in the House. The total elective membership is distributed among the States in such a way that the ratio between the number of seats allotted to each State and the population of the State is, so far as practicable, the same for all States.

RAJYA SABHA - AN INTRODUCTION

Background
The ‘Council of States’ which is also known as Rajya Sabha, a nomenclature that was announced by the chair in the House on the 23rd August, 1954 has its own distinctive features. The origin of the second Chamber can be traced to the Montague-Chelmsford Report of 1918. The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation of a ‘Council of State’ as a second chamber of the then legislature with a restricted franchise which actually came into existence in 1921. The Governor-General was the ex-officio President of the then Council of State. The Government of India Act, 1935, hardly made any changes in its composition.
 The Constituent Assembly, which first met on 9 December 1946, also acted as the Central Legislature till 1950, when it was converted as ‘Provisional Parliament’.  During this period, the Central Legislature which was known as Constituent Assembly (Legislative) and later Provisional Parliament was unicameral till the first elections were held in 1952.
Extensive debate took place in the Constituent Assembly regarding the utility or otherwise of a Second Chamber in Independent India and ultimately, it was decided to have a bicameral legislature for independent India mainly because a federal system was considered to be most feasible form of Government for such a vast country with immense diversities.  A single directly elected House, in fact, was considered inadequate to meet the challenges before free India.  A second chamber known as the ‘Council of States’, therefore, was created with altogether different composition and method of election from that of the directly elected House of the People.  It was conceived as another Chamber, with smaller membership than the Lok Sabha (House of the People).  It was meant to be the federal chamber i.e., a House elected by the elected members of Assemblies of the States and two Union Territories in which  States were not given equal representation.  Apart from the elected members, provision was also made for the nomination of twelve members to the House by the President.  The minimum age of thirty years was fixed for membership as against twenty-five years for the Lower House.  The element of dignity and prestige was added to the Council of State House by making the Vice-President of India ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha who presides over its sittings.
Constitutional Provisions relating to Rajya Sabha Composition/Strength
Article 80 of the Constitution lays down the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha as 250, out of which 12 members are nominated by the President and 238 are representatives of the States and of the two Union Territories.  The present strength of Rajya Sabha, however, is 245, out of which 233 are representatives of the States and Union territories of Delhi and Puducherry and 12 are nominated by the President. The members nominated by the President are persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art and social service.
 Allocation of Seats
             The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for allocation of seats to the States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.  The allocation of seats is made on the basis of the population of each State.  Consequent on the reorganization of States and formation of new States, the number of elected seats in the Rajya Sabha allotted to States and Union Territories has changed from time to time since 1952. 
Eligibility
Qualifications
Article 84 of the Constitution lays down the qualifications for membership of Parliament.  A person to be qualified for the membership of the Rajya Sabha should posses the following qualifications:

1. he must be a citizen of India and make and subscribe before some person authorized in that behalf by the Election Commission an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule to the Constitution;
2. he must be not less than 30 years of age;
3. he must possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed in that behalf by or under any law made by Parliament.

Disqualifications
            Article 102 of the Constitution lays down that a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament –

1. if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder;
2. if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;
3. if he is an undischarged insolvent;
4. if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;
5. if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament. 

Explanation- For the purpose of this clause a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State by reason only that he is a Minister either for the Union or for such State.
Besides, the Tenth Schedule to Constitution provides for disqualification of the members on ground of defection.  As per the provisions of the Tenth Schedule, a member may be disqualified as a member, if he voluntarily gives up the membership of his political party; or if he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction issued by the political party to which he belongs, unless such voting or abstention has been condoned by the political party within fifteen days.  A member elected as an independent candidate shall be disqualified if he joins any political party after his election.
A member nominated to the House by the President, however, is allowed to join a political party if he/she does so within the first six months of taking seat in the House.
A member shall not be disqualified on this account, if he voluntarily leaves the membership of his political party after he is elected Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha.

Process for Election/Nomination
Electoral College:
The representatives of the States and of the Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the method of indirect election.  The representatives of each State and two Union territories are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of that State and by the members of the Electoral College for that Union Territory, as the case may be, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. The Electoral College for the National Capital Territory of Delhi consists of the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of Delhi, and that for Puducherry consists of the elected members of the Puducherry Legislative Assembly.
Biennial/Bye-election
            Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and is not subject to dissolution.  However, one-third Members of Rajya Sabha retire after every second year.  A member who is elected for a full term serves for a period of six years.  The election held to fill a vacancy arising otherwise than by retirement of a member on the expiration of his term of office is called ‘Bye-election’. A member elected in a bye-election remains member for the remainder of the term of the member who had resigned or died or disqualified to be member of the House under the Tenth Schedule.
Presiding Officers -  Chairman and Deputy Chairman
The Presiding Officers of Rajya Sabha have the responsibility to conduct the proceedings of the House.  The Vice-President of India is ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.  Rajya Sabha also chooses from amongst its members, a Deputy Chairman.  There is also a Panel of Vice-Chairmen in Rajya Sabha, the members of which are nominated by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha.  In the absence of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman, a member from the Panel of Vice-Chairmen presides over the proceedings of the House. 
Secretary-General
The Secretary-General is appointed by the Chairman of Rajya Sabha and holds rank equivalent to the highest civil servant of the Union.  The Secretary-General works with anonymity and is readily available to the Presiding Officers for rendering advice on parliamentary matters. The Secretary-General is also the administrative head of the Rajya Sabha Secretariat and the custodian of the records of the House.  He works under the direction and control of the Chairman, Rajya Sabha.
Relation between the two Houses
Under article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha which means Rajya Sabha cannot make or unmake the Government.  It can, however, exercise control over the Government and this function becomes quite prominent, particularly when the Government does not enjoy majority in Rajya Sabha.
To resolve a deadlock between the two Houses, in case of an ordinary legislation, the Constitution provides for the joint sitting of both Houses.  In fact, there have been three occasions in the past when the Houses of Parliament had met in joint sitting to resolve differences between them.  Issues in joint sitting are decided by a majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting. The joint sitting is held in the Central Hall of Parliament House presided over by the Speaker, Lok Sabha. However, in the case of a Money Bill, there is no provision in the Constitution for a joint sitting of both Houses as Lok Sabha clearly enjoys pre-eminence over Rajya Sabha in financial matters. As regards a Constitution amendment Bill, it has been provided in the Constitution that such a Bill has to be passed by the specific majority, as prescribed under article 368 of the Constitution, by both Houses.  There is, therefore, no provision for resolving a deadlock between the two Houses in regard to a Constitution amendment Bill.
Ministers may belong to either House of Parliament.  The Constitution does not make any distinction between the Houses in this regard. Every Minister has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House but he is entitled to vote only in the House of which he is a member.
Similarly, with regard to powers, privileges and immunities of the Houses of Parliament, their members and committees thereof, the two Houses are placed absolutely on equal footing by the Constitution.
Other important matters in respect of which both Houses enjoy equal powers are election and impeachment of the President, election of the Vice-President, approving the Proclamation of Emergency, the proclamation regarding failure of constitutional machinery in States and financial emergency.  In respect of receiving reports and papers from various statutory authorities, etc., both Houses have equal powers.
It is thus clear that except in the case of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers and certain financial matters, which fall in the domain of Lok Sabha only, both Houses enjoy equal powers.

Special Powers of Rajya Sabha
Rajya Sabha being a federal chamber enjoys certain special powers under the Constitution.  All the subjects/areas regarding legislation have been divided into three Lists - Union List, State List and concurrent List. Union and State Lists are mutually exclusive - one cannot legislate on a matter placed in the sphere of the other.  However, if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting saying that it is “necessary or expedient in the national interest” that Parliament should make a law on a matter enumerated in the State List, Parliament becomes empowered to make a law on the subject specified in the resolution, for the whole or any part of the territory of India.  Such a resolution remains in force for a maximum period of one year but this period can be extended by one year at a time by passing a similar resolution further.
If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to create one or more All India Services common to the Union and the States, Parliament becomes empowered to create by law such services.
Under the Constitution, the President is empowered to issue Proclamations in the event of national emergency, in the event of failure of constitutional machinery in a State, or in the case of financial emergency.  Every such proclamation has to be approved by both Houses of Parliament within a stipulated period.  Under certain circumstances, however, Rajya Sabha enjoys special powers in this regard.  If a Proclamation is issued at a time when Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for its approval, then the proclamation remains effective, if the resolution approving it is passed by Rajya Sabha within the period specified in the Constitution under articles 352, 356 and 360.
Rajya Sabha in Financial Matters
A Money Bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.  After it is passed by that House, it is transmitted to Rajya Sabha for its concurrence or recommendation.  The power of Rajya Sabha in respect of such a Bill is limited.   Rajya Sabha has to return such a Bill to Lok Sabha within a period of fourteen days from its receipt.  If it is not returned to Lok Sabha within that time, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses at the expiration of the said period in the form in which it was passed by Lok Sabha.  Again, Rajya Sabha cannot amend a Money Bill; it can only recommend amendments and Lok Sabha may either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations made by Rajya Sabha.
Apart from a Money Bill, certain other categories of Financial Bills also cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha.  There are, however, some other types of Financial Bills on which there is no limitation on the powers of the Rajya Sabha.  These Bills may be initiated in either House and Rajya Sabha has powers to reject or amend such Financial Bills like any other Bill.  Of course, such Bills cannot be passed by either House of Parliament unless the President has recommended to that House the consideration thereof.
From all this, however, it does not follow that Rajya Sabha has nothing to do in matters relating to finance.  The Budget of the Government of India is laid every year before Rajya Sabha also and its members discuss it.  Though Rajya Sabha does not vote on Demands for Grants of various Ministries - a matter exclusively reserved for Lok Sabha - no money, however, can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India unless the Appropriation Bill has been passed by both the Houses.  Similarly, the Finance Bill is also brought before Rajya Sabha.  Besides, the Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committees that examine the annual Demands for Grants of the Ministries/Departments are joint committees having ten members from Rajya Sabha. 
Leader of the House
Apart from the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman, Leader of the House is another functionary who plays important role in the efficient and smooth conduct of the business in the House.  The Leader of the House in Rajya Sabha is normally the Prime Minister, if he is its member or any Minister who is a member of the House and is nominated by him to so function.  His primary responsibility is to maintain coordination amongst all sections of the House for a harmonious and meaningful debate in the House.  For this purpose, he remains in close contact not only with the Government but also with the Opposition, individual ministers and the Presiding Officer.  He occupies the first seat in the Chamber in first row at right the side of the Chair so that he is easily available to the Presiding Officer for consultation. Under the rules, the Leader of the House is consulted by the Chairman in regard to the arrangement of Government business in the House, allotment of days or allocation of time for discussion on the President’s Address, Private Members’ business on any day other than Friday, discussion on No Day-Yet-Named Motions, Short Duration Discussions and consideration and return of a Money Bill.  He is also consulted by the Chairman in the matter of adjournment or otherwise of the House for the day in case of death of an outstanding personality, national leader or international dignitary. In the era of coalition governments, his task has become more challenging.  He ensures that all possible and reasonable facilities are made available to the House for a meaningful discussion on any matter that is brought before it.  He works as the spokesperson of the House in expressing sense of the House and represents it on ceremonial or formal occasions. The following members have been the Leaders of the House in the Rajya Sabha:

	Name	From	To
1.	Shri N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar	May 1952	Feb. 1953
2.	Shri Charu Chandra Biswas	Feb. 1953	Nov. 1954
3.	Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri	Nov. 1954	March 1955
4.	Shri Govind Ballabh Pant	March 1955	Feb. 1961
5.	Hafiz Mohammad Ibrahim	Feb. 1961	Aug. 1963
6.	Shri Yashwantrao Balwantrao Chavan	Aug. 1963	Dec. 1963
7.	Shri Jaisukhlal Hathi	Feb. 1964	March 1964
8.	Shri Mahomadali Currim Chagla	March 1964	Nov. 1967
9.	Shri Jaisukhlal Hathi	Nov. 1967	Nov. 1969
10.	Shri Kodradas Kalidas Shah	Nov. 1969	May 1971
11.	Shri Uma Shankar Dikshit	May 1971	Dec. 1975
12.	Shri Kamlapati Tripathi	Dec. 1975	March 1977
13.	Shri Lal K. Advani	March 1977	Aug. 1979
14.	Shri K.C. Pant	Aug. 1979	Jan. 1980
15.	Shri Pranab Mukherjee	Jan. 1980 Aug. 1981	July 1981 and Dec. 1984
16.	Shri Vishwanath Pratap Singh	Dec. 1984	April 1987
17.	Shri N.D. Tiwari	April 1987	June 1988
18.	Shri P. Shiv Shanker	July 1988	Dec. 1989
19.	Shri M.S. Gurupadaswamy	Dec. 1989	Nov. 1990
20.	Shri Yashwant Sinha	Dec. 1990	June 1991
21.	Shri S.B. Chavan	July 1991	April 1996
22.	Shri Sikander Bakht	20th May 1996	31st May 1996
23.	Shri Inder Kumar Gujral	June 1996	Nov. 1996
24.	Shri H.D. Deve Gowda	Nov. 1996	April 1997
25.	Shri Inder Kumar Gujral	April 1997	March 1998
26.	Shri Sikander Bakht	March 1998	Oct. 1999
27.	Shri Jaswant Singh	Oct. 1999	May 2004
28.	Dr. Manmohan Singh	June 2004

 Leader of the Opposition (LOP)
The office of the Leader of the Opposition in a legislature is of great public importance.  Its importance emanates from the central role accorded to the Opposition in a parliamentary democracy. The role of the Leader of the Opposition, in fact, is more difficult as he has to criticize, find fault and present alternative proposals/policies with no power to implement them.  He has, thus, to perform a special responsibility to Parliament and to the nation.
In  Rajya Sabha until 1969, there was no Leader of the Opposition in real sense of the term. Till then, the practice was to call the Leader of the party in Opposition having the largest number of the members as the Leader of the Opposition, without according him any formal recognition, status or privilege.  The office of Leader of the Opposition was given official recognition through the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of the Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977.  This Act defines the Leader of the Opposition in Rajya Sabha, as a member of the Council of States who is, for the time being, the Leader in that House of the party in opposition to the Government constituting the greatest numerical strength and recognized as such by the Chairman of the Council of States.  Thus, the Leader of the Opposition should satisfy three conditions, namely, (i) he should be a member of the House (ii) the Leader in Rajya Sabha of the party in opposition to the Government having the greatest numerical strength and (iii) be recognized as such by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha.    The following members have been the Leaders of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha:

	Name	From	To
1	Shri Shyam Nandan Mishra	Decermber 1969	March 1971
2	Shri M. S. Gurupadaswamy	March 1971	April 1972
3	Shri Mamlapati Tripathi	30.3.1977	15.2.1978
4	Shri Bhola Paswan Shastri	24.2.1978	23.3.1978
5	Shri Kamlapati Tripathi	23.3.1978 18.4.1978	2.4.1978 and 8.1.1980
6	Shri Lal K. Advani	21.1.1980	7.4.1980
7	Shri P. Shiv Shanker	18.12.1989	2.1.1991
8	Shri M. S. Gurupadaswamy	28.6.1991	21.7.1991
9	Shri. S. Jaipal Reddy	22.7.1991	29.6.1992
10	Shri Sikander Bakht	7.7.1992 10.4.1996	10.4.1996 and 23.5.1996
11	Shri S. B. Chavan	23.5.1996	1.6.1996
12	Shri Sikander Bakht	1.6.1996	19.3.1998
13	Dr. Manmohan Singh	21.3.1998	21.5.2004
14	Shri Jaswant Singh	3.6.2004 5.7.2004	4.7.2004 16.5.2009
15	Shri. Arun Jaitley	3.6.2009

Rajya Sabha has played a constructive and effective role in our polity.  Its performance in the legislative field and in influencing the Government policies has been quite significant.  Rajya Sabha has, in fact, worked in a spirit of cooperation with Lok Sabha as per the Constitutional mandate.  Rajya Sabha has prevented hasty legislation and has served as dignified chamber representing the federal principle.  As a federal chamber, it has worked for the unity and integrity of the nation and has reinforced the faith of the people in parliamentary democracy.

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam. 2010 Solved Paper

Indian History
(Exam Held on 20-2-2011)

1. Where is the Indus Civilization city Lothal ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Punjab
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)

2. Mohenjo Daro is situated in—
(A) Sindh Province of Pakistan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Afghanistan
Ans : (A)

3. Which deity was not worshipped by the Vedic Aryans ?
(A) Indra
(B) Marut
(C) Varun
(D) Pashupati
Ans : (D)

4. The Vedanga consists of the—
(A) Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish
(B) Kalp, Shiksha, Brahman, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish
(C) Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Aranyak, Chhanda, Jyotish
(D) Kalp, Upanishad, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda
Ans : (A)

5. The earliest available work of the Sangam Tamils is—
(A) Pattinappalai
(B) Tirumurugarruppadai
(C) Maduraikanchi
(D) Tolkappiyam
Ans : (D)


6. The Mahavir belonged to the clan—
(A) Kalams
(B) Bhaggas
(C) Lichhivis
(D) Bulis
Ans : (C)

7. The Jain text which contains the biographies of the Tirthankaras is known as—
(A) Bhagwatisutra
(B) Uvasagadasao
(C) Adi Purana
(D) Kalpasutra
Ans : (D)

8. The first Buddhist Sangeeti (conference) was held at—
(A) Vaishali
(B) Pataliputra
(C) Rajgriha
(D) Ujjain
Ans : (C)

9. The propounder of the Madhyamika Philosophy was—
(A) Bhadrabahu
(B) Parshwanath
(C) Sheelbhadra
(D) Nagarjuna
Ans : (D)

10. The rules of Buddhist monistic life are laid down, primarily, in—
(A) Tripitaka
(B) Vinayapitaka
(C) Abhidhammapitaka
(D) Suttapitaka
Ans : (B)

11. The battle between Alexander and Porus took place on the bank of river—
(A) Sutlej
(B) Ravi
(C) Jhelum
(D) Ganga
Ans : (C)

12. The first Persian ruler who occupied part of Indian Territory was—
(A) Cyrus
(B) Darius I
(C) Cambyses
(D) Xerxes
Ans : (B)

13. Alexander remained in India for—
(A) 29 months
(B) 39 months
(C) 19 months
(D) 10 months
Ans : (C)

14. Gedrosia corresponds to modern—
(A) Baluchistan
(B) Lahore
(C) Multan
(D) Peshawar
Ans : (A)

15. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) Formal accession of Asoka was very probably delayed
(B) The fifth rock edict proves the existence of Harems of Asoka’s brothers
(C) Asoka held the viceroyalty of Taxila and Ujjain in the reign of Bindusara
(D) Asoka was the younger brother of Bindusara
Ans : (D)

16. The nirvasita (excluded) and anirvasita (not excluded) Shudras have been referred to—
(A) in the Nirukta of Yaska
(B) in the Ashtadhyayi of Panini
(C) in the Arthashastra of Kautilya
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

17. The first translator of Mahabharata into Tamil was—
(A) Perundevanar
(B) Kamban
(C) Sundaramurthi
(D) Bharavi
Ans : (A)

18 Which one of the following inscriptions of Asoka refers to the grant of concession in land revenue to a village ?
(A) Lumbini Pillar edict
(B) Sarnath Pillar edict
(C) Girnar Rock edict
(D) Sanchi Pillar edict
Ans : (A)

19. Who of the following was not a patron of Jainism ?
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Kharvela
(C) Kanishka
(D) Chandragupta Maurya
Ans : (A)

20. Who was the ambassador in the Court of Bindusara ?
(A) Machiavelli
(B) Megasthenes
(C) Deimachus
(D) Antiochus I
Ans : (C)

21. To propagate his Dhamma, Asoka used the services of—
(A) Rajukas
(B) Pradeshikas
(C) Yuktas
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

22. The last king of Mauryan empire was—
(A) Devavarman
(B) Brihadrath
(C) Kunala
(D) Shalishuk
Ans : (B)

23. The historian Kalhan was—
(A) Buddhist
(B) Brahmin
(C) Jain
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

24 Founder of the Satvahana dynasty was—
(A) Shatkarni I
(B) Simuka
(C) Shatkarni II
(D) Rudradaman I
Ans : (B)

25. Yen-Kao-Chen is generally known as—
(A) Kadphises I
(B) Kadphises II
(C) Kanishka
(D) Vasishka
Ans : (B)

26. The writer of the ‘Kalpasutra’ was—
(A) Simuka
(B) Panini
(C) Bhadrabahu
(D) Patanjali
Ans : (C)

27. The writer of the ‘Brihatkatha’ was—
(A) Dattamitra
(B) Gudadhya
(C) Bhadrabahu
(D) Sarvavarman
Ans : (B)

28. According to tradition Kashyapa Matanga introduced Buddhism to—
(A) China
(B) Kashmir
(C) Ceylon
(D) Gandhar
Ans : (A)

29. Which one of the following indicates the correct chronological order of era in India ?
(A) Gupta—Harsha—Vikram—Shaka
(B) Vikram—Harsha—Gupta—Shaka
(C) Gupta—Shaka—Vikram—Harsha
(D) Vikram—Shaka—Gupta—Harsha
Ans : (D)

30. During Pre-Gupta period what was Kahapan ?
(A) An office
(B) A luxury item
(C) A coin
(D) A port
Ans : (C)

31. Which port was known to the author of “Periplus of the Erithrian Sea” as Padouke ?
(A) Tamralipti
(B) Arikmedu
(C) Broach
(D) Cochin
Ans : (B)

32 Chandragupta-II married his daughter Prabhavati to—
(A) Rudrasena-I
(B) Rudrasena-II
(C) Agnimitra
(D) Nagsena
Ans : (B)

33. Which of the following law givers of the post-Gupta period declared that Sudras were not slaves by nature ?
(A) Medhatithi
(B) Vigynaeshwar
(C) Narad
(D) Jimutwahan
Ans : (A)

34. Who was the founder of Gahadwala dynasty who made Kannauj the main centre of his power ?
(A) Jaichandra
(B) Vijaychandra
(C) Chandradev
(D) Govind
Ans : (C)

35. Which of the following Rashtrakut kings defeated the Pratihar ruler Nagabhatta I ?
(A) Indra II
(B) Krishna III
(C) Amoghvarsha I
(D) Govind III
Ans : (D)

36. Who among the following rulers patronized Jayadev, the composer of ‘Geetgovinda’ ?
(A) Laxman Sen
(B) Kharvel
(C) Kumarpala
(D) Shashank
Ans : (A)

37. Who out of the following ousted Jainism from Mysore ?
(A) Naynars
(B) Lingayats
(C) Alwars
(D) Shankaracharya
Ans : (D)

38. Which was the word used for the royal military troops of the Cholas ?
(A) Kattupaddi
(B) Kaikkolar
(C) Bhrtaka
(D) Kadgham
Ans : (B)

39. The Chola rulers undertook extensive land survey to ascertain—
(A) Right of ownership
(B) Government’s share of revenue
(C) Production of grains
(D) Limit of the sources of irrigation
Ans : (B)

40. Which of the following taxes of Chola period was for educational purpose ?
(A) Devadana
(B) Salabhoga
(C) Brahmadeva
(D) Sarvamanya
Ans : (A)

41. The writer of Tabqat-i-Nasiri was—
(A) Barani
(B) Nizamuddin
(C) Minhaj-us-Siraj
(D) Isami
Ans : (C)

42. The following works were written by Ziauddin Barani—
(A) Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and Qiranussadain
(B) Fatwa-i-Jahandari and Ashiqa
(C) Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and Fatwa-i-Jahandari
(D) Futuhus-salatin and Tarikhi-Firozshahi
Ans : (C)

43. Which of the following books were written by Amir Khusro ?
(A) Ashiqa, Qiranussadain, Khazain-ul-Futuh
(B) Qiranussadain, Ashiqa, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi
(C) Khazainul Futuh, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, Ashiqa
(D) Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, Nuh-i-Siphr, Ashiqa
Ans : (A)

44. Who wrote ‘Qanun-i-Humayuni’ ?
(A) Gulbadan Begum
(B) Yahya
(C) Khwandmir
(D) Nizamuddin
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following books was written by Ishwardas Nagar ?
(A) Futuhat-i-Alamgiri
(B) Bir Binod
(C) Chhatra Prakash
(D) Ahkam-i-Alamgiri
Ans : (A)

46. With whom of the following Muhammad Ghori aligned against Khusrau Shah ?
(A) King of Gujarat
(B) King of Multan
(C) King of Peshawar
(D) King of Jammu
Ans : (D)

47. At the time of Muhammad Ghori’s invasion against Prithviraj Chauhan who of the following ruled Kannauj ?
(A) The Chandellas
(B) The Pratihars
(C) The Palas
(D) The Gahadwalas
Ans : (D)

48. Who of the following contested with Qutubuddin Aibak for Punjab ?
(A) Ikhtiyaruddin
(B) Tajuddin Yaldauz
(C) Nasiruddin Qubacha
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

49. Who were the Nav Musalmans of the following ?
(A) Descendants of Mongols who settled near Delhi and embraced Islam
(B) Hindu converts to Islam
(C) Khalji Sultans
(D) Ilbari Sultans
Ans : (A)

50. Who was appointed as ambassador to China during the time of Mohammad bin Tughlaq ?
(A) Barbosa
(B) Barani
(C) Ibn Batutah
(D) Abdur Razzak
Ans : (C)

51. Bahlul Lodi’s significant achievement was the successful war against the underwritten kingdom of—
(A) Mewat
(B) Jaunpur
(C) Chandwar
(D) Sambhal
Ans : (B)

52. Rulers of which kingdom built Atala Masjid and Lal Darwaza Masjid ?
(A) Bengal
(B) Khandesh
(C) Malwa
(D) Jaunpur
Ans : (D)

53. Rai Bharmal wrote on Muslim Literary traditions in the following language—
(A) Persian
(B) Sanskrit
(C) Arabic
(D) Turkish
Ans : (A)

54. ‘Chaitanya Charitamrita’ was authored by—
(A) Wasweshwara
(B) Madhav
(C) Ramanand
(D) Krishnadas Kaviraj
Ans : (D)

55. Who succeeded Nizamuddin Aulia ?
(A) Sheikh Farid
(B) Sheikh Nasiruddin Chiraghi-Delhi
(C) Sheikh Salim Chishti
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

56. Raidas, Sena and Kabir were the followers of—
(A) Namdeo
(B) Ramanuj
(C) Vallabhacharya
(D) Ramanand
Ans : (D)

57. When was Vijayanagar visited by Abdurrajjak ?
(A) 1443
(B) 1433
(C) 1423
(D) 1427
Ans : (A)

58. Tuluva dynasty was founded by—
(A) Narasa Nasyaka
(B) Immadi Narsimha
(C) Vir Narsimha
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

59. Who founded the independent Bahamani kingdom in South India ?
(A) Abu Muzaffar Alauddin Bahmanshah
(B) Mujahid Shah
(C) Muhammad Shah I
(D) Adil Shah
Ans : (A)

60. Who founded the independent Muslim kingdom of Malwa ?
(A) Hoshangshah
(B) Mahmudshah
(C) Nasiruddin
(D) Dilawarkhan
Ans : (D)

61. Babur had three wives. Which one of the following was not his wife ?
(A) Maham
(B) Gulrus
(C) Gulbadan
(D) Dilbar
Ans : (C)

62. Who was Mehdi Khwaza ?
(A) Ruler of Bihar
(B) Prime Minister of Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Brother-in-law of Humayun
(D) Brother of Babur
Ans : (C)

63. Humayun ascended the throne at Agra on—
(A) 7th January 1530
(B) 29th December 1530
(C) 23rd September 1530
(D) 16th February 1530
Ans : (B)

64. Which of the following statements is true of the Sher Shah Suri ?
(A) He was a fanatic Muslim
(B) He was a staunch Muslim but not a fanatic
(C) He was a staunch Muslim and ill-treated Hindus
(D) He was intolerant towards other religions
Ans : (B)

65. Which out of the following was not one of the purposes of ‘Sarais’ built during Sher Shah ?
(A) Post-house
(B) For travellers
(C) For officers
(D) Warehouse for arms and ammunition
Ans : (D)

66. Who was not appointed as Vazir during Akbar’s reign ?
(A) Bahadurkhan Uzbeg
(B) Shamsuddin Atkakhan
(C) Todarmal
(D) Nizamuddin Khalifa
Ans : (A)

67. Which of the following pairs is incorrect ?
(A) Akbar—Ralph Fich
(B) Darashikoh—Manucci
(C) Jahangir—Sir Thomas Roe
(D) Shah Jahan—Jourdon
Ans : (D)

68. Which of the following statements is true of Akbar’s policy towards the Hindus ?
(A) He abolished the pilgrim tax but not the Jaziya
(B) He abolished the Jaziya, but not the pilgrim tax
(C) He abolished both the Jaziya and the pilgrim tax
(D) He neither abolished the pilgrim tax nor the Jaziya
Ans : (C)

69 Who was the author of ‘Nuskhai-Dilkusha’ ?
(A) Khafi Khan
(B) Murshidkuli Khan
(C) Abul Fazl
(D) Bhimsen Burhanpuri
Ans : (D)

70. Guru Govind Singh was killed in 1708 at—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Keeratpur
(C) Nanded
(D) Anandpur
Ans : (C)

71. Mir Sayyed Ali and Abdusamad were the court painter during the time of—
(A) Humayun, Akbar
(B) Akbar, Jahangir
(C) Jahangir, Shah Jahan
(D) Shah Jahan, Aurangzeb
Ans : (A)

72. Which of the following elements was not found in Akbar’s architecture ?
(A) Use of red sandstone
(B) Hindu elements
(C) Foliated arches
(D) Charbagh surrounding the tombs
Ans : (C)

73. Who composed ‘Ganga Lahri’ ?
(A) Tulsidas
(B) Surdas
(C) Panditraj Jagannath
(D) Haridasa
Ans : (C)

74. Which of the following was not a silver coin during Akbar ?
(A) Jalal
(B) Dam
(C) Darab
(D) Pandau
Ans : (B)

75. Which of the following revolts had agrarian causes at its root ?
(A) Rajput revolt
(B) Satnami and Jat revolt
(C) Sikh revolt
(D) Maratha revolt
Ans : (B)

76. From whom Shahji received the jagir of Poona ?
(A) Mughals
(B) Adilshah
(C) Nizamshahi
(D) Portuguese
Ans : (B)

77. What is ‘Mokasa’ ?
(A) Jagir
(B) Religious practice
(C) Cavalry
(D) Religious endowment
Ans : (A)

78. Who was not alive at the time of Shivaji’s Coronation ?
(A) Ganga Bhatt
(B) Tukaram
(C) Ramdas
(D) Dadaji Konddeva
Ans : (D)

79. Which of the following Peshwas is connected with the treaty of Sagola ?
(A) Balaji Bajirao
(B) Balaji Vishwanath
(C) Bajirao I
(D) Bajirao II
Ans : (A)

80. In which year Ahilyabai Holkar breathed her last ?
(A) 1792
(B) 1793
(C) 1794
(D) 1795
Ans : (D)

81. The French East India Company was formed in—
(A) 1664 AD
(B) 1660 AD
(C) 1656 AD
(D) 1680 AD
Ans : (A)

82. La Bourdonnais was the Governor of—
(A) Madras
(B) Pondicherry
(C) Mauritius
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

83. Mir Kasim removed his court from Calcutta to—
(A) Patna
(B) Dacca
(C) Monghir
(D) Purnea
Ans : (C)

84. The battle of Wandiwash was fought between—
(A) English and the French
(B) English and the Marathas
(C) English and the Nawab of Carnatic
(D) English and Hyderali
Ans : (A)

85. At the battle of Biddera the English crushed the power of—
(A) French
(B) Dutch
(C) Portuguese
(D) Danes
Ans : (B)

86. The Treaty of Surat was concluded by the British with the following Maratha chief—
(A) Narayan Rao
(B) Madhav Rao
(C) Nana Phadnvis
(D) Raghoba
Ans : (D)

87. The triple alliance against Tipu was formed by Cornwallis consisted of the following—
(A) The English, Nizam and the Marathas
(B) The English, Nizam and Awadh
(C) The English, Nizam and Carnatic
(D) The English, Marathas and Carnatic
Ans : (A)

88. In the Second Sikh War the decisive battle was fought at—
(A) Chilianwala
(B) Peshawar
(C) Gujarat
(D) Multan
Ans : (C)

89. In the Third Maratha War, the English defeated Peshwa Bajirao II at—
(A) Mahidpur
(B) Sitabuldi
(C) Kirki
(D) Bassein
Ans : (D)

90. The Treaty of Shrirangpattam took place in—
(A) 1791
(B) 1792
(C) 1793
(D) 1794
Ans : (D)

91. Which of the following states was not annexed to British Empire by Dalhousie under the doctrine of Lapse ?
(A) Baghat
(B) Nagpur
(C) Sambalpur
(D) Benaras
Ans : (D)

92. Which one of the following rebellions is associated with Sidhu and Kanhu ?
(A) Munda Rebellion
(B) Kole Rebellion
(C) Santhal Rebellion
(D) Bhil Rebellion
Ans : (C)

93. The following officer was connected with the suppression of Thugee—
(A) Hastings
(B) Sleeman
(C) Bentinck
(D) Aukland
Ans : (C)

94. Which of the following British Officers was not in favour of annexation of Awadh ?
(A) Outram
(B) Napier
(C) Hugh Rose
(D) Sleeman
Ans : (D)

95. Charles Metcalf was the Governor General of India during—
(A) 1835-36
(B) 1839-40
(C) 1837-38
(D) 1832-33
Ans : (A)

96. Sindh was invaded during the following Governor General’s time—
(A) Lord Aukland
(B) Lord Ellenborough
(C) Lord Hardinge
(D) Lord Dalhousie
Ans : (B)

97. The Second Burmese War was fought in the year—
(A) 1849
(B) 1850
(C) 1851
(D) 1852
Ans : (B)

98. Which one of the following Acts abolished the trading rights of the East India Company ?
(A) Regulating Act of 1773
(B) Charter Act of 1813
(C) Charter Act of 1833
(D) Charter Act of 1853
Ans : (B)

99. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ryotwari Settlement : Madras
(B) Talukdari Settlement : Bombay
(C) Permanent Settlement : Bengal
(D) Mahalwari Settlement : North-Western Province
Ans : (B)

100. The gradual increase in rural indebtedness in India under the British rule was due to—
1. Fragmentation of Landholdings
2. Decline of cottage industries
3. Lack of development of irrigational facilities
4. Introduction of cash crops Which of these are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)

101. At Lucknow the revolt of 1857 broke out on—
(A) May 30, 1857
(B) June 4, 1857
(C) May 15, 1857
(D) June 15, 1857
Ans : (B)

102. The Asiatic Society of Bengal in Calcutta was founded by—
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Sir Williams Jones
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Keshabchandra Sen
Ans : (B)

103. The Theosophical Society allied itself to the—
(A) Christian revival movement
(B) Islamic revival movement
(C) Hindu revival movement
(D) All of these
Ans : (C)

104. Which of the following statements about the Ramakrishna Mission is wrong ?
(A) It held the pure Vedantic doctrine as its ideal
(B) It aimed at the development of the highest spirituality in man
(C) It prohibited the worship of images
(D) It recognised modern developments in Science and Technology
Ans : (C)

105. Fifth Session of the Indian National Congress was held in 1889 at—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Madras
(C) Bombay
(D) Dacca
Ans : (C)

106. The moderates and extremists were united in the Congress Session of—
(A) Lahore
(B) Bombay
(C) Allahabad
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (D)

107. Who among the following was not in Khilafat Committee ?
(A) Majhar ul Haq
(B) Hasrat Mohani
(C) Maulana Shauqat Ali
(D) Hakim Azmalkhan
Ans : (A)

108. Who among the following was the president of All India Trade Union Congress in 1929 ?
(A) M. N. Roy
(B) N. M. Joshi
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Jayaprakash Narayan
Ans : (B)

109. Swaraj Party was formed by—
(A) C. R. Das
(B) Motilal Nehru
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru
Ans : (D)

110. ‘Lucknow Pact’ was concluded between—
(A) Congress and the British Government
(B) Muslim League and the British Government
(C) Congress and the Muslim League
(D) Congress, the Muslim League and the British Government
Ans : (C)

111. An All Party Conference appointed a sub-committee with Ali Imam, Tejbahadur Sapru and Subhash Bose. Who was presiding this subcommittee ?
(A) Maulana Azad
(B) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(C) Madan Mohan Malviya
(D) Motilal Nehru
Ans : (D)

112. Who among the following participated in all the three Round Table Conferences ?
(A) Madan Mohan Malviya
(B) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Sardar Patel
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

113. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Ramprasad Bismil : Second Lahore Conspiracy Case
(B) Surya Sen : Chatgaon Case
(C) Bhagat Singh : Kakori Conspiracy Case
(D) Chandrashekhar Azad : Delhi Bomb Case
Ans : (B)

114. When were the Congress Governments formed in seven out of eleven provinces ?
(A) July 1935
(B) July 1936
(C) July 1937
(D) July 1938
Ans : (C)

115. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Chelmsford : Rowlatt Act
(B) Lord Reading : Delhi Darbar
(C) Lord Willington : Arriving of Prince of Wales in India
(D) Lord Hardinge : II Round Table Conference
Ans : (A)

116. Subhash Chandra Bose inaugurated the government of Free India at—
(A) Burma
(B) Japan
(C) Germany
(D) Singapore
Ans : (D)

117. In December 1931 two school girl students killed the District Judge in Komilla by shooting—
(A) Suniti Choudhary and Bina Das
(B) Shanti Ghosh and Suniti Choudhary
(C) Bina Das and Kalpana Datta
(D) Kalpana Datta and Shanti Ghosh
Ans : (B)

118. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Chuar Revolt : Orissa
(B) Sanyasi Revolt : Bihar
(C) Parlakhemundi Revolt : Orissa
(D) Rampa Revolt : Karnatak
Ans : (B)

119. The following countries undertook the responsibility of organising the Bandung Conference—
(A) Indonesia, Burma, Cambodia
(B) India, Burma, Indonesia
(C) Sri Lanka, Indonesia, Cambodia
(D) China, Japan, Thailand
Ans : (B)

120. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution declares it is a primary duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the “Improvement of the Public Health” ?
(A) Article 46
(B) Article 47
(C) Article 48
(D) Article 49
Ans : (B)