Monsoon Diseases

During rainy season some want to enjoy watching the weather from the comfort of their homes eating their favourite ‘pakoras’ and sipping a hot cup of ‘chai’, while others want to go out and enjoy the rains. Though following a scorching summer the rain ushers in new lease of life, it sometimes brings with it some deadly diseases.

Following are the most common diseases, their symptoms and some suggestions to prevent them during the rainy season.

Malaria

• This is the most dangerous disease in India with a very high number of deaths credited to it. The disease is spread by Female Anopheles mosquito. A large number of cases are reported during the rainy season as water logging provides conducive conditions for mosquitoes to breed.

• Fever at regular intervals, bouts of shivering, muscle pain and weakness are the general symptoms of Maleria.

• Since this disease is spread by mosquitoes the best prevention is to keep the surroundings clean and mosquito-free. Make sure that water does not stagnate in your area as mosquitoes breed in stagnant water. Use DDT in the drains near your home. Use of mosquito repellents and nets is highly recommended. Do not ignore any symptoms of malaria and consult your doctor immediately if you feel any sign of the disease.

Cholera

• Cholera is caused by contaminated food and water. Also poor hygienic conditions help the spread of the disease. It normally spreads in places with poor sanitation facilities.

• Severe diarrhea with watery stools is the most common symptom of Cholera. There could also be vomiting with immediate water loss and muscle cramps.

• Keep the drinking water clean and boil it before using. Maintain personal hygiene and good sanitation. It is advisable to get vaccinated as it gives immunity for almost six months.

• Oral rehydration should be given immediately for patients suffering from Cholera.

Typhoid

• Typhoid is another highly infectious disease that spreads during the monsoon season and it is also caused by contaminated food and water.

• The most common symptom of this disease is prolonged fever. Severe pain in abdomen and headache can also be the symptoms.

• This is a highly communicable disease so the patient should be isolated from the rest of the family. Advance vaccination may also help prevent it. High intake of fluid is advised to patients to prevent dehydration. Since this disease has a tendency of relapsing precautions should continue even after apparent recovery.

Hepatitis A

• Hepatitis A is generally caused by flies. It can also spread by coming in direct contact with the patient.

• The symptoms are similar to those of flu including high fever along with headache, pain in joints and vomiting.

• The most important prevention of this disease is vaccination. This vaccine is available at all the government and private hospitals. Complete bed rest and a high calorie diet is advised to the patient.

Common Cold

• Common cold is the most common disease that spreads easily during rainy season. • Constant sneezing, sore throat and fever are the common symptoms of the disease. • The easy way to prevent common cold is to avoid catching it. But if at all it catches you, treat yourself with a glass of hot turmeric milk. Gargles with warm water give relief to your sore throat. If things don’t improve you may like to see a doctor.

MPPSC Exam Solved Paper 2011

Public Administration 

1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as “the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)

2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)

3. ‘Good Governance’ and ‘Participating Civil Society for Development’ were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)

4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)

5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)

6. By whom was the ‘Managerial Grid’ developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)

7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)

8. The concept of the ‘zone of indifference’ is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)

9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of ‘circular response’ ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)

10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)

11. Who wrote the book ‘Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective’ ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)

12. Who rejected the principles of administration as ‘myths’ and ‘proverbs’ ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)

13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)

14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)

15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)

16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)

17. ‘Job loading’ means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

18. The theory of ‘Prismatic Society’ in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)

19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following is not included in ‘hygiene’ factors in the Herzberg’s two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company’s policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)

21. The ‘Gang-Plank’ refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)

22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)

23. Henry Fayol’s General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)

24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)

26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
Ans : (C)

27. The principle of ‘span of control’ means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
Ans : (B)

28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
Ans : (D)

30. In hierarchy, the term ‘scalar’ means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
Ans : (B)

31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
Ans : (D)

32. One who tells one’s supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
Ans : (B)

34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)

36. The most effective means of citizen’s control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)

37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
Ans : (D)

38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
Ans : (C)

39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

40. ‘Habeas Corpus’ literally means—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

41. The system of ‘Rule of Law’ was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (A)

42. Who says that “Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
Ans : (C)

43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
Ans : (B)

44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
Ans : (B)

45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)

46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
Ans : (C)

47. ‘Grand Corps’ in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans : (C)

48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Ans : (D)

49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)

50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
Ans : (A)

51. The term ‘Performance Budget’ was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)

52. During passing of budget in the Parliament ‘Guilotine’ is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)

53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)

55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)

56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)

57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)

58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)

59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)

60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)

61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)

62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)

63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)

64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)

65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)

66. ‘Position classification’ is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)

67. The civil service was defined as “professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled” by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)

68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)

69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)

70. The ‘spoils system’ in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)

71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)

72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)

73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)

74. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Ans : (C)

75. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Ans : (B)

76. ‘Efficiency record’ method for determining the merit for promotion is practised in—
(A) The USA
(B) France
(C) The UK
(D) Japan
Ans : (A)

77. “Officials make work for each other.” This is said by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Ramsay Muir
(C) Parkinson
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (C)

78. The Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration started functioning at Mussoorie from—
(A) June 12, 1959
(B) Sept. 13, 1959
(C) Sept. 1, 1959
(D) February 12, 1959
Ans : (C)

79. In the USA, the ‘spoils system’ was discarded in favour of the ‘merit principle’ by the followings Act—
(A) Civil Service Reform Act, 1978
(B) Pendleton Act, 1883
(C) Hatch Act, 1939
(D) Civil Service Act of 1853
Ans : (B)

80. Constitutional Safeguards to civil servants in India are ensured by—
(A) Article 310
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 311
(D) Article 315
Ans : (C)

81. ‘Mandamus’ is a writ issued by the Court—
(A) Asking a public official or any authority to perform legal duties
(B) Enquiring into the legality of claim of any person to public office
(C) Asking a person who has detained any other person, to appear before a court
(D) Against any lower court not to do any act excess of their jurisdiction
Ans : (A)

82. Rajya Sabha in India consists of—
(A) 238 members
(B) 250 members
(C) 254 members
(D) 256 members
Ans : (B)

83. The features of Indian Federal System are—
1. Division of powers
2. Separation of powers
3. Independent judiciary
4. Leadership of the Prime Minister
5. A written constitution
Now choose the right option—
(A) 2, 3, 5
(B) 1, 4, 5
(C) 1, 2, 5
(D) 1, 3, 5
Ans : (D)

84. In which of the following articles of the constitution is the term ‘Cabinet’ mentioned ?
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 352
(D) Not mentioned in the Constitution
Ans : (C)

85. How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor ?
(A) 1/3rd
(B) 1/12 th
(C) 1/8th
(D) 1/6th
Ans : (D)

86. The Public Corporation is—
(A) Accountable to Finance Ministry only
(B) Partially accountable to Parliament
(C) Not accountable to Parliament
(D) Accountable to Parliament
Ans : (D)

87. Who among the following said that, “Company form of public enterprise is a fraud on the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Paul Appleby
(B) Chhagla Commission
(C) Ashok Chanda
(D) Morarjee Desai
Ans : (C)

88. The grants made in advance by the Lok Sabha in respect of estimated expenditure is called—
(A) Token grant
(B) Vote on credit
(C) Exceptional grant
(D) Vote on account
Ans : (D)

89. Impeachment proceedings against the President for violation of the Constitution can be initiated in—
(A) The Lok Sabha
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) The Supreme Court
Ans : (C)

90. Planning Commission was setup—
(A) Under the Government of India Act, 1935
(B) As per the provisions of the Constitution of India
(C) By a Cabinet resolution
(D) As per the recommendations of the National Development Council
Ans : (C)

91. If the President wants to resign, he shall address his letter of resignation to—
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Vice-President of India
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)

92. The duty of Finance Commission is not to recommend upon—
(A) Distribution of taxes between the Union and States
(B) Determination of principles which should govern the grantsin-aid from the Centre to the State
(C) Consideration of new items of revenue to be allocated to States
(D) Any other matter especially referred to the Commission
Ans : (C)

93. The term ‘Federation’ has been used in the Indian Constitution in—
(A) Article 373
(B) Article 280
(C) Article 90
(D) Nowhere
Ans : (D)

94. A Governor can issue an ordinance—
(A) Whenever he likes
(B) Whenever Chief Minister advises him
(C) Whenever the State Legislature is not in session
(D) When the Union Government tells him to do so
Ans : (C)

95. Charged expenditure upon the Consolidated fund of India—
(A) Is submitted to the vote of Parliament
(B) Is not submitted to the vote of Rajya Sabha
(C) Is not submitted for the sanction of the President
(D) Is not submitted to the vote of Parliament
Ans : (D)

96. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the nomination of the Anglo-Indian community in the State Legislative Assembly ?
(A) Article 239
(B) Article 267
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 403
Ans : (C)

97. The principal function of Directorates in a State Government is to—
(A) Undertake policy implementation
(B) Render auxiliary services
(C) Facilitate policy formulation
(D) Promote inter-agency cooperation and coordination
Ans : (A)

98. The District treasury comes under the control of the—
(A) State Government
(B) District Collector
(C) District Treasury Officer
(D) Chief Secretary
Ans : (B)

99. The existence of the Second Chamber (Legislative Council) in the state largely depends on the wishes of the—
(A) People
(B) High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Legislative Assembly
Ans : (D)

100. The Minister-Civil Servant relationship in India emerged as a result of—
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
(C) Indian Constitution, 1950
(D) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
Ans : (B)

101. Village Panchayat is accountable to the—
(A) Panchayat Samiti
(B) Zila Parishad
(C) Chairman of the Village Panchayat
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

102. Who among the following is known as ‘the father of local selfgovernment’ in India ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lord Canning
(C) Lord Ripon
(D) Lord Wellesley
Ans : (C)

103. Ashok Mehta Committee recommended for the establishment of—
(A) Nagar Panchayat
(B) Panchayat Samiti
(C) Mandal Panchayat
(D) Gram Panchayat
Ans : (C)

104. The first municipal corporation in India was set-up at Madras in the year—
(A) 1767
(B) 1687
(C) 1667
(D) 1678
Ans : (B)

105. In the Constitution of India, economic and social planning is included in the—
(A) Union List of the VII Schedule
(B) State List of the VII Schedule
(C) Concurrent List of the VII Schedule
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

106. Which among of the following is not considered as part of the Civil Society ?
(A) Non-Government Organisations
(B) Caste associations
(C) Legislature
(D) Family
Ans : (C)

107. Who conceived the concept of Gram Swaraj ?
(A) Jaya Prakash Narain
(B) Vinoba Bhave
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Swami Dayanand
Ans : (C)

108. State Finance Commission is appointed by a State Government every five year to determine—
(A) Financial resources of the state for placing state’s requirements before the Union Government
(B) Development requirements of the state for formulating State Five Year Plan
(C) Budgetary requirements of various departments of the state government
(D) Pattern of distribution of state’s tax revenue between the state government and local bodies (both rural and urban) and the pattern of grant-in-aid to local bodies
Ans : (D)

109. Reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj bodies seeks to ensure—
(A) Economic welfare of women and children
(B) Gender parity in rural society
(C) Participation of women in public life
(D) Empowerment of women as an individual
Ans : (C)

110. Mayor-in-Council form of government means—
(A) Cabinet form of government at the municipal level
(B) Classical prefectorial form of government at the municipal level
(C) Making Mayor unaccountable to his colleagues
(D) Presidential form of government at the municipal level
Ans : (A)

111. According to 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be—
(A) 18 years
(B) 23 years
(C) 21 years
(D) 25 years
Ans : (C)

112. Town Area Committee is constituted and governed by—
(A) District Board
(B) State Legislature
(C) Governor
(D) Municipal Council
Ans : (B)

113. The Lokayukta and Uplokayuktas Act was first passed in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) West Bengal
(C) Karnataka
(D) Orissa
Ans : (D)

114. Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats contains—
(A) 18 items
(B) 28 items
(C) 19 items
(D) 29 items
Ans : (D)

115. Which one of the following statements is not correct about civil society organisations ?
(A) They are sovereign bodies
(B) They are voluntary but nonprofit-making agencies
(C) They work in close proximity with people
(D) They create awareness; educate and sensitise people on common issues and act as catalysts of social change
Ans : (A)

116. The ‘Recall’ provision to remove the elected office-bearers from the local self-government institution has been executed in—
(A) Bihar
(B) Kerala
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Haryana
Ans : (C)

117. The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises municipal elections under—
(A) Article 240(1)
(B) Article 241(2)
(C) Article 243(K)
(D) Article 245(D)
Ans : (C)

118. Which of the following states does not have Panchayati Raj Institution at all ?
(A) Assam
(B) Tripura
(C) Kerala
(D) Nagaland
Ans : (D)

119. Under which of the Article of the Constitution of India did the District Planning Committee come into existence ?
(A) 243 ZD
(B) 243 ZE
(C) 244 ZD
(D) 242 ZD
Ans : (A)

120. Which of the following is not the duty of a District Magistrate ?
(A) Maintenance of Law and Order
(B) Collection of land revenue
(C) Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes
(D) Conduct of local bodies elections
Ans : (D)

GEOGRAPHY MCQs

1. Which one of the following countries has the longest international boundary with India?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Bhutan
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Ans : c
2. Adam’s bridge connects
(a) Amman and Damascus
(b) Dhanushkodi (Ramesvararn) and Talaimannar
(c) Israel and Jerusalem
(d) Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
Ans : b
3 Hawaiian Islands are located in
(a) South Pacific Ocean
(b) North Pacific Ocean
(c) South Atlantic Ocean
(d) North Atlantic Ocean
Ans : b
4. The Ocean between America and Europe is called
(a) Pacific
(b) Arctic
(c) Atlantic
(d) Southern
Ans : c
5. Ljublajana is a part of
(a)Yugoslavia
(b) Portugal
(c)Romania
(d) Russia
Ans : a
6. Fiji islands are a part of
(a)Indonesia
(b) Malaysia
(c)Polynes
(d) Australasia
Ans : a
7. The Strait connecting Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal is
(a) Bering strait
(b) Dover Strait
(c) Palk Strait
(d) Vermosa Strait
Ans : a c
8. Myanmar is a new name of
(a) Burma
(b) Philippines
(c) Thailand
(d) Vietnam
Ans : a
9. Of the following, the country which is not in Oceania is
(a)Fiji
(b) Barbados
(c)New Zealand
(d) Papua New Guinea
Ans : b
10. Amongst the following, which is the largest island?
(a) England
(b) Japan
(c) Borneo
(d) New Guinea
Ans : d
11 Canary islands are dependencies of ?
(a) Spain
(b) Portugal
(c) Germany
(d) U.K.
Ans : a
12. The Strait which separates Asia from North America is
(a) The Bering Strait
(b) The Palk Strait
(c) The Strait of Gibraltar
(d) The Strait of Malacca
Ans : a
13. Long treeless grassy palms are characteristics of
(a) Campos
(B) Llanos
(c) Pampas
(d) Prairies
Ans : d
14. Which of the following is not a desert?
(a) Gobi
(b) Kalahari
(c) Sahara
(d) Cotopaxi
Ans : d
15. The highest waterfall of the world is ?
(a) Niagara Falls
(b) Boyomar Falls
(c) Salto Angel Falls
(d) Khone Falls
Ans : c
16. Which is the world’s largest desert?
(a) Sahara
(b) Gobi
(c)Thar
(d)Takala Makan
Ans : a
17. Which of the following is the largest river in the
world?
(a) Nile
(b) Congo
(c) Ganges
(d) Amazon
Ans : d
18. Which of the following is the highest plateau in the word?
(a) Colorado Plateau
(b) Pamir Plateau
(c) Patagonia Plateau
(d) Potwar Plateau
Ans : b
19. Niagara Falls are in ?
(a) Australia
(b) U.K.
(c) South Africa
(d) USA
Ans : d
20. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a)Algeria -Niger
(b) Brazil -Amazon
(c) Iraq -Tigris
(d) Myanmar –Irrawady
Ans : a
21. The average elevation of Tibetan Plateau above sea level is ?
(a) 2Km
(b) 3Km
(c) 4Km
(d) 5Km
Ans : c
22. Which of the following is the deepest lake?
(a)Lake Victoria
(b)Caspian Sea
(c)Lake Superior
(d) Lake Baikal
Ans : d
23. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Baghdad -Tigris
(b) Cairo -Rhine
(c)London -Thames
(d)New York –Hudson
Ans : b
24. The Hawaii islands are the top of submerged
(a) block mountains
(b) folded mountains
(c) volcanic mountains
(d) dome mountains
Ans : c
25. Which is the largest Gulf in the world?
(a) The Gulf of Cambay
(b) The Persian Gulf
(c) The Gulf of Mexico
(d )None of these
Ans : c
26. The Great Barrier Reef is
(a) Conglomeration of corals in Australian waters
(b) Mountain range in Utah, U.S.A.
(c) Salt hills of Afghanistan
(d) Sub -Oceanic mountain in South China Sea
Ans : a
27. The hottest place in the world is
(a)Teheran,Iran
(b) Jaisalmer, India
(c)Dallol, Ethiopia
(d) Azizia,Libya
Ans : c
28. The country that has the greatest length of the day during summer is
(a) Australia
(b) Mexico
(c) Nigeria
(d) Norway
Ans : c
29. The climate of a place depends upon
(a) its distance from the equator
(b) its height above sea level
(c) Both the above
(d) Neither of the above
Ans : c
30. The maximum temperature in Thar desert during the month of May is between (in Degree centigrade)
(a) 35-37
(b) 37-39
(c) 40-43
(d) 43- 45
Ans : c
31. The Greeks classified the world climates into
1. Torrid zone or tropical climate
2. Temperate zone or moderate climate
3. Frigid zone or cold climate
Which of the following factors formed the basis of this classification ?
(a) Temperature
(b) Relative humidity
(c) Precipitation
(d) Wind direction
Ans : a
32. A place having an average temperature of 27 C and an annual rainfall of over 200 cm,
it could be ?
(a)Tehran
(b) Singapore
(c)Nagpur
(d) Moscow
Ans : b
33. Assertion (A) :Vegetation is the Index of climate
Reason (R) :Rainfall and temperature predominantly affect the type of vegetation.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans : a
34 Extensive subsistence agriculture is
(a) Farming on the slopes of Western Ghats
(b) Farming in the thickly populated areas
(c) Farming in the thinly populated areas
(d) Farming in the forests of equatorial region
Ans : c
35.If there is high rainfall, abundant sunshine, gently sloping land and well drained soil, for which crop are the conditions most suitable?
(a) Jute
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Tea
Ans : d
36. Which of the following soils is very hard to cultivate?
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Red
(d) Sandy
Ans : a
37. Sucrose content in sugarcane decreases
(a) if frost occurs during the process of ripening
(b) if high rainfall occurs during the period of growth of the plant
(a) if there is high temperature during the time of ripening
(d) if there is fluctuation in temperature during the period of growth of the plant
Ans : b
38. The important feature of shifting cultivation is
(a) Cultivation by transplantation
(b) Cultivation of Leguminous crops
(a) Change of Cultivation site
(d) Rotating of crops
Ans : c
39. Fertility of soil can be improved by
(a) Adding living earthworms
(b) Adding dead earthworms
(c) Removing dead earthworms
(d) Removing living earthworms and adding dead earthworms
Ans : a
40. The crop associated with retting process is
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Jute
(d) Cotton
Ans : c
41. In which of the following regions plantation agriculture is largely practised?
(a)Subtropical
(b) Semi-arid
(c)Tropical
(d) Temperate
Ans : c
42. World’s largest producer of jute is
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Burma
(c) India
(d) Pakistan
Ans : c
43. Which one of the following statements correctly defines the term transhumance?
(a) Economy that solely depends upon animals
(b) Farming in which only one crop is cultivated by clearing hill slopes
(c) Practice of growing crops on higher hill slopes in summer and foothills in winter
(d) Seasonal migration of people with their animals up and down the mountains
Ans : d
44. The barriers that can prevent small farmers in many nations from participating in the green revolution include
(a) money for investment
(b) education
(c) small size of farms
(d) all the above
Ans : d
45. Which of the following refers to ‘Green Manure’?
(a) Adding NPK fertilizers to the soil
(b) Growing leguminous crops and ploughing it
(c) Adding farmyard manure
(d) Applying slurry manure obtained from Gobar gas plants
Ans : b
46. Which of the following is not a cash crop
(a) Cotton
(b) Groundnut
(c) Jowar
(d) Jute
Ans : c
47. Which of the following types of soils have a marked capacity to retain water?
(a) Desert soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Red soil
(d) Regur soil
Ans : d
48. The ideal climatic conditions for the cultivation of rice are
(a) Rainfall above 100cm, temperature above 25’ C
(b) Cool and moist climate for the entire crop period
(c) Rainfall below 100cm, temperature below 25’ C
(d) Warn and dry climate during the entire crop period
Ans : a
49. Which crop is generally sown to restore and maintain soil fertility?
(a) Barley
(b) Jowar
(c) Maize
(d) Pulses
Ans : d
50. Which of the following countries consumes more fish than any other country in the world?
(a) Japan
(b) Great Britain
(c) France
(d) China
Ans : a

VARIOUS COUNTRIES CAPITAL CITIES

1. The capital of Georgia is
(a) Bosnia
(b) Tiblisi
(c) Tusla
(d) Sarajevo
Ans : b
2. Helsinki is the Capital of ?
(a) Thailand
(b) Finland
(c) Norway
(d) Sweden
Ans : b
3. Which of the following is the Capital of Bulgaria?
(a) Sofia
(b) Danube
(c) Rio de Janeiro
(d)Belgrade
Ans : a
4. The capital city of Nicaragua is ?
(a) Caracas
(b) Brasilia
(c) Rio de Janeiro
(d) Managua
Ans : d
5. The capital of Federal Republic of Germany is
(a) Frankfurt
(b) Munich
(c) Hamburg
(d) Berlin
Ans : d
6. The capital of unified Vietnam is ?
(a) Phnom Penh
(b) Saigon
(c)Ho – Chi – Minh
(d) Hanoi
Ans : d
7. The capital city of Fiji.is ?
(a) Perth
(b) Wellington
(c) Suva
(d) Adelaide
Ans : c
8. Lima is the capital of ?
(a) Bolivia
(b) Chile
(c) Argentina
(d) Peru
Ans : d
9. Which one of the following cities is the capital of Japan?
(a) Beijing
(b) Kyato
(c) Nagasaki
(d) Tokyo
Ans : d
10. Vienna is the capital of
(a) Austria
(b) Denmark
(c) Norway
(d) Sweden
Ans : a
11. The capital city of Nicaragua is
(a) Brasilia
(b) Buenos Aires
(c) Caracas
(d) Managua
Ans : d
12. Oslo is the capital of
(a) Sweden
(b) Norway
(c) Finland
(d) Denmark
Ans : b
13. Port Louis is the capital of ?
(a) Greenland
(b) Maldive
(c) Mauritius
(d) Argentina
Ans : c
14. Kampala is the capital of
(a) Zambia
(b) Uganda
(c) Tanzania
(d) Kenya
Ans : b
15. Beirut is the capital of which of the following countries?
(a) Peru
(b) Trinidad
(c) Lebanon
(d) Libya
Ans : c
16. The capital of Turkey is ?
(a) Ankara
(b) Lisbon
(c) Mahe
(d) Tunis
Ans : a
17. What is the administrative capital of South Africa?
(a) Cape Town
(b) Johannesburg
(c) kimberley
(d) Pretoria
Ans : d
18 Amman is the capital of which country?
(a) Egypt
(b) Jordan
(c) Iran
(d) Iraq
Ans : b
19. Tirana is the capital of the country known as
(a)Hungary
(b) West Indies
(c)Albania
(d)Yugoslavia
Ans : c
20 . Islamabad is the capital of ?
(a)Sudan
(b) UAE
(c)Pakistan
(d)Afganistan
Ans : c

FUNCTIONS AND DUTIES OF THE NATIONAL SCHEDULE CASTE COMMISSION

1.1              The functions, duties and power of the Commission have been laid down in clauses(5), (8) and (9) of the Article 338  of the Constitution. (Annexure-II) of the handbook

Clause (5): It shall be the duty of the Commission: -

(a)       to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the Scheduled Castes under this Constitution or under any other law for the time being in force or under any order of the Government and to evaluate the working of such safeguards;

(b)       to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the Scheduled Castes;

(c)      to participate and advise on the planning process  of socio-economic development of the Scheduled Castes  and to evaluate the progress of their development under the FUNCTIONS Union and any State;

(d)      to present  to the President, annually and at such other times as the Commission may deem fit, reports upon the working of those safeguards;

(e)      to make in such reports recommendations as to the measures that should be taken by the Union or any State for the effective implementation of those safeguards and other measures for the protection, welfare and socio-economic development of the Scheduled Castes; and

(f)             to discharge such other functions in relation to the
   protection, welfare and development and advancement of the
   Scheduled Castes as the President may, subject to the
   provisions of any law made by Parliament, by rule specify.

Clause (8) : The Commission shall, while investigating any matter referred to in sub-clause (a) or inquiring into any complaint referred to in sub-clause (b) of clause (5), have all the powers of a civil court trying a suit and in particular in respect of the following matters, namely:

(a)   Summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person from any part of India and examining him on oath;

       (b)   Requiring the discovery and production of any documents;

       (c)   Receiving evidence on affidavits;

       (d)   Requisitioning any public record or copy thereof from any

              court or office;

(e)   Issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses and documents;

(f)    Any other matter which the President may by rule, determine;

Clause (9)- The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission   
     on all major policy matters affecting Scheduled Castes.

2.    CONSTITUTIONAL SAFEGUARDS

The important Constitutional Safeguards for Scheduled Castes is mentioned below:-

(A)          Development and Protective Safeguards

          These safeguards are contained in the Directive Principles of State Policy of the Constitution and a specific provision in Article 46 which is a comprehensive provision comprising both the developmental and regulatory aspects.  It reads as follows:-

Article 46          “The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, and in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation”.

(B)     Social Safeguards

Article 17          “Untouchability” is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.  The enforcement of any disability arising out of “Untouchability” shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.

          To give effect to this Article, Parliament made an enactment viz., Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955.   To make the provisions of this Act more stringent, the Act was amended in 1976 and was also renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.  As provided under the Act, the Government of India also notified the Rules, viz, the PCR Rules, 1977, to carry out the provisions of this Act.  As cases of atrocities on SCs/STs were not covered under the provisions of PCR Act, 1955, Parliament passed another important Act in 1989 for taking specific measures to prevent the atrocities.  This Act known as the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, became effective from 30-1-1990.  For carrying out the provisions of this Act the Govt. of India have notified the SCs and STs (Prevention of Atrocities) Rules, 1995 on 31-3-1995.  Copies of PCR Act, 1955, PCR Rules 1977, the SCs and the STs (POA) Act, 1989 and the SCs and STs (POA) Rules 1995 are placed at Annexures-V, VI, VII and VIII of the handbook respectively.

Article 23  prohibits traffic in human beings and beggar and other similar forms of forced labour and provides that any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.  It does not specifically mention SCs but since majority of bounded labour belong to SCs this Article has a special significance for  these communities.  In pursuance of this Article, Parliament has enacted the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976.  For effective implementation of this Act, the Ministry of Labour is running a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for identification, liberation and rehabilitation of bonded labour.

Article 24  provides that no child below the age of 14 years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.  There are Central and State laws to prevent child labour.  This Article is also significant for SCs as a substantial portion of child labour engaged in hazardous jobs belong to these groups.

Article 25(2)  (b)  provides that Hindu religious institutions of a public character shall be thrown open to all classes and sections of Hindus. This provision is relevant as some sects of Hindus used to claim that only members of the concerned sects had a right to enter their temples.  This was only a subterfuge to prevent entry of SC persons in such temples.  For the purpose of this provision the term Hindu includes Sikh, Jain and Buddhist.

(C)          Economic Safeguards

The provisions of Articles 23, 24 and 46 mentioned above also form part of the economic safeguards for Scheduled Castes.

(D)          Educational and Cultural Safeguards

Article 15(4) empowers the State to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for SCs and STs.  This provision w as added to the Constitution through the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, which amended several Articles.  This provision has enabled the State to reserve seats for SCs and STs in educational institutions including technical, engineering and medical colleges and in Scientific  & Specialized Courses.  In this Article as well as in Article 16(4) the term ‘backward classes’  is used as a generic term and comprises various categories of backward classes, viz., Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, De-notified Communities (Vimukta Jatiyan) and Nomadic/Semi nomadic communities.

(E)        Political Safeguards

Article 164(I) provides that in the States of Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Orissa there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and backward classes or any other work.

Article 330          provides for reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha.

Article 332          provides for reservation of seats for SCs/STs in the State Vidhan Sabhas (Legislative Assemblies).

Article 334          originally laid down that the provisions relating to the reservation of seats for SCs/STs in the Lok Sabha and State Vidhan Sabhas (and the representation of the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and the State Vidhan Sabhas by nomination) would cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of ten years from the commencement of the Constitution.  This Article has been amended five times, extending the said period by ten years on each occasion.  This provision will now expire in January, 2010.

Article 371A          contains special provisions with respect to Nagaland.

Article 371B          contains special provisions with respect to Assam.

Article 371C          contains special provisions with respect to Manipur.

Article 371F          contains special provisions with respect to Sikkim.

(F)            Service Safeguards

Article 16(4)            empowers the State to make “any provision for the reservation in appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State”.

Article 16(4A) specific that nothing in this Article shall prevent the State from making any provision for reservation in matters of promotion, “with consequent seniority” to any class or classes of posts in the services under the State in favour of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes which, in the opinion of the State, are not adequately represented in the services under the State”.

Article 16(4B) –“Specific that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from considering any unfilled vacancies of a year which are reserved for being filled up in that year in accordance with any provision for reservation made under clause (4) or clause (4A) as a separate class of vacancies to be filled up in any succeeding year or years and such class of vacancies shall not be considered together with the vacancies of the year in which they are being filled up for determining the ceiling of fifty percent reservation on total number of vacancies of that year”.

Article 320 (4)          provides that nothing in clause (3) shall require a Public Service Commission to be consulted as respects the manner in which any provision under Article 16(4A) may be made or the manner in which effect may be given to the provisions of Article 335

Article 335   mentions that the claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making to appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State”

“Provided that nothing in this Article shall prevent in making of any provision in favor of Member of SCs & STs for relaxation in qualifying marks in any examination or lowering the standards of evaluation, for reservation in matters of promotion to any class or classes of services or posts in connection with affairs of Union or of a State” (Constitutional 82^nd Amendment,-Act, 2000).

3.            STATUTES AND LEGISLATIONS

There are a number of laws, both Central and State, which provide for safeguards to SCs.  Some of these emanate from the various Constitutional provisions.  An illustrative list of such laws is given below:

-       The Protection of Civil Rights Act- 1955(in respect of Scheduled   Castes)

-        The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled  Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989

-        The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976 (in respect of Scheduled Castes)

-        The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 (in respect of Scheduled Castes)

-        The Minimum Wages Act 1948 (in respect of Scheduled Castes)

-        Acts and regulations in force in different States to prevent alienation of land belonging to SCs.  In some States such provision exists in the Land Revenue Code.

4.            SOCIO-ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

4.1         Section (9) of the Article 338 of the Constitution reads as follows:

“The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting Scheduled Castes.”

The Constitution has made it mandatory for the Union and every State Government to consult the Commission on all major Policy matters affecting SCs.  This is very important function of the Commission, which has to keep track of all the major policy decisions, Legislative of Executive action taken by the Government of India or any State Government. 

4.2      As per the provisions of Clause 5 (c ) of Article 338, the Commission is required to participate and advise on the planning process of socio-economic development of SCs and evaluate the progress of their development under Union and any State.  The role of the Commission in these areas involve interaction at various levels, i.e., with the Planning Commission, with the Central Ministries and with the State Governments.  The Commission and its officers both at Headquarters and the State offices participate in formulation of policies and the developmental programmes for SCs including Special Component Plan for Scheduled Castes.        

5.            PROCEDURE FOR INQUIRY

5.1       Inquiry into specific complaints

The Commission is required to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of Scheduled Castes.  In order to enable the Commission to perform this function effectively and efficiently, the Commission would like the members of Scheduled Castes to know that it will be helpful to inquire into their grievances if they substantiate their complaints with supporting documents and quote the relevant provisions of the Act or Rules directions which have been violated.

5.2           The following aspect may be kept in mind while filing complaints before the Commission. 

(a)        The complaint should be directly addressed to the Chairman/Vice-Chairman/Secretary, National Commission for Scheduled Castes, New Delhi or the heads of its State Offices.

(b)        The complaints should disclose his full identity and give his full address and should sign the representation.

(c)         Complaints should be legibly written or typed and, where necessary, supported by authenticated documents.

(d)         No action will be taken on matters which are sub-judice.  Hence sub-judice matter need not be referred to the Commission as complaint(s).

(e)         Cases pending in courts or cases in which a court has already given its final verdict may not be taken up afresh with the Commission.

5.3             Inquiry into cases of atrocities

5.3.1          Whenever information is received in the Commission about any incident of atrocity against a person belonging to Scheduled Castes, the Commission would immediately get in touch with the law enforcing and administrative machinery of the State and the district to ascertain the details of incident and the action taken by the district administration.

5.3.2.  The Commission ensures the following while by monitoring and issuing instructions to the concerned authorities.

(i)               Whether the scene of occurrence of the crime has been visited immediately by Collector and Supdt. of Police of the district on receipt of information.

(ii)       Whether proper FIR is registered in local Police Station.

 

(iii)      Whether names of all the persons involved/cited by the complainant has been included in the FIR.

(iv)        Whether investigation has been taken up by a Senior Police
         Officer as per provisions of SCs & STs (POA) Act- 1989.

(v)         Whether culprits  has been apprehended and booked without loss
of time.

(vi)        Whether proper charge sheet is filed mentioning the relevant
         sections of IPC together with the PCR Act-1955  and SCs & STs (POA) Act-1989  in Court.

(vii)    Whether the cases are tried by the Special Courts.

(viii)     Whether special Public Prosecutors are appointed to handle these cases.

(ix)          Whether Police assists the courts in bringing forward witnesses and see that the culprits are suitably punished by the courts.

 

5.3.3   The Commission will also monitor that

 (i)     The victims are provided with suitable medical assistance and on time;

(ii)              Adequate protection is arranged for the victims of such incidents by providing police protection by stationing a police party, by patrolling, etc;

(iii)           To see that proper compensation is paid to the victims as per provisions of law.

5.3.4       The Commission will, wherever possible depending upon the gravity and circumstances of the case, visit the place of incident to oversee the arrangements and to console and infuse confidence among the victims.

5.3.5       The Commission has laid down detailed procedure for conducting such inquiries and monitoring at all levels.  Such inquiries can be conduced by the Members of the Commission or Teams of Investigators from Headquarters or State office of the Commission.

5.4   Powers of the Commission to act as a Civil Court

While investigating any matter referred to in sub-clause (a) or inquiring into specific complaints under sub-clause (b) of the clause (5) of Article 338  of the Constitution, the Commission shall have the powers of a Civil Court trying a suit and in particular in respect of the following matters:

(a)    Summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person from any     part of India and examining him on oath;

(b) Requiring the discovery and production of any document;

(c) Receiving evidence on affidavits;

(d) Requisitioning of any public record or copy thereof from any court of office;

(e)   Issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses the documents;

(f)  Any other matter which the President may, by rule, determine.

5.5   Power to regulate its own procedure

Clause 4 of the amended Article 338  of the Constitution empowers the Commission to regulate its own procedure for a meaningful performance.  The Commission has framed the Rules of Procedure.  A copy of the Rules of Procedure of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes as notified on 1^st September, 2004 at given (Annexure X ) of the Handbook.

6.   APPROACH AND METHODOLOGY ADOPTED BY THE COMMISSION.

6.1.   Keeping in view its Constitutional obligations and the issues that are now critical, after almost half a century of independence, for the overall development and mainstreaming of the Scheduled Castes, the present Commission, constituted in February, 2004 has adopted a more vigorous approach in its functioning.  The meetings of the Commission are held regularly and the implementation of decisions taken is monitored keenly.

6.2   In order to monitor and evaluate the impact of development schemes, the Commission has decided to interact with the State/UT Governments more actively by holding State level review meetings with the Chief Secretaries and other senior officers and conducting field level visits.  The Commission feels that as a result of these visits and meetings, the State/UT Governments will become more conscious of the genuine problems of the Scheduled Castes and would take the necessary initiative in working out remedial measures and adopting appropriate strategies.

6.3    The Commission, through its Headquarters and State Offices has also conducted field level inquiries and studies.  This process has been given a renewed vigour with a view to ensure prompt relief, specially in matters, relating to crimes and atrocities on Scheduled Castes  and the grant of development benefits.

6.4    The procedure for investigating into complaints, especially with reference to violation of service safeguards, has also been streamlined to ensure prompt and speedy disposal of cases and relief in genuine cases.  By calling officers and concerned Liaison Officers to the Commission with all relevant records, many long pending cases are being decided in one or two sittings. The Commission has also used its powers of Civil Court to summon documents and enforcing attendance in conducting the inquiries.

6.5    The Commission is of the view that it is only through proper planning and effective implementation of appropriate schemes for development that the Scheduled Castes can hope to catch up with the rest of the population and realize their full potential.  The Commission has, thus, made a beginning by actively associating itself and participating in the planning process at the National and State levels.  Regular communication is being maintained with the Planning Commission, Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment and the State/UT Governments.  The Annual Plans of the Central Ministries, States and UT Governments are being analysed in the Commission to this end with the support of its State Offices.

7.            Consultation with Commission

Under the amended Article 338 (9), it has been provided that the Union and State Governments shall consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting the Scheduled Castes.  The Commission has impressed upon all concerned that this provision should be strictly enforced, as a result of which many Bills and other Policy matters affecting Scheduled Castes is now being received in the Commission for its views.  The Commission would like to reiterate the obligatory nature of this provision and solicit the support of all concerned to bring to its notice new policies and change in existing policies, which have a bearing on the interests of SCs.

8.         COMMISSION’S REPORT

8.1   Clause 5(d) of Article 338 provides  “to present to the  President, annually and at such other times as the Commission may deem fit, reports upon the working of those safeguards” and Clause 5(e) provides “to make in such reports, recommendations as to the measures that should be taken by the Union or any State for the effective implementation of those safeguards and other measures for the protection, welfare and socio-economic development of the Scheduled Castes.”

8.2   As per provision of these Clauses it is the duty of the Commission to present annually a report upon the working of Constitutional safeguards and measures taken by the Union and the States for the protection and welfare of the Scheduled Castes.  In this series the erstwhile National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes has presented seven Annual Reports and four Special Reports during the period from 12^th March, 1992 to 19^th February, 2004 containing a number of recommendations.

8.3   Clause 6 of Article 338 provides, “The President shall cause all such reports to be laid before each House of Parliament along with a Memorandum explaining the action taken or proposed to be taken on the recommendations relating to the Union and the reasons for the non-acceptance, if any, of such recommendations.

8.4   Clause 7 of Article 338 provides, “Where any such report or any part thereof relates to any matter with which any State Government is concerned, a copy of such report shall be forwarded to the Governor of the State who shall cause it to be laid before the Legislature of the State along with a Memorandum explaining the action taken or proposed to be taken on the recommendations relating to the State and the reasons for non-acceptance, if any, of any of such recommendations.

9. Organisational set up of the Secretariat of the Commission

The  National Commission for Scheduled Castes functions from the Headquarters located at New Delhi and from 12 State Offices of the Commission located in various States/UTs. The location and jurisdiction of these Offices and designation of office heads is given at Annexure-XI  of the handbook.

9.1 There are four Wings at Hqrs.

       1.       Administration & Coordination Wing

       2.       Service Safeguards Wing

       3.       Atrocities and Protection of Civil Rights Wing

       4.       Economic & Social Development Wing

   9.2 Administration and Co-ordination Wing

       This Wing looks after personnel management of officers and staff of the Secretariat of the Commission and provide administrative support in the functioning of the Commission.  The Co-ordination Wing co-ordinates the various activities  being performed in the Commission, including making arrangements for holding internal meetings of the Commission as well as with State/UT Administrations for reviewing the implementation of

constitutional safeguards.

 

9.3 Service Safeguards Wing        This Wing is dealing with the implementation of service safeguards provided to Scheduled Castes in the Central/State Government services as well as Central and State Government Public Sector Undertakings.  All representations/complaints relating to Scheduled Castes persons about their service matters are dealt within this Wing.  In addition, policy matters relating to enactment/Government orders and instructions pertaining to representation of Scheduled Castes in service, evaluation studies/surveys relating to implementation of the various Constitutional safeguards in respect of service matters are dealt in this Wing. Cases relating to false caste certificate and inclusion or exclusion of caste(s) in Scheduled Castes list are also dealt in this Wing.

9.4 Atrocities and Protection of Civil Rights Wing

This Wing is dealing with matters pertaining to atrocities caused on Scheduled Castes and cases relating to protection of Civil Rights Act, the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, the Minimum Wages Act, etc. either on receipt of complaint from individuals or from newspapers report.  Evaluation studies/surveys on these subjects are also conducted by this Wing.

9.5 Economic and Social Development Wing

This Wing is dealing with matters relating to development of Scheduled Castes particularly implementation and monitoring of plan schemes of the Central/State Governments.  Some of the specific items of work handled by this Wing are:

(i)   Special Component Plan for Scheduled Castes

(ii)   National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation.

(iii) Representations/complaints made by Scheduled Castes persons regarding their grievances on matters other than atrocities, untouchability practices and service matters;

(iv)  Social Research Institute and other research bodies;

(v)   Land Reforms Acts and their implementation;

(vi)   Education Schemes for Scheduled Castes etc.

10.         FUNCTIONS OF STATE OFFICES OF THE COMMISSION

10.1 The State Offices of the Commission work as ‘eyes and ears’ of the Commission. They keep a watch on the formulation of policy and issue of guidelines relating to the welfare of Scheduled Castes in the respective States/UTs under their jurisdiction and keep the Commission Headquarters informed about the developments periodically.  Policy decisions taken by any State Government/UT Administration affecting the interest of the  Scheduled Castes are brought to the notice of the concerned authorities for necessary modifications.  The State officers are requested to liaise with the State/UT Administration for taking up evaluation and other studies to assess the working of various development programmes implemented for the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and their impact on ameliorating the socio-economic conditions of the target groups. The findings of the studies are brought to the notice of the concerned State Government for taking remedial measures.  The main observations are highlighted in the Commission’s Report.

10.2 The State Offices of the Commission are required to interact with the State Administrations and guide them with a view to see that the interests of the Scheduled Castes is protected and promoted while in formulating plans and policies.  The State Offices also monitor the utilization of funds earmarked for plans pertaining to Scheduled Castes including keeping a watch on diversion of funds from Special Component Plan. 

10.3        Each of the State Offices sends Quarterly Report to the Commission Hqrs. on the activities undertaken by them highlighting major issues relating to welfare of Scheduled Castes in each States/UT under their jurisdiction. These reports contain useful information about the developments in a State and enable the Commission to have an overall view in respect of various States as well as national situation for taking appropriate action.